APK6320 - Corrective Exercise

Question 1

Which of the following terms describes the concept that the site of a person’s pain may not be the same as the source of the person’s pain?

a.) scope of practice
b.) corrective exercise continuum
c.) regional interdependence

Answer 1

c.) regional interdependence

Question 2

Corrective exercise prescriptions fit into a contemporary fitness and strength and conditioning program due to their emphasis on which of the following?

a.) removing muscle imbalances impacting regularly performed activities
b.) enhancing muscular power
c.) optimizing body composition

Answer 2

a.) removing muscle imbalances impacting regularly performed activities

Question 3

Muscles that connect directly to the spine and are predominantly involved in LPHC stabilization are classified as…

a.) local musculature system
b.) deep longitudinal system
c.) global musculature system

Answer 3

a.) local musculature system

Question 4

What muscle changes may occur as a result of a chronically inhibited neural drive?

a.) the muscle on the opposing side of the joint would pull the inhibited muscle into a shortened state
b.) force production is reduced as a result of the inhibited muscle being overactive
c.) the muscle on the opposing side of the joint would pull the inhibited muscle into a lengthened state
d.) force production is increased as a result of the inhibited muscle being overactive

Answer 4

c.) the muscle on the opposing side of the joint would pull the inhibited muscle into a lengthened state

Question 5

___________ describes an athlete’s elite ability to produce force, reduce force, and dynamically stabilize the human movement system in all 3 planes of motion?

a.) structural efficiency
b.) neuromuscular efficiency
c.) neural drive

Answer 5

b.) neuromuscular efficiency

Question 6

You witness your client make minor adjustments to their body’s position without any feedback from you, after teaching them a series of yoga poses. Which of the following terms describes what you are witnessing?

a.) knowledge of results
b.) internal (sensory) feedback
c.) external (augmented feedback)

Answer 6

b.) internal (sensory) feedback

Question 7

Which of the following contractions prevents a weight from uncontrolled descent?

a.) isokinetic
b.) eccentric
c.) isometric
d.) concentric

Answer 7

b.) eccentric

Question 8

____________ describes how CNS integrates sensory information with previous experiences?

a.) motor development
b.) motor learning
c.) motor behavior
d.) motor control

Answer 8

d.) motor control

Question 9

What is the greatest risk factor for developing a musculoskeletal injury to a particular area of the body?

a.) previous musculoskeletal injury in that area
b.) BMI
c.) physical activity level

Answer 9

a.) previous musculoskeletal injury in that area

Question 10

Which of the following deviations occurs in lower crossed syndrome?

a.) kyphotic posturing
b.) lateral pelvic tilt
c.) anterior pelvic tilt
d.) decreased lordotic curvature

Answer 10

c.) anterior pelvic tilt

Question 11

What are the key components of the cumulative injury cycle?

a.) synergistic dominance and movement impairments
b.) muscle spasms, compensation and injury
c.) adhesion, dysfunction and surgery
d.) tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasms and adhesions

Answer 11

d.) tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasms and adhesions

Question 12

Which of the following muscles are typically overactive in an individual with upper crossed syndrome?

a.) serratus anterior
b.) pectorals
c.) rhomboids

Answer 12

b.) pectorals

Question 13

Which term describes a state of overactivity occurring when a segment of the body is repeatedly moved or chronically held in the same way?

a.) pattern overload
b.) arthrokinematic dysfunction
c.) synergistic dominance

Answer 13

a.) pattern overload

Question 14

What assessment collects valuable subjective information and identifies “red flags” that may be the first glimpse at potential movement impairments?

a.) client intake screen
b.) mobility assessment
c.) static posture assessment
d.) overhead squat assessment

Answer 14

a.) client intake screen

Question 15

What is the position of the hip joint of the leg you are testing during an active knee extension test?

a.) neutral
b.) extended
c.) flexed

Answer 15

c.) flexed

Question 16

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to scapular wining during the Davies test?

a.) lower trapezius
b.) infraspinatus
c.) serratus anterior
d.) pectoralis minor

Answer 16

d.) pectoralis minor

Question 17

How should the results of mobility assessments be recorded by a CES?

a.) record the ROM from a goniometer
b.) record yes/no regarding any mobility restrictions
c.) record a score of 0-3 based on pre-determined criteria for each joint

Answer 17

b.) record yes/no regarding any mobility restrictions

Question 18

Mobility assessments contain which of the following categories of joint motion?

a.) passive motions only
b.) active motions only
c.) both active and passive motions

Answer 18

c.) both active and passive motions

Question 19

A client’s shoulders elevate and their head migrates forward when performing a standing row movement assessment. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive?

a.) lower trapezius
b.) deep cervical flexors
c.) upper trapezius

Answer 19

c.) upper trapezius

Question 20

Which of the following compensations during an overhead squat assessment will you likely be able to identify from the lateral view only?

a.) knees moving inward
b.) asymmetric weight shift
c.) low back arching

Answer 20

c.) low back arching

Question 21

The overhead squat assessment does not involve a change in the base of support of the individual, and is therefore classified as…

a.) dynamic movement assessment
b.) transitional movement assessment
c.) static posture assessment

Answer 21

b.) transitional movement assessment

Question 22

What is one potential limitation to using a handheld myofascial roller?

a.) most require the use of both hands and rolling is limited to lower extremities
b.) most require the use of one hand and generating sufficient pressure is difficult
c.) most are constructed of material that is too soft to use on muscles
d.) most are constructed of material that is too dense to use on muscles

Answer 22

a.) most require the use of both hands and rolling is limited to lower extremities

Question 23

Current research suggests that myofascial release be changed to myofascial rolling due to…

a.) tissue rolling is better than release
b.) myofascial release is an old intervention and needs a name change
c.) current evidence needs to be updated to a new contemporary name
d.) there is no evidence that a “release” occurs in the myofascia after rolling

Answer 23

d.) there is no evidence that a “release” occurs in the myofascia after rolling

Question 24

Myofascial rolling is classified as what type of intervention?

a.) strengthening
b.) compression
c.) therapeutic modality
d.) stretching

Answer 24

b.) compression

Question 25

Which of the following falls within the scope of practice of a personal trainer with a CES certification?

a.) vibration
b.) cupping
c.) IASTM

Answer 25

a.) vibration

Question 26

What should be recommended to a client you observe rolling out his lumbar spine with a hard density foam roller?

a.) recommend a moderate-density roller
b.) demonstrate the proper method of rolling on the lumbar spine to help the client avoid injury
c.) recommend a soft-density roller for the lumbar spine
d.) rolling the lumbar spine is a contraindication and should be avoided

Answer 26

d.) rolling the lumbar spine is a contraindication and should be avoided

Question 27

What type of stretching can lead to decreased incidences of muscle and tendon injury?

a.) short-term static stretching
b.) long-term static stretching
c.) short-term neuromuscular stretching
d.) long-term dynamic stretching

Answer 27

b.) long-term static stretching

Question 28

Which movement compensation may improve following the completion of myofascial rolling the latissimus dorsi?

a.) excessive trunk lean in an overhead squat
b.) arms falling forward in an overhead squat
c.) posterior pelvic tilt during an overhead squat

