APK 6116C - Exercise Physiology Flashcards
1
Q
Systolic blood pressure at rest in a healthy person averages about 120mmHG throughout the course of a day. There are small fluctuations above and below 120mmHg, which are best described as ____________________.
a.) steady state
b.) positive feedback
c.) dynamic constancy
d.) adaptations
A
c.) dynamic constancy
2
Q
What is the major molecule believed to activate the pathway that stimulates lipolysis in fat and muscle cells?
a.) calcium
b.) inorganic phosphate
c.) epinephrine
d.) ADP
A
c.) epinephrine
3
Q
_________ is the molecule that’s important for activating creatine kinase?
a.) phosphocreatine
b.) ATP
c.) ADP
d.) creatine
A
c.) ADP
4
Q
What is the function of phosphocreatine?
a.) donate phosphate to ADP
b.) re-synthesize ADP
c.) power the myosin head
d.) breakdown ATP
A
a.) donate phosphate to ADP
5
Q
What is a major limiting factor with regard to the phosphagen system?
a.) there are large quantities of phosphocreatine
b.) there are small quantities of phosphocreatine
c.) there are small quantities of ATP
d.) creatine kinase is hard to activate
A
b.) there are small quantities of phosphocreatine
6
Q
What molecules activate glycogen phosphorylase?
a.) ATP and ADP
b.) epinephrine and calcium
c.) glucose and inorganic phosphate
d.) inorganic phosphate and ADP
A
b.) epinephrine and calcium
7
Q
What molecule activates phosphofructokinase?
a.) ATP
b.) ADP
c.) epinephrine
d.) calcium
A
b.) ADP
8
Q
What is the immediate purpose of converting pyruvate to lactate?
a.) so pyruvate can be oxidized
b.) resynthesize ATP
c.) regenerate NAD
d.) buffer ADP and inorganic phosphate levels
A
c.) regenerate NAD
9
Q
If anaerobic glycolysis only produces a net gain of 2 ATP, what is one possible purpose of the muscle cell ever utilizing it?
a.) it is the most efficient use of a glucose molecule
b.) it makes better use of available oxygen when ATP demand is high
c.) a net gain of 2 ATP is fine is ADP demand is low
d.) it produces ATP very quickly (bypassing oxygen) when ATP demand is high
A
d.) it produces ATP very quickly (bypassing oxygen) when ATP demand is high
10
Q
What is the first thing to happen to pyruvate once it enters into the mitochondria?
a.) it is oxidized to Acetyl-CoA
b.) it enters into the electron transport chain
c.) it is converted to lactate
d.) it enters into the citric acid (krebs) cycle
A
a.) it is oxidized to Acetyl-CoA
11
Q
What is the primary function and importance of oxygen within the mitochondria?
a.) to oxidize the 4th complex
b.) to oxidize NADH
c.) to produce water for the cell
d.) to directly form ATP
A
a.) to oxidize the 4th complex
12
Q
Why is it that during more moderate ATP demand instances, most pyruvate is shuttled into the mitochondria?
a.) because sufficient oxygen is coming to the electron transport chain
b.) because pyruvate transport proteins become available
c.) because lactate dehydrogenase is not available
d.) because enough lactate has been produced at this point
A
a.) because sufficient oxygen is coming to the electron transport chain
13
Q
As pyruvate accumulates during glycolysis, what happens next?
a.) it is converted into acetyl-CoA
b.) it is moved out of the cell into the interstitial fluid
c.) it is directly converted into NAD
d.) it is converted into lactate
A
d.) it is converted into lactate
14
Q
What is the benefit of pyruvate converting into lactate?
a.) Acetyl-CoA results in the production of a lot of ATP to meet ATP demand
b.) it allows the cell to meet ATP demand by using anaerobic glycolysis combined with aerobic glycolysis
c.) pyruvate can be utilized by other cells if it is removed
d.) converting pyruvate into NAD allows for greater ATP production from NAD
A
b.) it allows the cell to meet ATP demand by using anaerobic glycolysis combined with aerobic glycolysis
15
Q
What is the core of the plasma membrane mostly composed of?
a.) fatty acid tails
b.) integral proteins
c.) cholesterol
d.) phosphate heads
A
a.) fatty acid tails
16
Q
Which type of transport involves molecules moving from a high to low concentration through the plasma membrane with no integral protein?
a.) osmosis
b.) simple diffusion
c.) diffusion through channels
d.) facilitated diffusion
A
b.) simple diffusion
17
Q
Q
Which type of transport involves the diffusion of ions past an integral protein to provide the energy to pump other molecules or atoms from a low to high concentration?
a.) primary active
b.) secondary active
c.) facilitated diffusion
d.) osmosis
A
b.) secondary active
18
Q
_________ receives information in the form of electricity and sends it towards the trigger zone.
a.) cell body
b.) dendrite
c.) axon terminal
d.) axon hillock
A
b.) dendrite
19
Q
__________ are the branches of the axon where the action potential will spread before reaching the axon button.
a.) dendrites
b.) axon terminals
c.) nodes of Ranvier
d.) myelin sheath
A
b.) axon terminals
20
Q
True or False: Schwann cells create one section of myelin sheath in the PNS, whereas oligodendrocytes create multiple sections in the CNS.
