Applied Safety Fundamentals Flashcards

Multiple Choice and Scenario based questions based directly off of listed exam competencies.

1
Q

When welding takes place using natural ventilation, what action would best ensure worker safety?

a) Welding takes place in open areas.
b) Ceiling height is more than 10m (30 feet).
c) The plume is away from the worker’s breathing zone.
d) 15m3 (500 cubic feet) of space is provided for each welder.

A

Answer C

a) Working in an open space does not ensure toxic fumes are carried from worker.
b) There is no indicated exit point for the fumes.
c) This ensure the toxic fumes are carried away from the worker.
d) There is no indicated exit point for the fumes.

Competency: ASF18 (Hot Work (Welding, Cutting))

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2
Q

What engineering control would provide the best guarding protection on a punch press?

a) STREE guard
b) Pressure sensing pads
c) Point of operation fixed guard
d) Retractable Fence

A

Answer C

a) STREE is an analysis technique not a type of guard.
b) Pressure sensing pads will not protect and operator’s hands.
c) Because it is fixed, this type of guard is the most appropriate to control the hazard.
d) This type of guard can be removed by the operator.

Competency: ASF 10 - Safeguarding Machinery (point of operation, light curtains/pressure pads, interlocks).

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3
Q

What best describes safety through design?

a) process to identify potential hazards and risks at the design stage of an operation.
b) process to conduct a health and safety review at the start-up of a new piece of equipment.
c) Hazard abatement and risk reduction at the start of the implementation stage of an operation.
d) Hazard evaluation methods to reduce further risk of injury or damage to an acceptable level.

A

Answer A

a) Safety through design is well through out and agreed upon concept that translates into a process to effectively identify potential hazards and risks at the design stage.
b) A new piece of equipment should have a health and safety study completed before start-up.
c) In an ideal situation, the safety professional will have input at the design and engineering stage of an operation. Focus is on hazard abatement and risk reduction as early as possible.
d) safety through design integrates hazard analysis and risk assessment methods early in the design and engineering stages to reduce risk of injury.

Competency: ASF8 - Design and Procurement of Tools/Equipment/Materials

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4
Q

What best characterizes a fault tree analysis?

a) It works forward from specific events, or sequences of events to pinpoint those that could result in hazards.
b) It proactively identifies and evaluates hazards in order to eliminate or control.
c) it uses historical data to correlate each system or unit with its potential failure mode.
d) It works backwards from an incident to identify the combination of errors that resulted in the incident.

A

Answer D

a) this is the opposite of a fault tree
b) This is the purpose of a hazard/task analysis
c) This is used to prevent occurences rather than working backwards.
d) The fault tree is a process developed from the decision tree theory that reasons backwards from an incident to identify the combination of operational errors that resulted in the incident.

Competency: ASF6 (Process Hazard Analyses (Fault and Event Tree))

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5
Q

In addition to falling under the Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System (WHMIS) classification, what other hazards should be assessed in a laboratory environment?

a) Electrical, biological, and affective hazards.
b) Radiation, biological, and exposure hazards
c) Electrical, equipment, thermal, and radiation hazards
d) Equipment, thermal, affective and exposure hazards.

A

Answer C

a) affective hazards do not exist
b) exposure hazards do not exist
c) these are realistic within a laboratory that should be considered in addition to WHMIS labled products.
d) Affective hazards do not exist.

Competency: ASF24 Laboratory Safety & non-destructive testing of metals.

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6
Q

What is an example of a passive fall-arrest system?

a) Belt
b) Net
c) Harness
d) Lanyard

A

Answer B

a) This is an active system because it requires manipulation by worker to be effective.
b) Net is a passive system because it does not require any action on the part of the worker.
c) This is an active system because it requires manipulation by worker to be effective.
d) This is an active system because it requires manipulation by worker to be effective.