Answer 28

b.) arms falling forward in an overhead squat

Question 29

The short foot exercise is appropriate as a means of targeting an underactive muscle when which of the following movement compensations is observed?

a.) excessive foot pronation (flat feet)
b.) feet turn out
c.) heel rise

Answer 29

a.) excessive foot pronation (flat feet)

Question 30

Your client reaches the level of progression demonstrated in a one-leg deadlift to shoulder press. You are ready to begin working through a progression in another plane of motion. Which of the following exercises would be most appropriate?

a.) lateral lunge to press
b.) 180 degree jump
c.) squat to row

Answer 30

a.) lateral lunge to press

Question 31

Isolated strengthening is a technique used to increase…

a.) extensibility
b.) synergistic dominance
c.) activation
d.) intramuscular coordination

Answer 31

d.) intramuscular coordination

Question 32

The theoretical basis that attempting to strengthen muscles when joint motion restriction is present will provide less-than-optimal results and limited joint ROM comes in part from…

a.) Janda’s syndromes
b.) Clark’s models
c.) Mennell’s truisms
d.) Kendall’s postures

Answer 32

c.) Mennell’s truisms

Question 33

What is the most appropriate next progression to a squat to shoulder press?

a.) lunge to press
b.) step up to press
c.) single leg squat to press

Answer 33

b.) step up to press

Question 34

During which phase of the muscle action spectrum are most strength gains developed?

a.) concentric acceleration
b.) the amortization phase
c.) isometric stabilization
d.) eccentric deceleration

Answer 34

d.) eccentric deceleration

Question 35

How long or short could an effective corrective exercise program be to get results?

a.) 5 mins
b.) 10-15 mins
c.) 30 mins

Answer 35

b.) 10-15 mins

Question 36

What is the system referred to in the NASM Pyramid of Success?

a.) NMS stretching
b.) corrective exercise continuum
c.) overhead squat assessment

Answer 36

b.) corrective exercise continuum

Question 37

What scenario might influence corrective exercise as the entire workout?

a.) pain
b.) injury
c.) deconditioned clients

Answer 37

c.) deconditioned clients

Question 38

Which of the following is the best definition for the term recovery?

a.) between-exercise process where the body and brain require adequate rest in order to prepare for next day of training
b.) post-exercise process where the brain and body require replenishment and rejuvenation in order to prepare for upcoming training
c.) post-exercise process where the brain requires additional glucose to regenerate in order to prepare for same-day training

Answer 38

b.) post-exercise process where the brain and body require replenishment and rejuvenation in order to prepare for upcoming training

Question 39

Location and equipment are related to what factors?

a.) environment-related
b.) training-related
c.) client-related

Answer 39

a.) environment-related

Question 40

What are the two principles within the refuel recovery strategy?

a.) adequate muscle strength and cardiovascular endurance
b.) proper balance and muscle strength
c.) proper hydration and nutrition
d.) proper flexibility and muscle endurance

Answer 40

c.) proper hydration and nutrition

Question 41

What is the concentric action of the anterior deltoid?

a.) stabilizes shoulder girdle
b.) shoulder flexion and internal rotation
c.) shoulder extension and external rotation

Answer 41

b.) shoulder flexion and internal rotation

Question 42

What is the proximal attachment of the sternocleidomastoid?

a.) mastoid process and occiput
b.) medial one-third of the clavicle
c.) top of manubrium

Answer 42

a.) mastoid process and occiput

Question 43

What is the concentric action of the internal oblique?

a.) bilateral spinal flexion, ipsilateral flexion and ipsilateral rotation
b.) stabilizes the LPHC
c.) bilateral spinal extension, contralateral flexion and contralateral rotation

Answer 43

a.) bilateral spinal flexion, ipsilateral flexion and ipsilateral rotation

Question 44

What is the eccentric action of the rectus abdominus?

a.) spinal flexion
b.) stabilizes the LPHC
c.) spinal extension

Answer 44

c.) spinal extension

Question 45

What is the eccentric action of the upper trapezius?

a.) stabilizes the cervical spine and scapula
b.) cervical flexion, lateral flexion and rotation; scapular depression
c.) cervical extension, lateral flexion and rotation; scapular elevation

Answer 45

b.) cervical flexion, lateral flexion and rotation; scapular depression

Question 46

Which of the following describes the rationale for incorporating corrective exercise into an individual’s physical activity habits?

a.) application of appropriate movement technique may improve force absorption and reduce the incidence of injury
b.) musculoskeletal pain is less common now compared to 50 years ago due to the rise of corrective exercise principles
c.) the rise in daily technology use has led to higher activity rates in people outside their profession

Answer 46

a.) application of appropriate movement technique may improve force absorption and reduce the incidence of injury

Question 47

When standing up from a seated position, what type of contraction is occurring in the lower extremity to create motion at the knee (knee extension)?

a.) concentric
b.) isometric
c.) eccentric
d.) isokeinetic

Answer 47

a.) concentric

Question 48

_____________ describes corrective exercise techniques used to retrain the collective synergistic function of all muscles through functionally progressive movements?

a.) activation techniques
b.) integration techniques
c.) lengthening techniques
d.) inhibitory techniques

Answer 48

b.) integration techniques

Question 49

Place in order the steps that lead to an increase in the risk of initiating the cumulative injury cycle:

1. Altered Movement
2. Altered Force-Couple Relationships
3. Structural and Functional Inefficiency
4. Altered Length-Tension Relationships
5. Joint Dysfunction

a.) 4,3,5,2,1
b.) 5,4,2,1,3
c.) 3,1,2,5,4

Answer 49

b.) 5,4,2,1,3

Question 50

Which of the following is NOT a component of the human movement system?

a.) skeletal system
b.) muscular system
c.) endocrine system
d.) nervous system

Answer 50

c.) endocrine system

Question 51

Your client sits for prolonged periods of time while working on a computer each work day. Which of the following will you suspect is a problem in this individual?

a.) forward head and rounded shoulders
b.) overly tight hip extenders
c.) overly lengthened hip flexors
d.) none of the above

Answer 51

a.) forward head and rounded shoulders

Question 52

Which of the following individuals would you suspect to have an overly-shortened gastrocnemius muscles?

a.) male business professional who sits and works on a laptop computer for prolonged periods of time
b.) painter who reaches overhead throughout the work day
c.) female business professional who wears 3-6” heels daily

Answer 52

c.) female business professional who wears 3-6” heels daily

Question 53

Which of the following represents ideal posture when observing the five kinetic chain checkpoints?

a.) knees in line with 2nd and 3rd toes
b.) hips level in frontal plane with a posterior pelvic tilt
c.) knees in line with the 4th and 5th toes
d.) shoulder positioned anterior to ears

Answer 53

a.) knees in line with 2nd and 3rd toes

Question 54

Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome may lead to…

a.) plantar fasciitis, medial tibial stress syndrome (shin splints), patellar tendonitis, and low back pain
b.) metatarsal stress fractures, femur fractures and quadricep strains
c.) hip bursitis, hamstring strains, Achilles tendonitis and ankle arthritis
d.) hip flexor strain, IT band friction syndrome, hamstring strains and Achilles tendonitis

Answer 54

a.) plantar fasciitis, medial tibial stress syndrome (shin splints), patellar tendonitis, and low back pain