A
True
21
Q
______________ is a type of diffusion where pores serve as a passageway for ionic and polar molecules to travel.
a.) simple diffusion
b.) diffusion through channels
c.) facilitated diffusion
d.) primary active transport
A
b.) diffusion through channels
22
Q
How is it possible for SA node fibers to generate their own action potentials?
a.) they release their own excitatory neurotransmitters
b.) voltage gated sodium channels open when the fiber is at its resting membrane potential
c.) the opening of ligand gated sodium channels
d.) epinephrine opens calcium channels
A
b.) voltage gated sodium channels open when the fiber is at its resting membrane potential
23
Q
What is one way that cardiac and skeletal muscle fibers differ in terms of the process of contraction?
a.) calcium for contraction comes mostly from the SR in cardiac muscle fibers
b.) there is no DHP receptor in the T-tubule in cardiac muscle fibers
c.) calcium for contraction comes mostly from the extracellular fluid in cardiac muscle fibers
d.) DHP and ryanodine receptors are physically attached in cardiac muscle fibers
A
c.) calcium for contraction comes mostly from the extracellular fluid in cardiac muscle fibers
24
Q
What pathway is activated when adrenergic receptors on the SA node fibers are stimulated?
a.) calcium calmodulin
b.) PIP2
c.) IP3
d.) cAMP
A
d.) cAMP
25
How does stimulation of adrenergic receptors on ventricular cardiac muscle fibers result in them producing more force?
a.) by opening sodium channels
b.) by increasing the amount of intracellular calcium
c.) by decreasing the calcium ATPase rate on the SR
d.) by opening potassium channels
b.) by increasing the amount of intracellular calcium
26
Regarding RER, if someone is consuming much more oxygen than carbon dioxide is being produced, what macronutrient are their muscle cells mostly consuming for the production of ATP?
a.) carbs
b.) protein
c.) fatty acids
c.) fatty acids
27
During prolonged steady state low intensity exercise, fatty acids progressively get more utilized by the working muscle cells. What is one factor that accounts for this shift?
a.) rising blood levels of lactate
b.) rising blood levels of hydrogen ions.
c.) fast twitch fibers are initially recruited, but are then “shut off”
d.) rising body temperature and blood levels of epinephrine
d.) rising body temperature and blood levels of epinephrine
28
One theory regarding fatigue during long duration endurance events is that glycogen becomes depleted within the muscle cells, making the cells almost entirely reliant on fatty acids. What is one of the reasons that this may cause fatigue?
a.) ketones are produced, which are acidic
b.) higher quantities of hydrogen ions will be produced.
c.) there is a lack of fatty acids in the blood to sufficiently meet ATP demand
d.) pyruvate is needed to make Krebs cycle intermediates, that are used to break down fatty acids at a sufficient rate to meet ATP demand
d.) pyruvate is needed to make Krebs cycle intermediates, that are used to break down fatty acids at a sufficient rate to meet ATP demand
29
Why does shortening velocity within a fiber increase as force decreases?
a.) less myosin can be bound to actin at a given time
b.) the sarcomere is moved into a suboptimal position
c.) the cycling rate of myosin decreases
d.) increased velocities decrease how much calcium can bind to actin
a.) less myosin can be bound to actin at a given time
30
What does a high myosin ATPase rate tell you about Type IIx fibers?
a.) it takes a lot of time to produce peak force.
b.) they resist fatigue well.
c.) they have a great ability to oxidize fatty acids
d.) they shorten fast
d.) they shorten fast
31
Why is there a steady but not significant rise in lactate from 20-60% of VO2max (lower intensity exercise)?
a.) cells are always producing some lactate, this is just chance
b.) type IIa fibers have been recruited and are producing some lactate, but not enough of serious significance
c.) type I fibers are being pushed towards their upper limit and are relying more on anaerobic glycolysis
d.) type IIa fibers have been recruited, which always produce lactate
b.) type IIa fibers have been recruited and are producing some lactate, but not enough of serious significance
32
At what exercise stage is lactate threshold hit?
a.) 2
b.) 3
c.) 4
d.) 5
b.) 3
33
What is the likely explanation for what causes lactate threshold?
a.) type IIx fibers have been recruited, which produce ATP mostly through anaerobic glycolysis
b.) type IIa fibers have become very reliant on anaerobic metabolism at this point and type IIx fibers have also been recruited (which rely almost exclusively on anaerobic glycolysis)
c.) type IIa fibers have just began to produce lactate at this intensity
d.) type IIx fibers have reached an intensity at lactate threshold where they transition from aerobic to anaerobic glycolysis
b.) type IIa fibers have become very reliant on anaerobic metabolism at this point and type IIx fibers have also been recruited (which rely almost exclusively on anaerobic glycolysis)
34
What is the equation for cardiac output?
a.) HR x a-VO2 difference
b.) SV x a-VO2 difference
c.) HR x SV
d.) aortic pressure x TPR
c.) HR x SV
35
Why might a plateau be observed in SV and not a decrease in an untrained individual?
a.) decrease in aortic pressure
b.) increased sympathetic stimulation of cardiac muscle fibers
c.) increased venous return to due respiratory and muscle pump
d.) increase in HR
b.) increased sympathetic stimulation of cardiac muscle fibers
36
What does a-VO2 difference look at?
a.) total peripheral resistance during exercise
b.) the amount of CO2 produced divided by the amount of O2 consumed
c.) the difference in arterial and venous blood oxygen content
d.) HR x SV
c.) the difference in arterial and venous blood oxygen content
37
What is the most likely explanation for why cardiovascular drift must occur?
a.) increased parasympathetic activation
b.) increased sympathetic activation
c.) decreased filling time with higher heart rates
d.) loss of blood plasma decreases stroke volume
d.) loss of blood plasma decreases stroke volume
38
Exercise hyperemia is an increased flow of blood to the working muscles (and less to other organs) during exercise. What allows for this to occur?