Competency: ASF23 Hazards and Controls related to Elevated Work

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7
Q

The entry team tests the Oxygen levels prior to entering a confined space. The direct reading gas monitor is registering an oxygen-deficient atmosphere. What are the initial physiological warning signs of a potential exposure?

a) increased breathing rate and increased pulse rate
b) Elevated stress levels and signs of cyanosis
c) Inability to move and a semi0consciou state
d) Respiratory depression and a feeling of euphoria

A

Answer A

a) The body tries to compensate for lack of oxygen by increasing lung and heart function.
b) These are warning signs of carbon monoxide poisoning
c) These are conditions usually seen in later states
d) There are not warning signs of oxygen deprivation

Competency: ASF22 Confined Space Entries

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8
Q

What is the most important requirement each time an entry into a designated confined space is undertaken?

a) Testing the rescue equipment to ensure its performance in case required.
b) Obstaining an entry permit before work in a confined space is performed.
c) Advising the legilsative authority having jurisdictino of the time and place of entry.
d) Ensuring the nearest municipal Emergency Services provider is contacted.

A

Answer B

a) Rescue equipment must be inspected regularly by a competent person. The equipment would be visually inspected and instrucments would be calibrated.
b) An entry permit must be issued each time work is to be performed in a confined space before any worker is allowed to enter.
c) This is not necessary but documentation must be on file for production if requested.
d) Contacting police/fire/ambulance should be part of the overall ERP.

Competency ASF22 Confined Space Entries

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9
Q

What is the most important goal of an incident investigation?

a) To assign accountability to the right individual(s) involved.
b) To determine the exact sequence of events.
c) To find the root cause of the incident.
d) To prevent this type of incident from happening again.

A

Answer D

a) The goal is not to assign fault.
b) The goal is to have an understanding of the event in order to prevent a reoccurance.
c) This will assist in preventing future occurences but is not the most important goal.
d) The ultimate purpose of incident investigation is to prevent future incidents.

Competency: ASF2 Incident Investigations

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10
Q

Siderosis is related to which material?

a) Tin
b) Aluminum
c) carbon
d) Iron Oxide

A

Answer D

a) Stannosis is associated with Tin
b) Aluminosis is associated with Aluminum
c) Anthracosis is associated with Carbon
d) Siderosis is a lung disease caused by breathing in particles of Iron Oxide

Competency: ASF18 Hot Work (Welding Cutting)

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11
Q

Which statement about spark-resistant tools is correct?

a) They are usually made of non-ferrous materials.
b) they can safely used around gasoline and petroleum products.
c) They do not easily conduct electricity.
d) They will not lose their spark-resistant properties.

A

Answer A

a) leather-faced, plastic, and wood tools are free from the friction-spark hazard
b) They do not eliminated the posibility of sparks
c) They do conduct electricity
d) They can lose their spark-resistance properties

Competency ASF16 Hand and Portable Power Tools

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12
Q

In order to minimize stressors and injuries to a worker, what factors should be considered when selecting power hand tools?

a) Cost, storage requirements and energy source.
b) Posture, force required to use it and weight and balance of power tool.
c) Protective equipment required, design features and grounded power cord.
d) Maintenance schedule, ease of use and replacement time.

A

Answer B

a) Cost disqualifies this answer
b) These are all issues found to cause repetitive strain or MSI.
c) These are safety practices
d) These are outside the stressor realm.

Competency ASF8 Design and Procurement of Tools, Equipment and Materials

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13
Q

What common hand tool is the source of most injuries?

a) Knife
b) Pliers
c) Saw
d) Hammer

A

Answer A

a) Studies indicate that most injuries are caused by improper use of knives.

Competency ASF16 Hand and Portable Power Tools

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14
Q

What precaution should a worker take while handling multiple 7.5kg boxes?

a) Take a 30 second rest break between handling each box.
b) Assess each box carefully.
c) Obtain assistance from a co-worker.
d) Keep the load as close to the body as possible.

A

Answer D

a) Helpful idea but not necessary and extremely slow
b) the weight of each box is already known
c) Unless the worker has restrictions, assistance shouldn’t be required with 7.5kg
d) This is a guideline for good body mechanics for manual material handling.

Competency: ASF13 Materials Handling and Storage

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15
Q

What type of injury is most commonly associated with manual material handling?

a) Ligament strains
b) Lumbar strains
c) Repetitive strains
d) Muscle strains

A

Answer B

a) Ligament strains are not normally an issue with manual material handling
b) Lumbar injuries are the most prevalent
c) Repetitive strains are not normally an issue with manual material handling
d) Muscle strain is not normally an issue with manual material handling.