Question 55

Your client shows up to session with visible swelling in his left knee. What is the appropriate action to take?

a.) recommend icing knee and take NSAIDS
b.) continue the session as normal
c.) provide manual therapy to reduce swelling
d.) refer client to qualified medical professional

Answer 55

d.) refer client to qualified medical professional

Question 56

What type of movement assessment should always be performed first?

a.) transitional
b.) static
c.) dynamic
d.) loaded

Answer 56

a.) transitional

Question 57

Assessments that involve movement with a change in the base of support are known as…

a.) loaded movement assessments
b.) dynamic movement assessments
c.) transitional movement assessments

Answer 57

b.) dynamic movement assessments

Question 58

What is considered normal mobility in the cervical side bending test?

a.) head can tilt to 45 degree angle
b.) head should remain neutral
c.) head can tilt to 90 degree angle
d.) head can tilt to 25 degree angle

Answer 58

a.) head can tilt to 45 degree angle

Question 59

Place the following NASM movement assessments in the most appropriate order:

1. Single Leg Squat
2. Depth Jump
3. Overhead Squat
4. Loaded Squat

a.) 2,3,1,4
b.) 1,3,2,4
c.) 3,1,4,2

Answer 59

c.) 3,1,4,2

Question 60

A client demonstrates an arms excessive lumbar lordosis compensation during an overhead squat assessment that is resolved when placing hands on hips. Which of the following mobility assessments should be used in the follow up?

a.) supine shoulder extension
b.) supine shoulder external rotation
c.) shoulder flexion

Answer 60

c.) shoulder flexion

Question 61

Which view allows for the optimal assessment of frontal plane movements (adduction and abduction)?

a.) lateral
b.) top
c.) posterior
d.) anterior

Answer 61

d.) anterior

Question 62

What is the position of the hip joint of the leg you are testing during an active knee extension test?

a.) extended
b.) flexed
c.) neutral

Answer 62

b.) flexed

Question 63

Your client cannot safely maintain the position during the single-leg squat assessment. What is your next step?

a.) stop the assessment and refer client to medical provider
b.) move on to the next assessment
c.) attempt a split squat stance assessment instead

Answer 63

c.) attempt a split squat stance assessment instead

Question 64

Which of the following best describes how to introduce tissue movement with the myofascial roller?

a.) perform active movements such as flexion/extension while maintaining pressure
b.) roll in a slow continuous motion for 60 seconds
c.) perform quick active movements while continuously rolling back and forth on the target tissue
d.) perform passive movements such as trainer-assisted flexion/extension while maintaining pressure

Answer 64

a.) perform active movements such as flexion/extension while maintaining pressure

Question 65

Which of the following is an adequate intensity of isometric contraction for a neuromuscular stretch?

a.) 100% maximal isometric contraction
b.) 20% maximal isometric contraction
c.) 50% maximal isometric contraction

Answer 65

b.) 20% maximal isometric contraction

Question 66

How long would you instruct a client age 65 and older to hold a stretch?

a.) 60 secs
b.) 15 secs
c.) 30 secs

Answer 66

a.) 60 secs

Question 67

What modification is suggested by NASM if a client does not feel comfortable performing myofascial rolling with active movement of the targeted limb?

a.) continuation rolling for 90-120 secs of the target tissue
b.) isometrically contract the target muscle, then proceed with the active movement
c.) decrease the pressure, then proceed with the active movement.

Answer 67

a.) continuation rolling for 90-120 secs of the target tissue

Question 68

What is recommended number of active movements to include in Step 2 of the myofascial rolling program?

a.) 1-3 reps
b.) 2-3 reps
c.) 4-6 reps
d.) 7-10 reps

Answer 68

c.) 4-6 reps

Question 69

Which of the following statements is true regarding the intensity of the isometric contraction that is used during NMS?

a.) near maximal intensity contractions are necessary to produce significant improvements in ROM
b.) moderate (50%) or higher intensities are necessary to produce increases in ROM
c.) even light contractions of 20% can produce significant improvements in ROM

Answer 69

c.) even light contractions of 20% can produce significant improvements in ROM

Question 70

What should the fitness professional do when they first observe movement compensations during integrated movement, in order to allow the athlete to cognitively process proper form?

a.) stop the exercise
b.) decrease the load to require less from the muscles
c.) increase the load to demand more from the muscles
d.) make the client aware of the compensation and give verbal cues

Answer 70

d.) make the client aware of the compensation and give verbal cues

Question 71

The isometric tempo for activation exercise should last approximately how long?

a.) 1 second
b.) 2 seconds
c.) 3 seconds
d.) 4 seconds

Answer 71

b.) 2 seconds

Question 72

What phase of the muscle action spectrum leads to the most muscle damage, inflammation, impaired muscle function and muscle soreness, providing a good reason to limit the number of sets for the initial exercise?

a.) isometric stabilization
b.) concentric acceleration
c.) the amortization phase
d.) eccentric deceleration

Answer 72

d.) eccentric deceleration

Question 73

The combination of enhanced motor unit activation, synchronization and firing rate is known to increase ________ at that specific muscle?

a.) tenacity
b.) intramuscular coordination
c.) ROM

Answer 73

b.) intramuscular coordination

Question 74

What is the most appropriate verbal cue to use if a client demonstrates knee valgus on landing?

a.) Keep your knees in line with your 2nd and 3rd toes.
b.) Keep you knees behind your toes.
c.) Keep your knees out wider than your 5th toe.
d.) Keep your knees directly over your ankles.

Answer 74

a.) Keep your knees in line with your 2nd and 3rd toes.

Question 75

Research has shown that resistance training stimulates synthesis of which macronutrient substrate to repair and build muscle?

a.) fats
b.) carbs
c.) proteins

Answer 75

c.) proteins

Question 76

For optimal sleep, what temperature should the room be?

a.) 45 F
b.) 60 F
c.) 72 F
d.) 95 F

Answer 76

c.) 72 F

Question 77

Research has shown a correlation between which two specific sleep variables that result in optimizing next-day performance?

a.) duration of deep sleep and nighttime anabolic hormone release
b.) using a weighted blanket and black out drapes
c.) the specific foods and drinks that are consumed at dinner time
d.) the brand of bed and pillow the client owns

Answer 77

a.) duration of deep sleep and nighttime anabolic hormone release

Question 78

Which of the following categories of recovery does corrective exercise fall into?

a.) refuel
b.) regenerate
c.) rest

Answer 78

b.) regenerate

Question 79

What is an example of a client-related factor?

a.) where the client will be training primarily
b.) how much time the client has to commit to their program
c.) what neuromuscular and physiological adaptations are necessary to achieve training objective
d.) specific goals expressed by the client

Answer 79

d.) specific goals expressed by the client

Question 80

How many minutes per day in accumulated relaxation does NASM recommend as part of a recovery strategy?

a.) 60+ mins
b.) 15+ mins
c.) 30+ mins

Answer 80

a.) 60+ mins

Question 81

Which of the following is the BEST progression to use regarding performing a pattern in multiple planes of motion?

a.) sagittal to frontal to transverse
b.) frontal to transverse to sagittal
c.) transverse to sagittal to frontal