a.) constriction of all blood vessels in systemic circulation
b.) increased cardiac output
c.) dilation of all blood vessels in systemic circulation
d.) dilation of blood vessels specifically next to working muscle
d.) dilation of blood vessels specifically next to working muscle
39
Aortic pressure does not change much even with high intensity exercise. How is this possible?
a.) cardiac output increases with exercise
b.) total peripheral resistance decreases with exercise
c.) the aorta dilates with exercise
d.) stroke volume decreases
b.) total peripheral resistance decreases with exercise
40
How is it possible that the total peripheral resistance decreases with exercise?
a.) due to CO2, H+, etc. binding to the aorta
b.) due to the sympathetic nervous system becoming more active
c.) due to the dilation of the vessels around the working muscle
d.) due to increased afterload
c.) due to the dilation of the vessels around the working muscle
41
During development of the resting membrane potential, why does more potassium exit the cell than sodium enter the cell?
a.) the cell is more permeable to sodium
b.) the equilibrium potential is higher
c.) the cell is more permeable to potassium
d.) the equilibrium potential is lower
c.) the cell is more permeable to potassium
42
During the development of the resting membrane potential, what happens to the interior of the cell if potassium exits the cell at a greater rate than sodium enters?
a.) the exterior becomes negative
b.) the interior becomes negative
c.) a chemical driving force develops
d.) an action potential occurs
b.) the interior becomes negative
43
What occurs with regard to sodium and potassium movement when the interior is -70mV (the resting membrane potential?)
a.) an action potential occurs
b.) sodium enters at a greater rate than potassium exits
c.) sodium enters at the same rate that potassium exits
d.) sodium enters at a slower rate than potassium exits
c.) sodium enters at the same rate that potassium exits
44
What type of transport works to maintain the concentrations of sodium and potassium inside the cell?
a.) simple diffusion
b.) secondary active
c.) facilitated diffusion
d.) primary active
d.) primary active
45
Why does ACh binding to the receptors on the dendrites of the post-synaptic neuron result in a depolarization (more positive)?
a.) it increases the rate of the sodium/potassium pumps
b.) it allows sodium to enter
c.) it allows chloride to enter
d.) it allows potassium to quickly exit
b.) it allows sodium to enter
46
What happens in the hillock when threshold is reached?
a.) voltage gated sodium channels open
b.) voltage gated potassium channels open
c.) ligand gated chloride channels open
d.) ligand gated calcium channels open
a.) voltage gated sodium channels open
47
What must occur in the axon terminal button for neurotransmitters to be released into the extracellular fluid?
a.) voltage gated sodium channels must open
b.) ligand gated sodium channels must open
c.) voltage gated calcium channels must open
d.) ligand gated calcium channels must open
c.) voltage gated calcium channels must open
48
Graded potentials are known as decremental while action potentials are non-decremental. What does this mean?
a.) action potentials dissipate (lose voltage) over time
b.) graded potentials increase in size (voltage) over time
c.) action potentials increase in size (voltage) over time
d.) graded potentials dissipate (lose voltage) over time
d.) graded potentials dissipate (lose voltage) over time
49
What is a receptor?
a.) afferent neuron
b.) dendrite
c.) the first “thing” that senses the stimulus
d.) sensory neuron
c.) the first “thing” that senses the stimulus
50
What is the function of sensory (afferent) neurons that are wrapped around muscle spindles?
a.) they travel to the spinal cord and activate alpha motor neurons of the muscle being stretched
b.) they travel to the spinal cord and activate neurons within the primary motor cortex
c.) they travel to the spinal cord and activate alpha motor neurons of the antagonistic muscle
d.) they travel to the spinal cord and inhibit alpha motor neurons of the muscle being stretched
a.) they travel to the spinal cord and activate alpha motor neurons of the muscle being stretched
51
Which statement is true about reciprocal inhibition?
a.) the sensory neuron will also activate alpha motor neurons of the antagonistic muscle
b.) the sensory neuron will also inhibit the alpha motor neurons being stretched
c.) the sensory neuron will also inhibit alpha motor neurons of the antagonist muscle
d.) the sensory neuron will also inhibit neurons within the primary motor cortex
a.) the sensory neuron will also activate alpha motor neurons of the antagonistic muscle
52
What is the function of the golgi tendon organ and associated sensory neurons?
a.) sense high levels of tension within tendons and inhibit the alpha motor neurons of the active muscle
b.) sense touch within the tendon and activate the alpha motor neurons of the active muscle
d.) sense high levels of tension within tendons and activate the alpha motor neurons of the antagonist muscle
a.) sense high levels of tension within tendons and inhibit the alpha motor neurons of the active muscle
53
Which protein covers the myosin binding sites on actin?
a.) tropomyosin
b.) the myosin tail
c.) troponin
d.) the myosin head
a.) tropomyosin
54
With regard to the power stroke and myosin filament, what actually results in the pulling of actin towards the M-line?
a.) the tilting of the myosin head
b.) ADP being released
c.) inorganic phosphate being released
d.) the recoiling (contraction) of the neck or hinge region
d.) the recoiling (contraction) of the neck or hinge region
55
What is the T-Tubule?
a.) where all the RyR receptors are located
b.) an extension of the plasma membrane (sarcolemma)
c.) the binding location for ACh
d.) a storage site for calcium
b.) an extension of the plasma membrane (sarcolemma)
56
What direct/immediate purpose does ACh serve within the synapse between the alpha motor neurons and muscle fibers (neuromuscular function)?
a.) to allow calcium out of the SR
b.) to allow sodium to enter into the muscle fiber
c.) to allow myosin to interact with calcium
d.) to allow potassium out of the muscle fiber
b.) to allow sodium to enter into the muscle fiber
57
What is the direct/immediate purpose of the AP spreading down the sarcolemma and T-tubule?