Competency ASF13 Materials Handling and Storage

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16
Q

At what threshold current level will a person have difficulty releasing their handgrip on a conductor due to muscular contraction?

a) 1 to 2 milliamperes
b) 10 to 12 milliameres
c) 400 to 1,000 milliamperes
d) 2 amperes

A

Answer B

a) This level would have very little impact on a person
b) At this level, the person cannot release the conductor because of muscle cramps
c) This is well above the threshold of 10 to 12 milliamperes
d) This is well above the threshold of 10 to 12 milliamperes

Competency ASF12 Electrical Safety (Bonding, Grounding, Circuit Interrupters)

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17
Q

What is a disadvantage of scheduled workplace inspections?

a) Periodic measurement data do not identify degenerative trends.
b) Workers can prepare for them and it is harder to find deviations.
c) A hazard can become so familiar that no one notices it.
d) The inspection preparation and formal report writing are time-consuming.

A

Answer B

a) Periodic inspections do identify degenerative trends
b) Workers know to clean up their worksite before the inspection
c) This is a disadvantage of conducting continuous inspections
d) This is time-consuming but this is not a disadvantage.

Competency - National Safety Council Accident prevention manual for business and industry page 248.

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18
Q

What is true regarding chemical management in an environmental management system?

a) It is important to identify chemicals, recognize their hazards, and ultimately protect the environment.
b) Chemical identification and hazard recognition represent two critical steps in chemical management.
c) It is important to recognize chemicals used in various processes and be aware that all chemicals are of equal concern.
d) All waste products are considered to be hazardous in a chemical management system.

A

Answer B

a) The goal of an environmental management program is to reduce risks from environmental hazards and ultimately protect human health.
b) The first and most important step leading to effective chemical management is to know the identity of chemicals, their hazards to health and the environment, and the means to control them.
c) All chemicals are not of equal concern.
d) Not all waste products are considered to be hazardous.

Competency ASF9 Chemical, Explosioves, & Radioactive Materials (WHMIS/GHS)

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19
Q

What is the risk management principle that best describes taking preventive action to mitigate risk despite the fact that scientific information is incomplete?

a) The reasonable relationship principle.
b) The weight-of-evidence principle.
c) The precautionary principle
d) The sound science principle.

A

Answer C

a) The reasonable relationship principle is based on a relationship between the costs of the control and the corresponding reduction in risk.
b) The weight of evidence principle seeks to ensure a scientifically defensible process for considering evidence about the existence and magnitude of the risk
c) The precautionary principle implies that decision makers take timely preventive action when a serious hazard is believed to exist and scientific information is incomplete or contradictory
d) The sound science principle emphasizes the need for more complete scientific information before a risk decision is made.

Competency: Risk Management Studyguide BCRSP P. 17

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20
Q

Which principle is an approach to minimizing health risk that seeks to reduce potentially harmful exposures to the greatest extent possible?

a) Weight-of-evidence approach
b) Sound Science approact
c) As Low As Reasonably Achievable (ALARA) principle.
d) Precautionary principle

A

Answer C

a) this approach seeks to ensure the process of considering the evidence about the risk is scientifically defensible, not technologically possible.
b) This approach assumes that appearances can often be decieving if they are based on incomplete or biased information or studies. It emphasizes need for collection of better quality information before a risk decision is made.
c) This principle incorporates technical feasibility based on technology.
d) The precautionary principle implies that decision makers take timely preventative action whenever a serious or irreversible health hazard is believed to exist, even when scientific evidence is incomplete or contradictory.

