Appendix B: Answers and Explanations for Chapter Review Questions

Question 1

What are the defining characteristics of a project?

Answer 1

Temporary and unique.

A project must have a defined start and finish date and produce a unique product.

Question 2

Which of the following is an example of a project?

Answer 2

Building a library.

A project has a defined start and finish and results in a new outcome.

Question 3

List the names of the five process groups in project management.

Answer 3

• Initiating
• Planning
• Executing
• Monitoring and Controlling
• Closing

These process groups are essential for managing a project effectively.

Question 4

Is team management a knowledge area in project management?

Answer 4

No.

Team management is part of the resource management knowledge area.

Question 5

What is the purpose of progressive elaboration in project planning?

Answer 5

To develop the project plan starting from the concept.

Progressive elaboration allows for changes and development throughout the project lifecycle.

Question 6

What is the probability that both OTF and ST will deliver?

Answer 6

0.25.

The calculation is based on the individual probabilities of each delivering.

Question 7

True or False: Operations have a planned closure.

Answer 7

False.

Operations are ongoing and do not have a defined end like projects.

Question 8

What is a program in project management?

Answer 8

A group of interrelated projects.

Programs manage multiple projects that are related to achieve a common goal.

Question 9

Which statement is true about project management areas?

Answer 9

Project scope management is a valid project management area.

Other options may include invalid areas such as project time management.

Question 10

What is the role of the project sponsor?

Answer 10

To authorize the project.

The project sponsor is crucial in providing the necessary approvals and resources.

Question 11

In which organization structure does the project manager have the greatest authority?

Answer 11

Project-oriented organization.

This structure grants high-to-almost full authority to project managers.

Question 12

What skills constitute the PMI talent triangle?

Answer 12

• Technical project management skills
• Leadership skills
• Strategic and business management skills

These skills are essential for effective project management.

Question 13

What document is created during the Develop Project Charter process?

Answer 13

Project charter.

This document is key in the initiation process group.

Question 14

What is a constraint in project management?

Answer 14

A hard deadline imposed on a project.

Constraints limit the project’s performance and must be managed carefully.

Question 15

What must be validated and analyzed as part of risk management?

Answer 15

Assumptions.

Assumptions represent uncertainty and can impact project success.

Question 16

What is the result of the Validate Scope process?

Answer 16

Acceptance of project deliverables.

Deliverables must be validated before they can be closed in the project.

Question 17

What is the role of the PMO in project management?

Answer 17

To provide high-to-almost full project resource availability for the project manager.

This support is crucial for the successful execution of projects.

Question 18

What is the only document that authorizes the project?

Answer 18

Project charter.

This document is essential for initiating the project.

Question 19

What is the input to creating the requirements documentation?

Answer 19

Project charter.

The project charter serves as a foundational document in the planning phase.

Question 20

What must occur before project deliverables can be accepted?

Answer 20

They must be validated through the Validate Scope process.

Validation ensures that deliverables meet the project requirements.

Question 21

True or False: Each project must go through a proper closure.

Answer 21

True.

Skipping the closing stage can lead to incomplete project documentation and unresolved issues.

Question 22

What is created in the initiation stage?

Answer 22

A requirements documentation and the scope statement

This is the starting point for project planning.

Question 23

Which document is an input item to creating the project scope statement?

Answer 23

The project charter

The project charter outlines the objectives and framework for the project.

Question 24

What process is used to create the WBS?

Answer 24

Create WBS process

WBS stands for Work Breakdown Structure.

Question 25

What does the Define Scope process create?

Answer 25

The project scope statement ## Footnote This document defines what is included and excluded from the project.

Question 26

What is a work package in the context of WBS?

Answer 26

Components in the lowest level of the WBS hierarchy ## Footnote Work packages are the smallest units of work in a project.

Question 27

What is a control account in the WBS?

Answer 27

A node used as a control management point ## Footnote It integrates scope, schedule, and cost for monitoring performance.

Question 28

What is the output of the Plan Scope Management process?

Answer 28

Requirement management plan ## Footnote This plan outlines how requirements will be managed throughout the project.

Question 29

What is job shadowing in the context of collecting requirements?

Answer 29

Another name for the observations technique ## Footnote Job shadowing involves observing users to gather requirements.

Question 30

What does the project charter serve as an input for?

Answer 30

Collecting requirements ## Footnote It provides essential context for understanding project needs.

Question 31

What is float time?