a.) to allow myosin and actin to interact
b.) to shift tropomyosin off the binding sites on actin
c.) to open DHP/RyR receptors
d.) to allow calcium to be reuptaken into the SR
c.) to open DHP/RyR receptors
58
Why is there a suboptimal amount of force produced within the muscle fiber during a muscle twitch?
a.) inorganic phosphate is preventing myosin and actin interaction
b.) calcium is reuptaken before maximal amounts of myosin can bind to actin
c.) calcium release is exceeding reuptake but not by enough
d.) the release of calcium is significantly exceeding reuptake but ATP is lacking
b.) calcium is reuptaken before maximal amounts of myosin can bind to actin
59
What is the term used to describe when an alpha motor neuron generates more frequent action potentials to cause a muscle fiber to produce more force?
a.) excitation contraction coupling
b.) temporal summation
c.) the power stroke
d.) spatial summation
b.) temporal summation
60
Q
If you want to activate more and larger alpha motor neurons that go to a particular muscle, what must happen?
a.) the upper motor neuron must generate stronger APs
b.) the lower motor neuron must lower its threshold
c.) the lower motor neuron must increase its threshold
d.) the upper motor neuron must generate more frequent APs
d.) the upper motor neuron must generate more frequent APs
61
What allows for the larger alpha motor neurons to be “activated?”
a.) less neurotransmitter is now required in their synaptic clefts over time to hit threshold
b.) less neurotransmitter is released into their synaptic clefts over time, allowing them to hit threshold
c.) more neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic clefts over time, allowing them to hit threshold
c.) more neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic clefts over time, allowing them to hit threshold
62
_____________ is the process of activating more alpha motor neurons so the whole muscle can produce more force by way of more muscle fibers contracting?
a.) spatial summation
b.) excitation contraction coupling
c.) temporal summation
d.) the power stroke
a.) spatial summation
63
What does the term “depolarization” mean?
a.) anytime the interior of a neuron becomes more positive
b.) anytime the exterior of a neuron becomes more positive
c.) anytime the interior of a neuron becomes more negative
d.) anytime the exterior of a neuron becomes more negative
a.) anytime the interior of a neuron becomes more positive
64
What does the term “hyperpolarization” mean?
a.) anytime the interior of a neuron becomes more positive
b.) anytime the exterior of a neuron becomes more positive
c.) anytime the interior of a neuron becomes more negative
d.) anytime the exterior of a neuron becomes more negative
c.) anytime the interior of a neuron becomes more negative
65
Voltage gated channels open up in the _____________, allowing sodium to rush in and recharge a myelinated neuron to +30mV.
a.) Nodes of Ranvier
b.) axon hillock
c.) myelin sheath
d.) synaptic cleft
a.) Nodes of Ranvier
66
What is a type of receptor that provides information about muscle length and rate of shortening?
a.) Golgi tendon organs
b.) muscle spindles
c.) Pacinian corpuscles
d.) skeletal muscle chemoreceptors
b.) muscle spindles
67
What is a type of receptor that provides information about muscle force production?
a.) Golgi tendon organs
b.) muscle spindles
c.) Pacinian corpuscles
d.) skeletal muscle chemoreceptors
a.) Golgi tendon organs
68
_____________ results in the inhibition of the motor neurons, that cause contraction of the same muscle experiencing excessive tension to prevent damage to that muscle.
a.) reciprocal inhibition
b.) autogenic inhibition
b.) autogenic inhibition
69
Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding the vestibular apparatus?
a.) allows for equilibrium
b.) it is important for adjusting eye movements
c.) it is sensitive to changes in chemical environments
d.) any change in head position can stimulate it
c.) it is sensitive to changes in chemical environments
70
What is the term for the groups of muscle fibers surrounded by the perimysium?
a.) myofibrils
b.) fascicles
c.) sarcomeres
b.) fascicles
71
What is the term for the cylinder shapes that make up repeating segments of sarcomeres that make up the majority of muscle fibers?
a.) myofibrils
b.) fascicles
c.) sarcolemma
a.) myofibrils
72
True or False: myosin is a thick filament line which slightly overlaps actin on both sides.
True
73
True or False: the A-band is where myosin exists without any overlapping actin.
False - correct answer is H-Zone
74
True or False: the I-band is where actin exists without any overlapping myosin.
True
75
What two components are needed for a muscle contraction to happen?
a.) sodium and calcium
b.) sodium and ATP
c.) calcium and ATP
d.) sodium and potassium
c.) calcium and ATP
76
The amount of sodium coming into a small alpha motor neuron will allow it to reach its membrane potential faster than the same amount of sodium coming into a larger alpha motor neuron, which allows for spatial summation to be achieved. This is known as the…
a.) all-or-nothing principle
b.) size principle
c.) Frank Starling mechanism
d.) Fick equation
b.) size principle
77
Which of the following is true when a muscle is at an optimal length?
a.) myosin heads are not binding with actin
b.) myosin and actin are very overlapped
c.) the sarcomeres are so shortened that they inhibit the myosin heads from binding to actin
b.) myosin and actin are very overlapped
78
What type of muscle fiber has the highest amount of mitochondria?
a.) Type I
b.) Type IIx
c.) Type IIa
a.) Type I
79
A long-distance runner will typically have more of which type of muscle fibers?
a.) Type I
b.) Type IIx
c.) Type IIa
a.) Type I
80
True or False: lactate threshold is another name for anaerobic threshold.