Competency RM3

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21
Q

Which of the following is an accurate list of the key princples of ISO-type management standards.

a) Auditing, Documentation and setting objectives and targets
b) Planning, doing, checking, and acting
c) Analyzing, reporting, setting targets and taking corrective actions
d) Communicating, documenting, auditing and enforcement

A

Answer B

a) These are sub-sets of some of the principles and not the list of key principles themselves.
b) These are the key principles in many ISO standard series
c) These are sub-sets but not key principles themselves
d) These are sub-sets but not key principles themselves

Competency MS13

22
Q

What would be an example of a discrete hazard?

a) Silica dust
b) Electrical shock
c) Musculoskeletal injury
d) Carbon Monoxide

A

Answer B

a) this is a continuous hazard and has a threshold limit for exposure
b) Electrical shock is identified as a discrete hazard. It has no tolerable threshold limits; exposure to electrical hazards presents potentially serious consequences
c) This is a continuous hazard and has varying levels of exposure
d) This is a continuous hazard and has a threshold limit for exposure

Competency RM2

23
Q

What is the difference between hazard and a risk?

a) A hazard is anything with the potential to harm, risk is the chance of harm happening
b) A hazard is the probability of harm, risk is the potential of harm happening
c) A hazard is the adverse consequence, risk is the potential to harm
d) A hazard is the probability of occurence, risk is the event

A

Answer A

a) hazard is associated with potential for harm and risk is associated with probability
b) Risk is associated with probability, hazard is not
c) Risk is related to consequence, hazard is not
d) Risk is associated with probability, hazard is not

Competency RM 1

24
Q

When assessing risks at the design stage, which of the following is most important?

a) severity
b) probability
c) duration
d) frequency

A

Answer A

a) at the design stage severity is the most important factor
b) Severity is more critical than probability
c) Severity is more important than duration
d) Severity is more critical than frequency

Competency RM2

25
Q

What is the best control method for warning workers when heavy equipment is backing up?

a) Hazard warning light on the cab
b) Driver signalling with three horn blasts
c) Workers wearing high-visibilty clothing
d) Automatic audible signalling device

A

Answer D

a) This is a lower level engineering control
b) This is an administrative control
c) PPE is the least effective control
d) This is a high-level engineering control

Competency RM9

26
Q

A sign reading “be sure to tie off to engineered anchor points” is an example of what?

a) Administrative control
b) Engineering control
c) Elimination control
d) PPE control

A

Answer A

a) Putting up a sign or making a rule is an administrative control
b) Although the anchor point is engineered, the sign is not the anchor
c) There is not an elimination control
d) This sign is about using PPE but the actual use of PPE is not involved

Competency RM9

27
Q

On site, what is the first step when responding to a chemical release on a public road?

a) Secure the scene
b) Assess the situation
c) Obstain help
d) Approach cautiously from upwind

A

Answer D

a) This is the second step
b) This is the fourth step
c) This is the fifth step
d) This is the first step to avoid coming into contact with volatile hazards

Competency RM5

28
Q

The organism that causes Legionnaires’ disease belongs to which category?

a) Viruses
b) Fungi
c) Bacteria
d) Prions

A

Answer C

Legionnaires disease is the result of a bacterial infection.

Competency OH12

29
Q

A worker’s fingers have become white and stiff following exposure to prolonged cold and vibration. What is the most likely explanation?

a) Bell’s palsy
b) Meniere’s disease
c) Corti’s condition
d) Raynaud’s disease

A

Answer D

a) This is associated with Palsy in ones face
b) This condition is associated with the inner ear
c) This is the condition affecting an area of the cochlea in the ear
d) Raynaud’s disease is an affliction of the fingers caused by exposure to cold and vibration

Competency OH12

30
Q

What may increase the risk of exposure to a chemical ingestion hazard?

a) Inadequate ventilation
b) Eating in the workplace
c) Wearing the wrong type of gloves
d) Sharing protective equipment

A

Answer B

a) This increases risk of inhilation not ingestion
b) Inadvertent ingestion may occur while eating in the workplace
c) This increases risk of absorption
d) this is not usually related to the risk of ingestion

Competency OH2

31
Q

Which of the following is a Physical agent?

a) Radiation
b) Mould
c) Virus
d) Degreasers

A

Answer A

a) Radiation is a physical agent (Energy in environment)
b) Mould is a biological agent
c) Viruses are biological agents
d) Degreasers are chemical agents

Competency OH4

32
Q

Which group of workers are at greatest risk of contracting lyme disease?