Answer 81

a.) sagittal to frontal to transverse

Question 82

Which of these ankle positions are a proper description of pronation, as seen in a squat loading/lowering phase?

a.) plantar flexion, food adduction and inversion
b.) dorsiflexion, foot abduction and eversion
c.) dorsiflexion, food adduction and eversion
d.) plantar flexion, food abduction and inversion

Answer 82

b.) dorsiflexion, foot abduction and eversion

Question 83

If your client is in the inhibition phase for the foot and ankle, which of the following muscles will most likely be involved?

a.) anterior tibialis
b.) gastrocnemius
c.) posterior tibialis
d.) medial hamstrings

Answer 83

b.) gastrocnemius

Question 84

What is the most appropriate muscle to static stretch for a client who demonstrates over-pronation in the overhead squat?

a.) gluteus medius
b.) gastrocnemius
c.) anterior tibialis
d.) rectus femoris

Answer 84

b.) gastrocnemius

Question 85

What two bones comprise the subtalar joint?

a.) calcaneus and tarsals
b.) talus and calcaneus
c.) fibula and talus
d.) tibia and fibula

Answer 85

b.) talus and calcaneus

Question 86

Susie has pain and inflammation at the ankle joint, especially in the morning or after long periods of sitting. In her static assessment, you note her feet turn out and excessive pronation; in her OHSA she showed and excessive forward lean as well as the same compensations from the static assessment. What would you expect to find after further testing?

a.) toes moving away from the midline of the foot
b.) insufficient elasticity or stretch within the plantar fascia
c.) chronic ankle instability
d.) high arch in foot

Answer 86

b.) insufficient elasticity or stretch within the plantar fascia

Question 87

Performing a gait assessment can be great technique for observing dynamic range of motion. During which phase of gait is ankle mobility assessed?

a.) midstance
b.) late midstance
c.) initial contact
d.) propulsion

Answer 87

b.) late midstance

Question 88

Rearfoot pronation, or sub-talar eversion, and ankle dorsiflexion are associated with what coupled motion?

a.) tibial internal rotation
b.) ankle plantarflexion
c.) subtalar joint inversion
d.) external fibula rotation

Answer 88

a.) tibial internal rotation

Question 89

Matt presented with a knee valgus compensation that did not improved with a heel lift on the OHSA. What two muscles should be addressed as a key part of the activation exercises of Matt’s corrective exercise program?

a.) TFL/IT band
b.) gastrocnemius and soleus
c.) gluteus medius and gluteus maximus
d.) biceps femoris

Answer 89

c.) gluteus medius and gluteus maximus

Question 90

According to the Screw-Home Mechanism, in an open-chain position and as the knee extends, which action best describes the motion of the tibia on the femur during the last 30 degrees?

a.) internal rotation
b.) abduction
c.) external rotation
d.) flexion

Answer 90

c.) external rotation

Question 91

What is the key compensation to look for during a single-leg squat assessment?

a.) knee varus
b.) knee valgus
c.) hyperextension
d.) knee dominance

Answer 91

b.) knee valgus

Question 92

Which muscles are overactive when the client shows knee valgus during the OHSA?

a.) quadriceps and gastrocnemius
b.) adductor complex and biceps femoris
c.) gluteus complex
d.) hamstring and anterior tibialis

Answer 92

b.) adductor complex and biceps femoris

Question 93

What should an individual do with the stance leg during the Hurdle Step movement?

a.) flex the knee
b.) relax the knee
c.) lock the knee

Answer 93

b.) relax the knee

Question 94

A client demonstrates a knee dominance compensation, that did not improve with OHSA with heel lift. What mobility test will the fitness professional use to test the hip flexors?

a.) seated hip external rotation test
b.) modified Thomas test
c.) weight bearing lunge test

Answer 94

b.) modified Thomas test

Question 95

Foam rolling the hamstring complex helps to reduce tension in the tissues allowing for appropriate levels of which joint action to be achieved?

a.) hip extension
b.) hip flexion
c.) hip adduction
d.) knee flexion

Answer 95

b.) hip flexion

Question 96

Which of the following issues have been reported to demonstrate impaired postural control, delayed muscle relaxation, abnormal muscle recruitment patterns, and notably diminished transverse abdominis and multifidus activiation?

a.) herniated disc
b.) anterior pelvic tilt
c.) posterior pelvic tilt
d.) low back pain

Answer 96

d.) low back pain

Question 97

Your client does well on the OHSA and single-leg squat assessment, but demonstrates and anterior pelvic tilt during a loaded squat assessment. Which of the following should be prioritized in his training program?

a.) mastering the squat pattern and total body conditioning
b.) hip flexor stretching and rotation mobility
c.) LPHC stabilization and hip extensor activation
d.) spinal mobility and hamstring stretching

Answer 97

c.) LPHC stabilization and hip extensor activation

Question 98

Beth presents limited ROM at the ankles, an anteriorly tilted pelvis and an excessive forward lean of her trunk. What best describes the regional interdependence model in her situation?

a.) excessive neural drive received via the CNS and directed to the soleus and gastrocnemius has limited the ROM at her ankles
b.) the myosin and actin filaments located within her gastrocnemius and soleus are gliding across one another to shorten the muscle as tension increases
c.) if there is a lack of dorsiflexion in the sagittal plane at the ankle caused by tight posterior calf muscles, the LPHC will have to increase forward flexion, causing the trunk to lean forward so she can stay balanced upright

Answer 98

c.) if there is a lack of dorsiflexion in the sagittal plane at the ankle caused by tight posterior calf muscles, the LPHC will have to increase forward flexion, causing the trunk to lean forward so she can stay balanced upright

Question 99

Which internal tissue or structure can get irritated and lead to pain when herniated discs press against it?

a.) spine
b.) foramen
c.) nerve
d.) intervertebral disc

Answer 99

c.) nerve

Question 100

The glenohumeral joint is what type of joint?

a.) synovial
b.) fused
c.) fibrous
d.) cartilaginous

Answer 100

a.) synovial

Question 101

The thoracic spine has how many vertebrae?

a.) 5
b.) 7
c.) 12

Answer 101

c.) 12

Question 102

Consider the following results of an FCS upper extremity motor control screen:

Foot length: 12.5”
Left arm screen: 19” 20” 21” 23” 25”
Right arm screen: 20” 22” 25” 22”

What is the final interpretation of this screen?

a.) pass both greatest reach and symmetry
b.) fail greatest reach, pass symmetry
c.) pass greatest reach, fail symmetry

Answer 102

b.) fail greatest reach, pass symmetry

Question 103

During transitional and loaded movement assessments, if the shoulders start to elevate, then the ________ and ________ need to be inhibited and lengthened.

a.) middle and lower traps
b.) serratus anterior and upper traps
c.) upper traps and levator scapulae
d.) none of the above

Answer 103

c.) upper traps and levator scapulae

Question 104

How many reps are performed of the FCS lower extremity motor control screen on an individual side?

a.) as many times as needed to reach 2x foot length
b.) minimum 3 attempts, continue until next reach does not improve
c.) 3 attempts

Answer 104

b.) minimum 3 attempts, continue until next reach does not improve

Question 105

Which FCS upper extremity clearing test screens for both mobility and pain?