True
81
Which of the following best describes the oxygen deficit period?
a.) there is not enough oxygen being consumed during the first few minutes of exercise, so aerobic metabolism is utilized to meet the demands
b.) there is not enough oxygen being consumed during the first few minutes of exercise, so anaerobic metabolism and the phosphagen system is utilized to meet the demands
c.) there is not enough oxygen being consumed after the first few minutes of exercise, so anaerobic metabolism and the phosphagen system is utilized to meet the demands
b.) there is not enough oxygen being consumed during the first few minutes of exercise, so anaerobic metabolism and the phosphagen system is utilized to meet the demands
82
Which type of muscle fibers have the least ability to receive and consume oxygen?
a.) Type I
b.) Type IIx
c.) Type IIa
b.) Type IIx
83
What muscles cause the ribs to rise up and anteriorly?
a.) diaphragm
b.) external intercostals
c.) internal intercostals
d.) internal obliques
b.) external intercostals
84
During inspiration, the chest wall expands and…
a.) pleural pressure increases
b.) volume within the pleural cavity decreases
c.) pleural pressure decreases
d.) alveolar pressure increases
c.) pleural pressure decreases
85
How does inspiration influence the lungs?
a.) lungs recoil and alveolar pressure increases
b.) lungs recoil and alveolar pressure decreases
c.) lungs expand and alveolar pressure increases
d.) lungs expand and alveolar pressure decreases
d.) lungs expand and alveolar pressure decreases
86
During expiration, transpulmonary pressure…
a.) decreases, causing the lungs to recoil
b.) decreases, causing the lungs to expand
c.) increases, causing the lungs to recoil
d.) increases, causing the lungs to expand
a.) decreases, causing the lungs to recoil
86
True or False: transpulmonary pressure = alveolar pressure + pleural pressure
False: transpulmonary pressure = the difference between alveolar pressure and pleural pressure
87
What contributes most to the elastic recoil of the lungs?
a.) elastic fibers within acinus
b.) contraction of smooth muscle within bronchioles
c.) mucus within bronchioles
d.) surface tension within alveoli
d.) surface tension within alveoli
88
What can be done to increase resistance within the lungs?
a.) relaxation of smooth muscle within bronchioles
b.) contraction of smooth muscle within bronchioles
c.) decrease surface tension within alveoli
d.) increase surface tension within alveoli
b.) contraction of smooth muscle within bronchioles
89
The amount of air that comes in and out of lungs within a normal breath is known as…
a.) functional residual capacity
b.) tidal volume
c.) vital capacity
d.) residual volume
b.) tidal volume
90
The total amount of air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration is complete and all respiratory muscles are relaxed (person is at rest) is known as…
a.) functional residual capacity
b.) tidal volume
c.) vital capacity
d.) residual volume
a.) functional residual capacity
91
The maximal amount of air that can be removed from lungs is known as…
a.) functional residual capacity
b.) tidal volume
c.) vital capacity
d.) residual volume
c.) vital capacity
92
The amount of air that’s always in the lungs, due to transpulmonary pressure is called…
a.) functional residual capacity
b.) tidal volume
c.) vital capacity
d.) residual volume
d.) residual volume
93
What would you expect to see in someone with a restrictive (low compliance) lung disease?
a.) decreased flow rate
b.) increased functional residual capacity
c.) decreased vital capacity/total lung capacity
d.) increased vital capacity/total lung capacity
c.) decreased vital capacity/total lung capacity
94
Why does the partial pressure of oxygen decrease as it moves into the lungs?
a.) because the air is humidified and mixed with air in the lungs that is rich in O2
b.) because total air pressure decreases
c.) because the air is humidified and mixed with air in the lungs that is rich in CO2
d.) because the partial pressure of nitrogen increases
c.) because the air is humidified and mixed with air in the lungs that is rich in CO2
95
How is it possible for the partial pressure of O2 within the air and fluid to be exactly the same, yet the concentrations different?
a.) the contractions of CO2 are higher in the air
b.) O2 is very polar and binds well with water
c.) O2 is non-polar and does NOT bind well with water
d.) the contractions of nitrogen are higher in the air
c.) O2 is non-polar and does NOT bind well with water
96
What is the most important reason for driving the partial pressure of O2 within the blood plasma in the pulmonary capillaries up to 100mmHg?
a.) to carry O2 within the plasma to the cells of the body
b.) to shift the oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve to the left
c.) to shift the oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right
d.) to allow hemoglobin to bind more O2 (become more saturated)
d.) to allow hemoglobin to bind more O2 (become more saturated)
97
What is the most important reason for driving the partial pressure of O2 within the blood plasma in the systemic capillaries down to 40mmHg?
a.) to release O2 within the plasma into the cells of the body
b.) to shift the oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve to the left
c.) to allow hemoglobin to bind less oxygen (become less saturated)
d.) to shift the oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right
c.) to allow hemoglobin to bind less oxygen (become less saturated)
98
What is the functional difference between myoglobin and hemoglobin?
a.) myoglobin is more saturated with O2 at a lower partial pressure of oxygen
b.) hemoglobin is more saturated with O2 at a higher partial pressure of oxygen
c.) myoglobin is less saturated with O2 at a higher partial pressure of oxygen
d.) hemoglobin is more saturated with O2 at a lower partial pressure of oxygen
a.) myoglobin is more saturated with O2 at a lower partial pressure of oxygen
99
Why does VCO2 increase as exercise intensity increases?
a.) the muscle fibers are running oxidative phosphorylation at a greater rate
b.) muscle fibers are using anaerobic metabolism
c.) inorganic phosphate in the muscle fibers
d.) oxygen consumption decreases within the muscle fibers
a.) the muscle fibers are running oxidative phosphorylation at a greater rate
100
How is an increased VCO2 during exercise related to an increased VE?