a) Fish plant workers
b) Pet shop workers
c) Forestry workers
d) Office workers

A

Answer C

a) Not normally exposed to lyme disease
b) Not normall exposed to woodland ticks
c) Lyme disease is caused by exposure to woodland ticks
d) Thesee workers are not normally exposed to lyme disease

Competency OH12

33
Q

What should the safety professional do before and after using suction pump air sampling instruments in the field?

a) Sanitize instruments using an accredited protocol
b) Personally calibrate the instruments before and after use
c) Calibrate against an instrument of known response and accuracy
d) Ensure that the instruments are inspected by a qualified operator

A

Answer C

a) Sanitizing is only a factor in biological sampling
b) This does not ensure instruments provide accurate results
c) Instruments must be calibrated against a known criterion
d) This does not ensure that the instruments are providing accurate results

Competency OH7

34
Q

What does ACGIH stand for?

a) Associated collective of guardians of industrial health
b) American congress of government and industrial hygienists
c) American conference of governmental industrial hygienists
d) Amalgamated council of governmental industrial hygienists

A

Answer C

Competency OH10

35
Q

What are the key components of a workplace respiratory protection program?

a) Medical assessment, fit-testing, cleaning schedule, evaluation
b) Respirator selection, medical assessment, training, cleaning and inspection
c) Procedures, respirator selection, medical assessment, and maintenance
d) Procedure, assessment, respirator selection, training and maintenance

A

Answer A

a) These are components of a worksite-specific procedure
b) Medical assessment, cleaning and inspection are sub-components of a respiratory protection program
c) Medical assessment and maintenance are sub-components of a respiratory protection program
d) These are the major components of a respiratory protection program

Competency OH9

36
Q

A worker with a full beard is required to wear a half-mask respirator. What should the safety professional do?

a) Have the worker apply cream/lubricant to facial hair
b) Provide the worker with a larger dust mask that doesn’t seal
c) Ask the worker to shave where the respirator will seal with the face
d) Conduct quantitative fit-testing that does not require the worker to shave

A

Answer C

a) An effective seal is required to protect the worker
b) An effective seal is required to protect the worker
c) This is the best solution
d) This does not ensure the worker will be effectively protected

Competency OH9

37
Q

Noise-induced hearing loss is caused by impairment to what part of the ear?

a) Anvil
b) Hammer
c) Cochlea
d) Stirrup

A

Answer C

a) Wrong part of ear
b) Wrong part of ear
c) This is auditory portion of the ear where the sensitive hairs (cilia) are located
d) This is the wrong part of the ear

Competency OH1

38
Q

In order to change a safety culture, who has the ultimate responsibility to focus on safety as a goal?

a) Line workers
b) Safety Advisors
c) Managers
d) Supervisors

A

Answer C

a) While line workers must be involved, not their role to set corporate direction
b) Role of safety department is to support the goal and provide advice
c) The ultimate accountability for setting an implementing corporate goals rests with management
d) The role of supervisors is to participate and implement the changed management plan

Competency MS11

39
Q

What conflict management style will result in a lose/lose situation?

a) Authoritative
b) Accomodation
c) Compromise
d) Collaboration

A

Answer B

a) This style creates a win/lose conflict
b) This style creates a lose/lose conflict
c) This style creates a win/lose conflict
d) this style creates a win/win conflict

Competency MS7

40
Q

What are the four basic functions in the management process?

a) Organizing, structuring, leading, and controlling
b) Leading, planning, organizing, and staffing
c) Planning, controlling, organizing, and staffing
d) Planning, organizing, leading, and controlling

A

Answer D

a) Structure is not one of the four basic management functions
b) Staffing is not one of the four basic management functions
c) Staffing is not one of the four basic management functions
d) These are the four basic management functions

Competency MS4

41
Q

Who developed the yardstick for identifying performance problems whereby managers may create self-fulfilling prophecies based on their own assumptions?

a) Elton Mayo
b) Abraham Zaleznick
c) Douglas Mcgregor
d) Frederick Taylor

A

Answer C

a) Mayo’s studies lead to the hawthorne effect IDing importance of the work group and that people singled out for special attention perform as anticipated because of expectations of the situation
b) Zaleznick’s research dealt with difference between leaders and managers
c) McGregor theorized that subordinates may act in ways that confirm a manager’s original expectations
d) Taylor developed four principles of scientific management for managers to follow