a.) wrist extension clearing test
b.) horizontal adduction clearing
c.) both of these

Answer 105

c.) both of these

Question 106

Hanging effectively from a tree branch with an outstretched hand requires which full range of motion?

a.) extension
b.) horizontal abduction
c.) flexion
d.) 360-degree circumduction

Answer 106

c.) flexion

Question 107

Consider the following scores for an FCS upper extremity motor control screen:

20”, unsuccessful, unsuccessful, 22”, 23”, 21”

What is the final score of this screen?

a.) 23”
b.) 21”
c.) 22”

Answer 107

a.) 23”

Question 108

What is the name of the upper arm bone?

a.) ulna
b.) humerus
c.) hamate
d.) radius

Answer 108

b.) humerus

Question 109

A client has shown dysfunction on a static assessment of the elbow. What would the next step in the corrective exercise assessment flow process be?

a.) shoulder press
b.) overhead squat assessment
c.) mobility assessment of the elbow and wrist
d.) loaded movement assessment of the elbow and wrist

Answer 109

b.) overhead squat assessment

Question 110

From the anatomical position, rotation of the forearm such that the palm faces downwards is known as….

a.) ulnar deviation
b.) forearm pronation
c.) radial deviation
d.) forearm supination

Answer 110

b.) forearm pronation

Question 111

During the OHSA, a client demonstrates a lack of elbow extension. What is this often attributed to?

a.) poor shoulder mobility
b.) underactive/lengthened biceps brachii
c.) poor elbow stability
d.) overactive/shortened biceps brachii

Answer 111

d.) overactive/shortened biceps brachii

Question 112

During the transitional and loaded movement of the elbow and wrist assessment, what is the corrective exercise specialist looking for?

a.) arms falling forward
b.) limited wrist flexion ROM
c.) limited elbow flexion ROM

Answer 112

a.) arms falling forward

Question 113

Loaded movement assessments reveal non-neutral wrists and mobility assessments reveal restricted wrist flexion motion. What muscle group should be activated?

a.) wrist flexors
b.) elbow extensors
c.) wrist extensors
d.) elbow flexors

Answer 113

c.) wrist extensors

Question 114

To help correct a client’s forward head posture, the CES recommends that the client perform the chin tuck exercise. What primary muscles are targeted when performing this exercise?

a.) sternocleidomastoid
b.) deep cervical flexors
c.) upper trapezius
d.) scalenes

Answer 114

b.) deep cervical flexors

Question 115

The upper traps and levator scapulae should focus on what types of inhibition tools?

a.) hook or cane-type tools
b.) foam rollers
c.) fingers

Answer 115

a.) hook or cane-type tools

Question 116

A condition that typically effects older adults but can appear in middle aged individuals with a genetic predisposition that is characterized by narrowing of the spinal canal that causes compression on the spinal cord is called…

a.) degenerative disc disease
b.) bulging disc
c.) spinal stenosis

Answer 116

c.) spinal stenosis

Question 117

Larry cannot fully extend his elbow in the overhead squat assessment and his arms fall forward. When he stands, he demonstrates upper crossed syndrome. What mobility assessment should be included for the upper body?

a.) wrist and elbow flexion and extension
b.) cervical flexion and extension
c.) de Quervain’s Tenosynovitis Assessment

Answer 117

b.) cervical flexion and extension

Question 118

What muscle or region is the use of the foam roller contraindicated due to high risk for causing pain or injury?

a.) cervical spine
b.) middle trapezius
c.) latissimus dorsi
d.) thoracic spine

Answer 118

a.) cervical spine

Question 119

What does it mean for a muscle to be “overactive”?

a.) the muscle is experiencing chronically elevated levels of neural drive
b.) the muscle is experiencing chronically inhibited levels of neural drive
c.) neither of these

Answer 119

a.) the muscle is experiencing chronically elevated levels of neural drive

Question 120

How does the neural drive to a muscle identified to be overactive compared to that of a muscle with a normal resting length-tension relationship?

a.) neural drive is lower in the overactive muscle
b.) neural drive is higher in the overactive muscle
c.) neural drive is the same between the overactive muscle and the normal muscle

Answer 120

b.) neural drive is higher in the overactive muscle

Question 121

When should the client intake assessment be conducted within the context of the NASM CES Assessment Flow?

a.) first
b.) second
c.) third
d.) fourth

Answer 121

a.) first

Question 122

When should the static posture assessment be conducted within the context of the NASM CES Assessment Flow?

a.) first
b.) second
c.) third
d.) fourth

Answer 122

b.) second

Question 123

What is the technical term of the natural curvature of the spine?

a.) valgus
b.) kyphosis
c.) lordosis

Answer 123

b.) kyphosis

Question 124

___________ is the region of the body most likely impacted by sitting most of the day.

a.) shoulder
b.) ankle
c.) knee
d.) LPHC

Answer 124

d.) LPHC

Question 125

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to scapular elevation during a loaded pulling movement?

a.) lower trapezius
b.) cervical extensors
c.) upper trapezius

Answer 125

a.) lower trapezius

Question 126

A client demonstrates knee valgus during an OHSA. Have the client repeat the squat with heels elevated resolves the knee valgus. Which of the following muscles is likely overactive in this scenario?

a.) latissimus dorsi
b.) gastrocnemius
c.) psoas

Answer 126

b.) gastrocnemius

Question 127

Which muscle would you suspect as being overactive if there is restricted shoulder internal rotation?

a.) latissimus dorsi
b.) pec minor
c.) teres minor

Answer 127

c.) teres minor

Question 128

Knee valgus is noted in an OHSA. You suspect the hip adductors are overactive. Which of the following mobility assessments will you use to test your hypothesis?

a.) modified Thomas test
b.) seated hip internal rotation
c.) hip abduction and external rotation

Answer 128

c.) hip abduction and external rotation

Question 129

A client demonstrates movement compensations during the loaded horizontal pushing assessment, but not during the loaded squat assessment. Which dynamic movement assessments should NOT be included in the follow up assessments until the movement compensations are resolved?

a.) depth jump
b.) gait assessment
c.) Davies test

Answer 129

c.) Davies test

Question 130

The modified Thomas test assesses mobility in all of the following joint motions except…

a.) knee flexion
b.) hip extension
c.) hip adduction
d.) hip abduction

Answer 130

d.) hip abduction

Question 131

What is considered normal mobility during the shoulder flexion test?

a.) elbows flexed to a 90-degree angle and shoulders fully extended
b.) elbows extended and arms in line with the lateral midline of the torso
c.) elbows extended and shoulders fully extended
d.) elbows flexed to a 90-degree angle and arms in line with the torso

Answer 131

b.) elbows extended and arms in line with the lateral midline of the torso

Question 132

Which movement assessment is considered the best assessment of an individual’s lower extremity balance

a.) overhead squat
b.) standing overhead dumbbell press
c.) Davies test
d.) single leg squat

Answer 132

d.) single leg squat

Question 133

What best describes the psycho-physiological concept of stretch tolerance?

a.) a client can tolerate the maximum amount of discomfort during a prolonged stretch
b.) a client can only tolerate a short duration of stretching due to pain
c.) a client can tolerate the level of discomfort during a prolonged stretch
d.) a client can tolerate the maximum amount of pain during a dynamic stretching activity