Answer 31

The positive difference between the allowed late start date and the early start date ## Footnote Float time indicates flexibility in scheduling.

Question 32

What does crashing involve in project management?

Answer 32

Compressing the schedule by adding more resources ## Footnote This can lead to increased costs.

Question 33

What is the critical path in project scheduling?

Answer 33

The longest sequence of activities that determines the project duration ## Footnote Activities on the critical path have zero float time.

Question 34

What is a finish-to-start dependency?

Answer 34

A successor activity cannot start until the predecessor activity is finished ## Footnote This is one of the most common types of dependencies.

Question 35

What does the analogous estimating technique rely on?

Answer 35

The duration of a similar activity in a previous project ## Footnote This technique is useful for quick estimates.

Question 36

What is the team charter an output of?

Answer 36

The resource plan resources process ## Footnote The team charter outlines team roles and responsibilities.

Question 37

What is the term for interpersonal skills in project management?

Answer 37

Soft skills ## Footnote Soft skills are critical for team collaboration and communication.

Question 38

What does a responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) display?

Answer 38

Resource assignments for each activity ## Footnote RAM helps clarify who is responsible for each part of the project.

Question 39

What does effective conflict resolution contribute to?

Answer 39

Team building ## Footnote Resolving conflicts positively can enhance team dynamics.

Question 40

What is the output of the Acquire Project Team process?

Answer 40

Staff assignments ## Footnote This ensures the right people are assigned to the project.

Question 41

What is the three-point method used for?

Answer 41

To estimate activity duration using a weighted average ## Footnote It considers optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely scenarios.

Question 42

What is the input to the Plan Schedule Management process?

Answer 42

The project charter ## Footnote The charter provides foundational information for scheduling.

Question 43

What is the correct answer when acquiring a team?

Answer 43

B ## Footnote Virtual teams are a tool in acquiring the team.

Question 44

What do soft skills refer to?

Answer 44

Interpersonal skills ## Footnote This includes skills such as communication, teamwork, and problem-solving.

Question 45

What is the Survey technique used for?

Answer 45

Data-gathering technique to reach consensus ## Footnote It is important to use influence and negotiations when acquiring a team.

Question 46

What do Theory X managers believe about employees?

Answer 46

Employees dislike their work and will try to avoid it ## Footnote This contrasts with Theory Y managers who trust their employees.

Question 47

What does McClelland’s theory state?

Answer 47

Need for achievement, affiliation, and power motivates employees ## Footnote This theory focuses on the different needs that drive individuals.

Question 48

What is the purpose of Control Resources?

Answer 48

Synchronize planned, allotted, and used resources ## Footnote This process ensures that resources are managed effectively.

Question 49

Why do you need resources figured out before estimating costs?

Answer 49

You cannot estimate costs until you have a resource plan ## Footnote This is essential for accurate budgeting.

Question 50

What is the contingency reserve applied to?

Answer 50

Activity durations and cost estimates ## Footnote It serves as a buffer for unexpected changes.

Question 51

What is the cost baseline?

Answer 51

An output of the Determine Budget process ## Footnote It is used as a reference for measuring cost performance.

Question 52

What is the formula for earned value (EV)?

Answer 52

EV = BAC X (work completed/total work required) ## Footnote This calculates the value of work performed up to a certain point.

Question 53

What is the formula for planned value (PV)?

Answer 53

PV = BAC X (time passed / total schedule time) ## Footnote This measures how much work should have been completed by a certain time.

Question 54

What does cost variance (CV) measure?

Answer 54

CV = EV – AC ## Footnote It indicates whether the project is under or over budget.

Question 55

What is the formula for schedule variance (SV)?

Answer 55

SV = EV – PV ## Footnote It measures whether the project is ahead or behind schedule.

Question 56

What does a CPI value greater than one indicate?

Answer 56

Cost performance is better than planned ## Footnote Conversely, an SPI value greater than one means schedule performance is better than planned.

Question 57

What does the integrated performance measurement baseline refer to?

Answer 57

Schedule baseline, scope baseline, and cost baseline ## Footnote It is essential for project performance evaluation.

Question 58

What is the role of controlling scope, schedule, and cost?

Answer 58

Generates work performance information ## Footnote This is vital for project tracking and reporting.

Question 59

What is the stakeholder cube?

Answer 59

A model used for stakeholder analysis ## Footnote It helps in identifying and managing stakeholder relationships.

Question 60

What does the stakeholder engagement plan include?