a.) an increase in hydrogen ions in the blood activates chemoreceptors, which drive an increased respiratory rate
b.) anaerobic glycolysis is a potent stimulator of neurons within the respiratory control center
c.) an increase in inorganic phosphate increases the intensity of breathing
d.) hypoxia that occurs during exercise increases respiratory rate
a.) an increase in hydrogen ions in the blood activates chemoreceptors, which drive an increased respiratory rate
101
What is ventilatory threshold?
a.) the point at which anaerobic metabolism begins within the body
b.) the point at which VCO2 increases exponentially
c.) the point at which ventilation increases non-linearly
d.) the point at which oxygen consumption rises non-linearly
c.) the point at which ventilation increases non-linearly
102
What is it about lactate threshold occurring that may cause ventilatory threshold to occur?
a.) inorganic phosphate is a potent stimulator of chemoreceptors
b.) muscle fibers that have a higher ATP demand than supply (resynthesis) produce large quantities of hydrogen ions, which hyperstimulate chemoreceptors
c.) increase in hyodrgen ions hyperstimulates primary motor cortex neurons
d.) muscle fibers relying mostly on anaerobic metabolism produce large quantities of hydrogen ions, which hyperstimulate chemoreceptors
d.) muscle fibers relying mostly on anaerobic metabolism produce large quantities of hydrogen ions, which hyperstimulate chemoreceptors
103
Besides the lactate threshold theory, what’s another possible explanation of ventilatory threshold?
a.) hydrogen ions accumulate from anaerobic glycolysis and hyperstimulate primary motor cortex neurons
b.) increased CO2 in the blood hyperstimulates chemoreceptors, which hyperstimulate neurons in the respiratory control center
c.) due to high intensity exercise, neurons in the primary motor cortex are hyperactive, and spill over and hyperstimulate neurons in the respiratory control center
d.) decreased oxygen within the muscle fibers results in an increased amount of inorganic phosphate, which activates neurons in the respiratory control center
c.) due to high intensity exercise, neurons in the primary motor cortex are hyperactive, and spill over and hyperstimulate neurons in the respiratory control center
104
Which of the following can produce heat within the body?
a.) evaporation
b.) vasodilation
c.) free radicals
d.) glycolysis
d.) glycolysis
105
What type of heat loss or gain involves heat being transferred to the air/water as it passes by the body?
a.) evaporation
b.) convection
c.) radiation
d.) conduction
b.) convection
106
What type of heat loss or gain involves heat being transferred to another surface (such as pavement) as it passes by the body?
a.) evaporation
b.) convection
c.) radiation
d.) conduction
d.) conduction
107
What type of environment makes heat loss through evaporation difficult to achieve?
a.) humid environments
b.) hot environments
c.) dry environments
d.) cold environments
a.) humid environments
108
What method of heat loss is generally the most important during exercise?
a.) evaporation
b.) convection
c.) radiation
d.) conduction
a.) evaporation
109
What is a hormone?
a.) chemical messenger released by one tissue that targets another tissue via the bloodstream
b.) steroid used for muscle hypertrophy
c.) chemical messenger that travels through the blood
d.) chemical messenger released by a gland
a.) chemical messenger released by one tissue that targets another tissue via the bloodstream
110
What has broad “control” over the anterior pituitary?
a.) posterior pituitary
b.) hypothalamus
c.) testosterone levels
d.) estrogen levels
b.) hypothalamus
111
Why do testosterone levels begin to fall when they rise?
a.) testosterone activates the anterior pituitary
b.) testosterone inhibits the hypothalamus
c.) testosterone inhibits the testes
d.) testosterone increases the metabolism of testosterone in the liver
b.) testosterone inhibits the hypothalamus
112
Which hormone triggers the adrenal cortex to release its hormone?
a.) cortisol
b.) TSH
c.) ACTH
d.) aldosterone
c.) ACTH
113
What is the function of glucagon?
a.) block the uptake of glucose by cells
b.) inhibit the release of insulin
c.) increase blood glucose levels
d.) decrease blood glucose levels
c.) increase blood glucose levels
114
Why do hydrophobic hormones need transport proteins to be carried in the blood?
a.) because they are too large to be carried without them
b.) because they are polar, and must be carried instead of binding to plasma
c.) because they are non-polar, and blood plasma is polar
d.) because they cannot enter cells without them
c.) because they are non-polar, and blood plasma is polar
115
Which airway includes the nose to the bronchioles moving air into and out of the lungs?
a.) conducting zone
b.) respiratory zone
a.) conducting zone
116
Which airway includes the respiratory bronchioles and alveoli and moves the respiratory gases in and out of the blood?
a.) conducting zone
b.) respiratory zone
b.) respiratory zone
117
______________ is the amount of pressure that exists in the lungs.
a.) atmospheric pressure
b.) alveolar pressure
c.) pleural pressure
d.) transpulmonary pressure
b.) alveolar pressure
118
True of False: perfusion is defined as how much blood flows to the lungs.