Answer 133

c.) a client can tolerate the level of discomfort during a prolonged stretch

Question 134

What is the best intensity prescription for a static hamstring stretch when a novice client is performing it?

a.) extreme discomfort
b.) mild discomfort
c.) mild discomfort minus 10%

Answer 134

c.) mild discomfort minus 10%

Question 135

What is the recommended length of time to hold direct pressure on a target tissue within a single rep of rolling for a myofascial roller (not the total length of time)?

a.) 70-90 seconds
b.) 2-5 minutes
c.) 30-60 seconds
d.) 90-120 seconds

Answer 135

c.) 30-60 seconds

Question 136

Which step of the NASM Inhibitory Exercise process in involves joint movement while rolling?

a.) step 1
b.) step 2
c.) step 3

Answer 136

b.) step 2

Question 137

Using myofascial rolling to increase tissue relaxation due to afferent input from the golgi tendon reflex, modulating the gamma loop reflex arc, and increasing the mechanoreceptor signaling is classified as which of the following types of effects?

a.) global muscular system effect
b.) local mechanical effect
c.) global neurophysiological effect

Answer 137

c.) global neurophysiological effect

Question 138

Which statement most accurately defines an informed consent agreement with a corrective exercise client?

a.) outlines general info and associated risks involved with the corrective exercise process
b.) outlines the procedures and actions professionals are permitted to administer in accordance with the law
c.) it is a questionnaire used to help determine if a person is ready to undertake an increase in physical activity

Answer 138

a.) outlines general info and associated risks involved with the corrective exercise process

Question 139

Integration techniques are used to reeducate the Human Movement System into what type of functional movement pattern?

a.) cooperative
b.) length-tension
c.) synergistic
d.) force-couple

Answer 139

c.) synergistic

Question 140

Which of the following exercises is the most appropriate progression from a single leg hop exercise?

a.) wall jump
b.) step off a box and perform an unexpected cutting maneuver
c.) bilateral long jump

Answer 140

b.) step off a box and perform an unexpected cutting maneuver

Question 141

Why might it make sense to exercise the dominate limb first before the non-dominate limb for recruitment?

a.) minimize injury to the non-dominate side
b.) it is a primer to better prepare the non-dominate side
c.) effectively perform the exercise prior to the challenge of the non-dominate side

Answer 141

b.) it is a primer to better prepare the non-dominate side

Question 142

Which of these goals is most appropriate to provide to a client?

a.) We will have you moving better in no time.
b.) We are going to improve your overhead squat.
c.) We are going to reduce the number of compensations in your overhead squat to zero by the end of the month.

Answer 142

c.) We are going to reduce the number of compensations in your overhead squat to zero by the end of the month.

Question 143

What process describes the ability of the CNS to interpret sensory information as needed to execute the proper motor response?

a.) muscle synergy
b.) augmented feedback
c.) knowledge of performance
d.) sensorimotor integration

Answer 143

d.) sensorimotor integration

Question 144

What can a fitness professional use to help understand a client’s recovery habits?

a.) recovery questionnaire
b.) report from their psychologist
c.) results from their fitness assessment
d.) report from their medical doctor

Answer 144

a.) recovery questionnaire

Question 145

As long as less than 3% of bodyweight is expected to be lost during exercise due to sweating, what hydration strategy should clients be instructed to follow?

a.) drink 500mL of water every 15 mins
b.) drink fluids as desired
c.) drink a glass of water for every lb of bodyweight lost due to sweating

Answer 145

b.) drink fluids as desired

Question 146

A client has been training with a fitness professional and independently consistently for over 6 months. What stage of change would he most likely be in?

a.) contemplation
b.) preparation
c.) maintenance
d.) termination

Answer 146

c.) maintenance

Question 147

What scenario might influence corrective exercise as the entire workout?

a.) pain
b.) injury
c.) deconditioned clients

Answer 147

c.) deconditioned clients

Question 148

What are the recommended acute training variables for static stretching for those younger than 65?

a.) 20-30 seconds for 4-6 reps twice a week
b.) 1-2 mins for 4-6 reps every other day
c.) 15-30 secs for 6-8 reps once a week
d.) 20-30 secs for 1-4 reps daily

Answer 148

d.) 20-30 secs for 1-4 reps daily

Question 149

Which of the following muscles is a good target for activation if a heel rise is noted on the OHSA that corrects with a heel elevated modification?

a.) quadriceps
b.) anterior tibialis
c.) soleus
d.) gastrocnemius

Answer 149

b.) anterior tibialis

Question 150

Medial tibial stress syndrome typically presents on which aspect of the tibia?

a.) upper 1/3 of medial tibia
b.) lower 1/3 of medial tibial
c.) lower 1/3 of lateral tibia
d.) center of the medial tibial

Answer 150

b.) lower 1/3 of medial tibial

Question 151

Once you have completed 3 successful trials in one of the directions in the YBT, what do you do with the 3 reach distances recorded for that direction?

a.) find the mean
b.) find the mean and divide by the length of the test leg, then multiply by 100
c.) add them together

Answer 151

b.) find the mean and divide by the length of the test leg, then multiply by 100

Question 152

A client that presents with feet turning out, excessive pronation, and excessive forward lean in the OHSA is at risk for…

a.) chronic ankle instability
b.) over-pronation and limited ankle mobility are only linked to positions, not conditions or injuries
c.) Achilles tendinopathy

Answer 152

c.) Achilles tendinopathy

Question 153

The BESS is a common clinical assessment that consists of _____ tests lasting 20 secs each, performed on a _______, used by sports medicine professionals.

a.) four; wobble board
b.) five; firm and/or foam surface
c.) three; Bosu

Answer 153

b.) five; firm and/or foam surface

Question 154

If your client is in the inhibition phase for the foot and ankle, which of the following muscles will likely be involved?

a.) posterior tibialis
b.) gastrocnemius
c.) anterior tibialis
d.) medial hamstrings

Answer 154

b.) gastrocnemius

Question 155

Which muscle is the most appropriate to static stretch for a client who demonstrates over-pronation in the overhead squat?

a.) gluteus medius
b.) gastrocnemius
c.) rectus femoris
d.) anterior tibialis

Answer 155

b.) gastrocnemius

Question 156

When trying to choose between one score or another on the FMS, what is the rule of thumb?

a.) when in doubt, score high
b.) when in doubt, score low

Answer 156

b.) when in doubt, score low

Question 157

What purpose do the 3 clearing tests that accompany the patterns of FMS serve?

a.) identification of pain
b.) identification of stability restriction
c.) identification of mobility restriction

Answer 157

a.) identification of pain

Question 158

During a depth jump assessment, most impairments will be observed during what phase?

a.) jump/movement
b.) start or take off
c.) deceleration

Answer 158

c.) deceleration

Question 159

According to Cook, if a person tests positive for pain on the clearance test that follows the trunk stability push up pattern, what will the final score be for the pattern?

a.) 0
b.) 1
c.) 2
d.) 3

Answer 159

a.) 0

Question 160

During a client’s first attempt of completing the Deep Squat pattern of the FMS, she performs the squat with minimal compensations, including a slight heel rise during the descent into the squat and arms slightly falling forward to the front of the nose. What score would you give her based on this first attempt?