Answer 60

Strategies for managing stakeholder engagement ## Footnote It guides how to effectively communicate with stakeholders.

Question 61

What is the difference between communication and communications?

Answer 61

Communication refers to the act; communications refer to artifacts ## Footnote Artifacts include reports, emails, and meeting minutes.

Question 62

What is benchmarking in quality planning?

Answer 62

A technique that compares practices to improve performance ## Footnote It helps create a basis for measuring performance.

Question 63

What is a matrix diagram used for?

Answer 63

Not used for exploring effects of defects ## Footnote Cause and effect diagrams serve that purpose.

Question 64

What is the output of the Manage Quality process?

Answer 64

Work performance data ## Footnote It is essential for assessing project quality.

Question 65

What is the correct answer regarding the use of quality metrics in project success?

Answer 65

D ## Footnote Quality metrics are not used to find key quality metrics; matrix diagrams are the tool for that.

Question 66

What is the input to the Manage Quality process?

Answer 66

Work performance data is not the input; it is input to the Control Quality process. ## Footnote The correct inputs to Manage Quality include quality metrics and project management plan.

Question 67

What does the Manage Quality process incorporate?

Answer 67

The organization’s quality policies and procedures into quality activities. ## Footnote Quality control verifies project deliverables, and Plan Quality identifies quality requirements.

Question 68

What technique is used for performing the Manage Quality process?

Answer 68

Quality audit. ## Footnote Quality audit is associated with quality assurance, while quality planning determines relevant quality standards.

Question 69

Which diagram is a tool used in both Quality Control and Manage Quality processes?

Answer 69

Ishikawa diagram. ## Footnote It is also known as a cause and effect diagram or fishbone diagram.

Question 70

What is the purpose of a control chart?

Answer 70

To plot results to determine if they are within acceptable limits. ## Footnote It helps in monitoring process stability over time.

Question 71

What does a cause and effect diagram identify?

Answer 71

Potential effects of defects and helps prioritize fixing them. ## Footnote It is also called an Ishikawa diagram.

Question 72

What is the definition of quantitative risk analysis?

Answer 72

The numerical analysis of a risk. ## Footnote It involves assigning numerical values to risks to assess their impact quantitatively.

Question 73

What is the output of the risk identification process?

Answer 73

Risk register. ## Footnote It is not used as an input because it does not exist prior to this process.

Question 74

What risk response involves transferring the risk to a third party?

Answer 74

Risk transfer. ## Footnote This does not involve mitigating or accepting the risk.

Question 75

What is SWOT an acronym for in risk identification?

Answer 75

Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats. ## Footnote It is a technique used to identify risks in a project.

Question 76

What is a characteristic of firm fixed price (FFP) contracts?

Answer 76

Cost overruns are borne by the seller. ## Footnote In contrast, cost plus contracts share overruns between buyer and seller.

Question 77

In a cost plus fixed fee (CPFF) contract, who pays for cost overruns?

Answer 77

The buyer. ## Footnote The seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs.

Question 78

What process uses make-or-buy analysis?

Answer 78

Plan Procurements. ## Footnote It helps in deciding whether to produce in-house or procure from external sources.

Question 79

What is the output of the risk monitoring and controlling process?

Answer 79

Risk-related recommendations for corrective actions. ## Footnote These recommendations must go through the Integrated Change Control process for approval.

Question 80

True or False: A document called the risk response management plan exists.

Answer 80

False. ## Footnote Risk response activities are included in project documents.

Question 81

What is the purpose of the Validate Scope process?

Answer 81

To ensure deliverables meet the required specifications before project closure. ## Footnote This process occurs after the Control Quality process.

Question 82

What is the correct answer for the procurement contracts being closed?

Answer 82

C ## Footnote C is correct because procurement contracts are closed to end the Control Procurements process.

Question 83

Which answer is correct regarding the deliverables' validation process?

Answer 83

B ## Footnote B is correct because the deliverables must go through the Validate Scope process before the Close Project process.

Question 84

What must happen before the scope of deliverables can be validated?

Answer 84

They must be verified through the Control Quality process. ## Footnote A is incorrect because the deliverables must be verified through the quality control process first.

Question 85

Which process must be performed before accepted products go through the Close Project process?

Answer 85

Control Procurement process ## Footnote C and D are incorrect because the Control Procurement process must be performed first.

Question 86

What is the correct answer regarding sellers sending proposals?

Answer 86

A ## Footnote A is correct because sellers send proposals in response to buyers looking for sellers during the Conduct Procurement process.