True
119
Which of the following is true regarding perfusion?
a.) blood flows more easily to the upper cavity
b.) there is more blood pressure in the upper cavity
c.) there is more blood pressure in the lower cavity
d.) perfusion decreases by increasing cardiac output
c.) there is more blood pressure in the lower cavity
120
____________ releases hydrogen ions into a fluid, while ____________ combines with hydrogen ions that exist in a fluid.
a.) acid; base
b.) base; acid
a.) acid; base
121
_________ is when pH is above 7.4
a.) acidosis
b.) alkalosis
c.) alkaline
b.) alkalosis
122
How does the body produce heat?
a.) when cells breakdown macronutrients
b.) hydrolysis during ATP
c.) both A and B
d.) neither A nor B
c.) both A and B
123
True or False: acclimatization is the adaptations that the body goes through to adapt to a hot environment for days to weeks
False; acclimation
124
Which of the following changes DO NOT occur as someone acclimates to a hot environment?
a.) blood plasma volume increases
b.) sweat rate decreases
c.) heart rate decreases
d.) stroke volume increases
b.) sweat rate decreases
125
True or False: adipose tissue is considered part of the endocrine system, because it secretes hormones.
True
126
_________ is a steroid hormone released by the adrenal cortex, that is considered one of the most important stress hormones.
a.) aldosterone
b.) androgen
c.) estrogen
d.) cortisol
d.) cortisol
127
____________ is a hormone released by the adrenal medulla that responds to exercise intensity by increasing Heart Rate and Blood Pressure.
a.) aldosterone
b.) cortisol
c.) epinephrine
d.) norepinephrine
c.) epinephrine
128
____________ is a hormone released from the pancreas that promotes the storage of glucose, amino acids and fats and could cause diabetes mellitus if there’s a lack of it.
a.) cortisol
b.) epinephrine
c.) insulin
d.) glucagon
c.) insulin
129
______________ is a hormone released from the pancreas that tells the liver to break down glycogen when blood sugar levels are low.
a.) cortisol
b.) epinephrine
c.) insulin
d.) glucagon
d.) glucagon
130
_____________ is a hormone released from the posterior pituitary that reduces water loss from the body to maintain blood plasma volume.
a.) LH
b.) FSH
c.) growth hormone
d.) ADH
d.) ADH
131
____________ is a hormone released from the hypothalamus that controls the release of anterior pituitary hormones into the bloodstream.
a.) gonadotrophin-releasing hormone
b.) prolactin
c.) MSH
d.) oxytocin
a.) gonadotrophin-releasing hormone
132
True or False: the alveoli can be well ventilated and exchange gases, if it is in line with blood flow.
True
133
With a large increase in blood epinephrine levels during exercise, one would expect to see a large increase in ____________ as well (driven by epinephrine).
a.) gluconeogenesis
b.) calcium calmodulin dependent kinase activity
c.) IGF-1
d.) glycogenolysis
d.) glycogenolysis
134
With months of training, which of the following would you expect to see?
a.) resting epinephrine levels decrease
b.) a reduction in GH levels during submaximal exercise
c.) epinephrine levels during maximal exercise decrease
d.) resting epinephrine levels rise
a.) resting epinephrine levels decrease
135
The breakdown of glycogen within muscle cells will still occur during exercise even if adrenergic (epeinephrine) receptors are blocked on the cells. How is this possible?
a.) increased intracellular calcium activates glycogen phosphorylase
b.) T3 can take over
c.) inorganic phosphate and ADP activate glycogen phosphorylase
d.) glucagon can take over and activate glycogen phosphorylase
a.) increased intracellular calcium activates glycogen phosphorylase
136
Why is it important that insulin concentrations decrease during exercise?
a.) promoting greater glucose uptake and storage during exercise would cause dangerously high levels of blood glucose
b.) glucagon can't rise otherwise
c.) promoting greater glucose uptake and storage during exercise would be counterproductive
d.) epinephrine can't rise otherwise
c.) promoting greater glucose uptake and storage during exercise would be counterproductive
137
When would you expect to see the lowest level of free fatty acid mobilization?
a.) low intensity exercise
b.) high intensity exercise
c.) moderate intensity exercise
b.) high intensity exercise
138
What would you expect to happen if someone overloaded a muscle eccentrically during training?
a.) a laceration
b.) a contusion
c.) a severe strain-induced muscle injury
d.) a mild strain-induced injury
d.) a mild strain-induced injury
139
In what instance would you try to eliminate all inflammation?
a.) a contusion
b.) a strain-induced injury
c.) a laceration
d.) you would never want to eliminate all inflammation
d.) you would never want to eliminate all inflammation
140
Which cell is very important for muscle regeneration?
a.) IGF-1 cell
b.) fibroblast cell
c.) satellite cell
d.) collagen cell
c.) satellite cell
141
What is NOT part of PRICE?
a.) icing the injury
b.) protecting the injury and resting
c.) compression of the injury and elevation
d.) NSAID (anti-inflammatory drug) administration
d.) NSAID (anti-inflammatory drug) administration
142
With endurance training, what anatomical changes would you expect to see in fast twitch fibers over time?
a.) a decrease in the number of capillaries around the fibers
b.) an increase in the number of slow myosin within the fibers
c.) a greater reliance on anaerobic glycolysis
d.) a decrease in mitochondrial density within the fibers
a.) a decrease in the number of capillaries around the fibers
143
At what training intensity would you expect to see the largest increase in mitochondrial oxidative capacity (citrate synthase) within Type IIx fibers?
a.) 75% VO2 Max
b.) 55% VO2 Max
c.) 45% VO2 Max
d.) training intensity is not relevant
a.) 75% VO2 Max
144
The ability to make repeated contractions against a submaximal load is called...
a.) muscular power
b.) strength training
c.) muscular endurance
d.) aerobic endurance
c.) muscular endurance
145
What type of contraction involves force being exerted at a constant speed?
a.) isokinetic contraction
b.) isometric contraction
c.) isotonic contraction
d.) isometric contraction
a.) isokinetic contraction
146
What is mostly responsible for the strength gains seen early on in a resistance training program?