a.) 1
b.) 2
c.) 3
d.) can’t determine given the info in this question

Answer 160

d.) can’t determine given the info in this question - if this compensation is present, you place their heels on a 2” lift and have them try again

Question 161

If an observed knee compensation improves with the heels elevated during the modified OHSA, what is a primary area to address with corrective exercise mobility?

a.) foot and ankle complex
b.) knee
c.) LPHC
d.) shoulder complex

Answer 161

a.) foot and ankle complex

Question 162

Which of the following is not one of the 6 dimensions of wellness used by the National Wellness Institute?

a.) social
b.) athletic
c.) spiritual

Answer 162

b.) athletic

Question 163

How many reps are recommended when completing one of the upper extremity loaded movement assessments?

a.) 5
b.) 10
c.) 20

Answer 163

b.) 10

Question 164

What term is used to describe reduced neural drive to an antagonist muscle when an agonist muscle contracts?

a.) cross-bridging
b.) sensorimotor integration
c.) muscle imbalance
d.) reciprocal inhibition

Answer 164

d.) reciprocal inhibition

Question 165

A client demonstrates an asymmetric weight shift during the OHSA. Which of the following would be the most appropriate muscle to activate?

a.) opposite-side piriformis
b.) opposite-side adductors
c.) same-side TFL
d.) same-side adductors

Answer 165

b.) opposite-side adductors

Question 166

Scott demonstrates an excessive posterior pelvic tilt during the OHSA. Which of the following would be the most appropriate muscle to activate?

a.) erector spinae
b.) hamstrings complex
c.) adductor magnus
d.) abdominal complex

Answer 166

a.) erector spinae

Question 167

In situations where an individual has an excessive anterior pelvic tilt, which modification of OHSA should be used to identify whether the movement impairment is coming from the thoracic spine or the LPHC?

a.) switch to split squat
b.) hands should be placed on hips
c.) heels elevated on a plate

Answer 167

b.) hands should be placed on hips

Question 168

At which joint might an increase in ROM serve as a preventative strategy by allowing the trunk to be more upright and minimizing shearing forces in the trunk?

a.) ankle
b.) pelvic upslip
c.) cervical spine
d.) knee

Answer 168

a.) ankle

Question 169

What score would you give an FMS Rotary Stability patterns where the opposite arm and leg are touching?

a.) 0
b.) 1
c.) 2
d.) 3

Answer 169

c.) 2

Question 170

In an OHSA, tightness in hip flexors and weakness in abdominal muscles will most likely contribute to which movement dysfunction?

a.) knees valgus
b.) feet turn out
c.) excessive forward lean
d.) anterior pelvic tilt

Answer 170

d.) anterior pelvic tilt

Question 171

Which of the following is not likely a local mechanical effect of myofascial rolling?

a.) reducing tissue viscosity
b.) breaking up myofascial adhesions
c.) reducing arterial stiffness

Answer 171

b.) breaking up myofascial adhesions

Question 172

What is the recommended client position when performing the passive hip internal rotation test?

a.) lying supine on a table
b.) lying prone on the table with legs together
c.) standing with knees straight and feet in a comfortable position

Answer 172

b.) lying prone on the table with legs together

Question 173

Which of the following joint motions will you predict to be excessive when a client with lower crossed syndrome performs an OHSA?

a.) cervical extension
b.) lumbar lordosis
c.) foot external rotations

Answer 173

b.) lumbar lordosis

Question 174

The acromion is part of of which bony structure?

a.) infraspinatus fossa
b.) glenohumeral joint
c.) scapula
d.) coracoid

Answer 174

c.) scapula

Question 175

“Weightlifter’s shoulder” is a term associated with what clinical presentation?

a.) dislocation of the GH during bench press
b.) osteoarthritis of the AC joint
c.) osteoarthritis of the GH joint
d.) tendinopathy of the rotator cuff

Answer 175

b.) osteoarthritis of the AC joint

Question 176

How far apart should the cones be placed for the FCS Carry Screen?

a.) 20 ft
b.) 25 ft
c.) 30 ft

Answer 176

b.) 25 ft

Question 177

A ligament injury to the acromioclavicular joint is best classified as…

a.) AC separation
b.) AC dislocation

Answer 177

a.) AC separation

Question 178

When completing the Ankle Clearing Screen in the FCS, the subject “passes” when the testing knee is ____________ the reference medial malleolus of the opposite foot.

a.) within
b.) beyond
c.) behind

Answer 178

b.) beyond

Question 179

Which group of muscles should be inhibited and lengthened for someone exhibiting scapular winging?

a.) serratus anterior, middle and lower trapezius
b.) latissimus dorsi, pectoralis minor and upper trapezius
c.) latissimus dorsi, serratus anterior and lower trapezius
d.) latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major and rhomboids

Answer 179

b.) latissimus dorsi, pectoralis minor and upper trapezius

Question 180

What is the final interpretation of this FCS Lower Extremity Motor Control Screen?

L Foot Length - 12 in
R Foot Length - 12 in
L Foot Attempts: 18”, fail, 20”, fail, 24”
R Foot Attempts: 19”, 23”, 26”, 26”

a.) fail greatest reach, pass symmetry
b.) pass greatest reach on right foot only; fail symmetry
c.) pass greatest reach and symmetry

Answer 180

b.) pass greatest reach on right foot only; fail symmetry - symmetry must be below 1.5”

Question 181

How much pain should be felt when performing Step 1 of the myofascial rolling program?

a.) there should be some discomfort, but you should be able to relax and breathe
b.) hold breath and apply as much pressure as tolerable to the roller
c.) there should be no discomfort

Answer 181

a.) there should be some discomfort, but you should be able to relax and breathe

Question 182

What is the name given for the wrist bones collectively?

a.) carpals
b.) tarsals
c.) metatarsals
d.) metacarpals

Answer 182

a.) carpals

Question 183

Mobility assessments reveal restricted wrist flexion motion. What muscle group should be lengthened?

a.) elbow flexors
b.) wrist extensors
c.) wrist flexors
d.) elbow extensors

Answer 183

b.) wrist extensors

Question 184

“Righty Tighty” is a great way to remember…

a.) pronation
b.) supination
c.) both

Answer 184

b.) supination

Question 185

A 180cm athlete performs the Broad Jump with Arms Impact Control Screen from the FCS and you record a distance of 205cm for the best attempt. Did they pass the broad jump screen?

a.) yes
b.) no

Answer 185

a.) yes - 110% of their height

Question 186

De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis affects…

a.) radial side of hand
b.) dorsal side of hand
c.) palmar side of hand
d.) ulna side of hand

Answer 186

a.) radial side of hand

Question 187

An individual performs the single leg broad jump and you record a best distance of 105 cm with the left leg and 112 cm with the right leg. Did they pass the FCS Single Leg Jump Screen?

a.) yes
b.) no

Answer 187

b.) no - needs to be less than 5% difference between legs

Question 188

During the OHSA, a client demonstrates lack of elbow extension. To what is this often attributed?

a.) poor shoulder mobility
b.) poor elbow stability
c.) underactive biceps brachii
d.) overactive biceps brachii