Competency MS1

42
Q

What is an important component that determines the effectiveness of Locke’s goal-setting theory?

a) Percieved trustworthiness of performance management
b) Active and visible participation by senior management
c) Consistency between stated and demonstrated performance
d) Employees’ participation in setting the goals to be achieved

A

Answer D

a) Performance management does not assist in goal-setting
b) This does not involve all employees
c) Performance management does not assist in goal-setting
d) This is an important component of Locke’s goal-setting theory

Competency - MS1

43
Q

What are the four absolutes of total quality control?

a) High-quality goods provision, customer service, short waiting times, flexibility to individual needs?
b) Conformance to standards, defect prevention, defect-free work, and quality saves money
c) Innovation maximization, task management, continuous communication, and self-management
d) Preliminary controls, concurrent controls, internal control, and external control

A

Answer B

a) These are the key operating objectives for an organizations competitive advantage
b) These are the four absolutes of quality control
c) These are the skills necessary to compete in today’s changing workforce
d) These are components of the control process

Competency MS3

44
Q

What was the main premise for the development of the ISO 9000 standard series?

a) Public safety is paramount and should always be upheld
b) Competition can be assisted by effeciently organizing the manufacturing of quality products
c) Quality principles should be applied to all aspects of operations to meet customer needs
d) Quality comes from defect prevention, not defect correction

A

Answer B

a) This is the desired outcome, not the main premise of ISO 9000
b) This is the main premise of the ISO 9000 series
c) This is the definition of total quality management
d) This is one of Philip Crosby’s “four absolutes” of management for total quality control.

Competency MS3

45
Q

Based on Adult Learning Principles, through which sense does the average adult learn best?

a) Hearing
b) Touch
c) Smell
d) Sight

A

Answer D

a) Average adults only remember 10% of what they hear
b) Average adults only remember 1.5% of what they touch
c) Average adults only remember 3.5% of what they smell
d) Average adults remember 83% of what they see

Competency MS16

46
Q

What type of organizational structure best describes an organization with no clear reporting structure and no line of command or authority?

a) Flat
b) Functional
c) Adhocracy
d) Matrix

A

Answer C

a) Flat structure contains defined reporting relationships and lines of command and authority
b) Functional structure contains defined reporting relationships and lines of command and authority
c) Adhocracy has little line-staff distinction, and relationships develop based on knowledge and expertise rather than authority
d) Matrix structure contains defined reporting relationships and lines of command and authority

Competency MS2

47
Q

What is the focus of Heinrich’s Domino Model?

a) Lack of control by management
b) Unsafe acts and condition
c) Danger build-up/release
d) High-energy sources

A

Answer B

a) This is Bird’s Theory
b) This is the focus of this model
c) This is Surry’s Model
d) This is Ball’s Energy Model

Competency MS1

48
Q

What is a factor in Heinrich’s Domino Theory of Accident Causation?

a) Injury
b) Work environment
c) Equipment
d) Policy

A

Answer A

a) This is the final factor in Heinrich’s model
b) This is not part of Heinrich’s model
c) This is not part of Heinrich’s model
d) This is not part of Heinrich’s model

Competency MS1

49
Q

In addition to giving performance feedback, what are two basic steps that can assist in changing safety-related behaviours in the workplace?

a) Identifying critical behaviours and conducting measurement through observation
b) Identifying critical behaviours and monitoring worker morale
c) Completing JSA and conducting measurement through observation
d) Completing JSA and monitoring worker morale

A

Answer A

a) There are two of the three basic steps in the process for evaluating critical behaviours
b) Monitoring worker morale is not one of the steps
c) Completing JSA is not one of the steps
d) These are not steps in the evaluation process

Competency MS2

50
Q

Based on Federal Legislation, a workplace health and safety committee is required when the total number of employees reaches what figure?

a) 300
b) 100
c) 20
d) 10

A

Answer C

a) If there are 300 or more employees, a policy committee is required
b) One hundred employees is above the 20 emplyee threshold
c) If there are 20 or more employees a committee is required
d) This is below the 20-employee threshold

51
Q
A