a.) increased neural inhibition
b.) hyperplasia of muscle
c.) increased recruitment of motor units
d.) hypertrophy of muscle
c.) increased recruitment of motor units
147
With detraining, where do the initial losses mostly come from?
a.) a decrease in stroke volume
b.) a decrease in avo2 difference
c.) a decrease in HR
d.) a reduction in mitochondrial content
a.) a decrease in stroke volume
148
What is the following equation for HR Max * SV Max * (a-vo2) Max?
a.) maximal oxygen uptake
b.) basic oxygen consumption
c.) ejection fraction
a.) maximal oxygen uptake
149
What is believed to account for the primary difference in VO2 Max within different populations?
a.) max HR
b.) ejection fraction
c.) a-vo2 difference
d.) stroke volume
d.) stroke volume
150
How much training and at what intensity should someone do to improve VO2 Max?
a.) 60-120 mins, 2-3x per week at 50% VO2 Max
b.) 20-60 mins for 3+x per week at or above 50% VO2 Max
c.) 10-20 mins for 6x per week at or above 85% VO2 Max
b.) 20-60 mins for 3+x per week at or above 50% VO2 Max
151
With endurance training, there are typically improvements in venous return, plasma volume and ventricular volume. All of these improvements should translate into a greater...
a.) arterial smooth muscle constriction
b.) stroke volume
c.) peripheral resistance
d.) Max HR
b.) stroke volume
152
"You will get better at what you practice" is best describes which basic principle of training?
a.) principle of overload
b.) principle of specificity
c.) principle of reversibility
b.) principle of specificity
153
Long slow distance training is best to improve...
a.) ATP-PC system
b.) fast glycolysis
c.) aerobic power
c.) aerobic power
154
High-intensity, continuous exercise (aka tempo training) where the person is training for 20-40 mins at 70-85% of their VO2 Max is best to improve...
a.) ATP-PC system
b.) fast glycolysis
c.) aerobic power
c.) aerobic power
155
20-60 second high-intensity work intervals are best to improve...
a.) ATP-PC system
b.) fast glycolysis
c.) aerobic power
b.) fast glycolysis
156
Interval training of 30 seconds up to 3 minutes with a minimum work to rest ratio of 1:1 is best to improve...
a.) ATP-PC system
b.) fast glycolysis
c.) aerobic power
c.) aerobic power
157
True or False: long, slow distance training is equally effective for untrained individuals and elite athletes.
False
158
True or False: heritability accounts for around 50% of a person's VO2 Max.
True
159
A bicep curl with a dumbbell is an example of...
a.) isometric training
b.) isotonic training
c.) isokinetic training
b.) isotonic training
160
After two years of endurance training, an athlete can expect to see improvements in _____________, which will improve their VO2 Max?
a.) HR Max
b.) SV Max
c.) a-vo2 difference
c.) a-vo2 difference
161
True or False: PGC-1a is the key gene that can be improved with resistance training.
False; endurance training
162
After 30 weeks of detraining, a person can expect to see a ___________, which is primarily due to nervous system changes.
a.) 11% decrease in strength
b.) 21% decrease in strength
c.) 31% decrease in strength
d.) 41% decrease in strength
c.) 31% decrease in strength
163
True or False: longer, high-volume training can improve oxidative capacity of muscle.
True
164
Which of the following is NOT a result of detraining, related to VO2 Max?
a.) rapid loss of plasma volume
b.) decrease in mitochondria
c.) decrease in Type IIx fibers
d.) decrease in maximal a-vo2 difference
c.) decrease in Type IIx fibers
165
Which of the following is NOT a function of epinephrine when a person is exercising?
a.) increasing liver glucose metabolism
b.) advancing glucose uptake
c.) mobilizing muscle glycogen
d.) increasing FFA mobilization
b.) advancing glucose uptake
166
True or False: people who are well-trained have less levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine.
True
167
Which of the following is NOT one of the four processes of blood glucose homeostasis?
a.) blocking the entry of glucose into nonessential cells
b.) increasing the rate of glycolysis in adipose tissue
c.) mobilizing glucose from liver glycogen stores
d.) decreasing the rate of gluconeogenesis
d.) decreasing the rate of gluconeogenesis
168
True or False: insulin levels increase during exercise.
False; they decrease
169
True or False: glucagon levels increase during exercise.
True
170
True or False: Free Fatty Acid levels increase during HIGH intensity exercise?
False; they decrease because glucose is better for meeting ATP demand in high intensity exercise
171
What is the least common type of muscle injury?
a.) contusion
b.) strain-induced injury
c.) laceration
c.) laceration
172
What is the most common site for a strain-induced injury?
a.) myo-tendinous junction
b.) muscle
c.) tendon
d.) ligament
a.) myo-tendinous junction
173
The pathophysiology of a muscle injury from an ultrastructural perspective is best described as...
a.) damage to a whole muscle
b.) damage to an individual myofiber
c.) damage to an individual sarcomere
c.) damage to an individual sarcomere
174
Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation?
a.) pain
b.) warmth
c.) paleness
d.) dysfunction
c.) paleness
175
True or False: coagulation is important after a muscle injury, because it walls off the damaged area, which prevents infection and promotes healing.
True
176
True or False: scar tissue is considered regeneration.
False; it is not - because a new identical tissue is not formed
177
True or False: IGF-1 helps myoblast regenerate tissue, but also helps fibroblast synthasize collagen during repair.
True
178
When is it appropriate to use heat instead of ice?
a.) after 24 hours
b.) immediately following the injury
c.) after 48 hours
d.) after 72 hours
c.) after 48 hours
179
True or False: there is a high rate of re-injury for strain-induced injuries due to scar formation.
True