Answer 188

d.) overactive biceps brachii

Question 189

An individual performs Broad Jump with hands on hips and you record a distance of 170cm for the best attempt. Their best attempt at the Broad Jump with arms was 190cm. Did they pass this FCS screen?

a.) yes
b.) no

Answer 189

b.) no - should be between 115-125% of length of broad jump with hands on hip

Question 190

An individual with a 112cm single leg jump on right leg performs the 2-1-2 jump screen and you record a distance of 125cm. Did they pass this FCS screen?

a.) yes
b.) no

Answer 190

b.) no - should be 120% of single leg jump

Question 191

Rotation of the forearm such that the palm faces downward is known as…

a.) forearm supination
b.) forearm pronation

Answer 191

b.) forearm pronation

Question 192

What are key compensations at the LPHC to look for during the single-leg squat assessment?

a.) asymmetric weight shift and forward trunk lean
b.) posterior and anterior pelvic tilt
c.) asymmetric weight shift and inward or outward trunk rotation

Answer 192

c.) asymmetric weight shift and inward or outward trunk rotation

Question 193

What is an example of a total-body primer exercise for more advanced programming in the future?

a.) barbell squat
b.) push-up
c.) ball squat with overhead press

Answer 193

c.) ball squat with overhead press

Question 194

If ankle dorsiflexion is restricted, which muscle would you suspect as being overactive?

a.) gastrocnemius
b.) piriformis
c.) TFL

Answer 194

a.) gastrocnemius

Question 195

What are the dysfunctional spinal postures identified by Kendall?

a.) upper crossed syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and kyphosis-lordosis
b.) sway-back, lordotic and upper crossed syndrome
c.) lordotic, flat-back, sway-back and kyphosis-lordosis

Answer 195

c.) lordotic, flat-back, sway-back and kyphosis-lordosis

Question 196

Cueing an athlete to “land quietly” is an example of…

a.) knowledge of results
b.) internal feedback
c.) knowledge of performance

Answer 196

c.) knowledge of performance

Question 197

Where is the hyoid bone located in the cervical spine?

a.) between C3 and C4
b.) the anterior neck in a muscular sling
c.) the throat
d.) the posterior neck in a muscular sling

Answer 197

b.) the anterior neck in a muscular sling

Question 198

How many pounds of relative stress does looking down at a cell phone place on the neck?

a.) 30lbs
b.) 40lbs
c.) 50lbs
d.) 60lbs

Answer 198

d.) 60lbs

Question 199

How can sustained forward head posture also contribute to the development of TMJ disorders?

a.) causing stabilization of the hyoid bone
b.) causing alteration of length-tension relationships in the head and neck
c.) causing a reduction of force requirements for the jaw muscles
d.) promoting underactivity in the suboccipital muscles

Answer 199

b.) causing alteration of length-tension relationships in the head and neck

Question 200

___________ is a condition that typically effects older adults that is categorized by narrowing of the spinal canal that can cause compression on the spinal cord.

a.) spinal stenosis
b.) degenerative disc disease
c.) thinning disc
d.) bulging disc

Answer 200

a.) spinal stenosis

Question 201

All of the following are an integration exercise for forward head posture except…

a.) chin tucks
b.) ball combo 1
c.) squat to row

Answer 201

a.) chin tucks

Question 202

How many cervical vertebrae make up the cervical spine?

a.) 3
b.) 5
c.) 7
d.) 12

Answer 202

c.) 7

Question 203

Polly demonstrates forward head posture during her assessment. Which of her muscles is most likely underactive?

a.) latissimus dorsi
b.) serratus anterior
c.) sternocleidomastoid
d.) deep cervical flexors

Answer 203

d.) deep cervical flexors

Question 204

Which of the following exercises are appropriate to use to activate muscles involved in the shoulder elevation compensation

a.) push-up plus and ball combo 1
b.) ball combo 2 with a dowel rod
c.) ball scaption and ball cobra

Answer 204

c.) ball scaption and ball cobra

Question 205

What is the minimum duration of acute static stretching per muscle group in isolation that would lead to performance impairments?

a.) 20 secs
b.) 30 secs
c.) 60 secs
d.) 120 secs

Answer 205

c.) 60 secs

Question 206

What is the purpose of holding a ball between the knees during the seated thoracic rotation test?

a.) to guide the path of rotation
b.) to keep the feet apart
c.) to stabilize the lower body

Answer 206

c.) to stabilize the lower body

Question 207

The distal attachment of the pec major is the…

a.) greater tubercle of humerus
b.) clavicle, sternum, ribs 1-7
c.) medial border of the scapula

Answer 207

a.) greater tubercle of humerus

Question 208

The isometric action of the rhomboids is…

a.) stabilize the LPHC
b.) stabilize the scapula
c.) stabilize the shoulder girdle

Answer 208

b.) stabilize the scapula

Question 209

The proximal attachment of the latissimus dorsi is…

a.) clavicle, sternum, ribs 1-7
b.) spinous processes of T7-T12, iliac crest of the pelvis, thoracolumbar fascia, ribs 9-12
c.) spinous processes of C7-T5

Answer 209

b.) spinous processes of T7-T12, iliac crest of the pelvis, thoracolumbar fascia, ribs 9-12

Question 210

The eccentric action of the latissimus dorsi is…

a.) to slow down shoulder extension, horizontal abduction and external rotation
b.) to slow down scapular protraction and upward rotation
c.) to slow down shoulder flexion, abduction and external rotation

Answer 210

c.) to slow down shoulder flexion, abduction and external rotation

Question 211

The concentric action of the rhomboids is to…

a.) speed up scapular retraction and downward rotation
b.) speed up scapular protraction and upward rotation
c.) speed up shoulder flexion, horizontal adduction and internal rotation

Answer 211

b.) speed up scapular protraction and upward rotation

Question 212

The eccentric action of the serratus anterior is…

a.) scapular protraction
b.) scapular retraction
c.) scapular depression

Answer 212

b.) scapular retraction

Question 213

The proximal attachment of the serratus anterior is…

a.) acromion process
b.) sternum
c.) medial border of the scapula
d.) ribs 4-12

Answer 213

d.) ribs 4-12

Question 214

The distal attachment of the middle trapezius is…

a.) spinous processes of T6-T12
b.) acromion process of scapula, spine of scapula
c.) skull, spinous process of C1-C7

Answer 214

b.) acromion process of scapula, spine of scapula

Question 215

The eccentric action of the lower trapezius is to slow down…

a.) scapular depression
b.) scapular adduction
c.) scapular elevation

Answer 215

c.) scapular elevation

Question 216

The concentric action of the middle trapezius is to speed up…

a.) scapular depression
b.) scapular elevation
c.) scapular retraction

Answer 216

c.) scapular retraction

Question 217

The proximal attachment of the upper trapezius is…

a.) spinous process of T6-T12
b.) spinous process of T1-T5
c.) skull, spinous processes of C1-C7

Answer 217

c.) skull, spinous processes of C1-C7

Question 218

The concentric action of the teres minor is..

a.) to speed up shoulder internal rotation
b.) to speed up scapular protraction
c.) to speed up shoulder external rotation

Answer 218

c.) to speed up shoulder external rotation