APK6176 - Strength & Conditioning

Question 1

What is the process of obtaining Acetyl-CoA molecules from fatty acids called?

a.) beta oxidation
b.) Krebs cycle
c.) Glucose-Alanine cycle

Answer 1

a.) beta oxidation

Question 2

An Olympic 5K athlete is completing a race at an intensity equivalent to 100% of their VO2Max. Which of the following substrates is fueling this athlete during the face?

a.) carbs
b.) fat
c.) carbs and fat

Answer 2

a.) carbs

Question 3

Exercise training will NOT lead to adaptations in which bioenergetic pathway?

a.) aerobic metabolism
b.) glycolysis
c.) ATP-PCr system

Answer 3

c.) ATP-PCr system

Question 4

Pyruvate formed from glycolysis reacts with H+ to form which of the following molecules?

a.) glycogen
b.) Acetyl-CoA
c.) lactate

Answer 4

c.) lactate

Question 5

Exercise training will NOT lead to adaptations in which bioenergetic pathway?

a.) glycolysis
b.) oxidative phosphorylation
c.) phosphagen system

Answer 5

c.) phosphagen system

Question 6

During low intensity exercise, blood glucose is used to carry out glycolysis in a muscle cell more than in stored muscle glycogen. How many net ATP are re-synthesized in the sarcoplasm as a result of glycolysis when one molecule of glucose from blood glucose is used as the substrate?

a.) 2
b.) 3
c.) 4

Answer 6

a.) 2

Question 7

What is the dominant energy system in a typical resistance training energy system?

a.) ATP-PCr
b.) aerobic metabolism
c.) glycolysis

Answer 7

c.) glycolysis

Question 8

The onset of blood lactate accumulation is said to occur when blood lactate concentrations reach…

a.) 2mM
b.) 4mM
c.) 8mM

Answer 8

b.) 4mM

Question 9

Glycolysis is a 10 step process that results in either 2 or 3 net ATP. Which source of glucose results in 3 net ATP produced?

a.) blood
b.) muscle cells
c.) both can produce net 3 ATP, depending on the amount of time it takes

Answer 9

b.) muscle cells

Question 10

Which of the following types of training sessions will elicit the greatest EPOC (post-exercise oxygen consumption)?

a.) steady state low intensity aerobic training
b.) low intensity mind-body exercise
c.) high-intensity interval training

Answer 10

c.) high-intensity interval training

Question 11

Exercise-induced hypoxemia that may occur in elite endurance athletes during heavy exercise is likely due to…

a.) a right-to-left shunt
b.) overt lung disease
c.) reduced alveolar ventilation due to exercise-induced asthma
d.) a diffusion limitation secondary to a rapid red blood cell transit time

Answer 11

d.) a diffusion limitation secondary to a rapid red blood cell transit time

Question 12

Q* (a-v)O2 difference represents…

a.) Frank-Starling equation
b.) Gellish equation
c.) Fick equation

Answer 12

c.) Fick equation

Question 13

Which of the following is a primary muscle involved in the upper extremity horizontal pushing exercises?

a.) latissimus dorsi
b.) anterior deltoids
c.) sternocleidomastoid

Answer 13

b.) anterior deltoids

Question 14

Chronic high blood pressure has which of the following impacts on cardiac afterload?

a.) increases it
b.) decreases it
c.) has no effect on it

Answer 14

a.) increases it

Question 15

A strength and conditioning coach can expect the VO2Max value of an elite female endurance athlete to be…

a.) 60-70mL/kg/min
b.) 40-50mL/kg/min
c.) 80-90mL/kg/min
d.) 20-30mL/kg/min

Answer 15

a.) 60-70mL/kg/min

Question 16

What happens to resting cardiac output following chronic aerobic exercise training?

a.) it increases
b.) it decreases
c.) it remains basically the same as it was before training

Answer 16

c.) it remains basically the same as it was before training

Question 17

Co-activation of the cardiovascular and motor control centers of the brain at the onset of exercise characterizes…

a.) central command
b.) mechanoreception
c.) proprioception

Answer 17

a.) central command

Question 18

Increasing the end-diastolic volume of the left ventricle places a stretch on the cardiac muscle cells, and places the sarcomeres within these cells in a position with more overlap between their actin and myosin, thus allowing for a greater force with the subsequent left ventricle contraction. This phenomenon is known as…

a.) the Fick principle
b.) the Gellish mechanism
c.) the Frank-Starling mechanism

Answer 18

c.) the Frank-Starling mechanism

Question 19

True or False: an increase in alveolar ventilation serves to lower arterial PCO2 and increase blood pH.

Answer 19

True

Question 20

An Olympic track athlete competes in the 800m race at their highest intensity. What is the dominant substrate used in glycolysis during this race?

a.) glucose
b.) protein
c.) glycogen

Answer 20

c.) glycogen

Question 21

Which hormone is associated with presenting an athlete with a lack of autonomy in their training and practice, due to increase in stress that normally accompanies this scenario?

a.) dopamine
b.) cortisol
c.) serotonin

Answer 21

b.) cortisol

Question 22

When skeletal muscle is activated, the muscle action potential travels down which of the following?

a.) sarcomeres
b.) sarcoplasmic reticulum
c.) t-tubules

Answer 22

b.) sarcoplasmic reticulum

Question 23

True or False: the muscle fibers contained within a single motor unit tend to be clustered together in a particular region of the muscle belly.

Answer 23

False

Question 24

The site where the motor neuron and muscle meet is called the…

a.) neuromuscular junction
b.) end-plate potential
c.) sarcolemma

Answer 24

a.) neuromuscular junction

Question 25

The energy liberated during ATP hydrolysis when the phosphate bond is broken on ATP to form ADP and Pi is used for which of the following?

a.) to detach the myosin head from the actin following the powerstroke
b.) to change the position of the myosin head prior to its attachment to actin
c.) to change the position of the myosin head after its attachment to actin

Answer 25

b.) to change the position of the myosin head prior to its attachment to actin

Question 26

An action potential in a neuron occurs due to depolarization of the axon, which causes voltage gated Na+ to open. Once the cell is depolarized, K+ channels open so that this ion can leave the cell. During this time, the membrane potential decreases below resting levels in a process known as…

a.) hypopolarization
b.) saltatory conduction
c.) hyperpolarization

Answer 26

c.) hyperpolarization

Question 27

Where is calcium stored in a muscle cell when it isn’t contracting?

a.) sarcoplasmic reticulum
b.) neuromuscular junction
c.) t-tubule

Answer 27

a.) sarcoplasmic reticulum

Question 28

True or False: kinesthesia involves your sense of body position.

Answer 28

False

Question 29

Collagen filaments, titin and tendons make up what portion of the passive length-tension relationship of a muscle?

a.) series elastic component
b.) parallel elastic component
c.) hyper elastic component

Answer 29

a.) series elastic component

Question 30

An individual’s maximal heart rate is most accurately obtained via…

a.) using 208 - (0.7 * age) equation
b.) using (220-age) equation
c.) completing a graded exercise test

Answer 30

c.) completing a graded exercise test

Question 31

The condition where an athlete has no impairment of physical performance, no mental fatigue or excessive psychological distress is known as…

a.) supercompensation
b.) functional overreaching
c.) readiness

Answer 31

c.) readiness

Question 32

The process whereby repeated mechanical stress imparted to the musculoskeletal system stimulates chemical reactions resulting in the expression of specific neuromuscular characteristics is known as…

a.) mechano-physical transduction
b.) mechano-chemical transduction
c.) mechano-biological transduction

Answer 32

b.) mechano-chemical transduction

Question 33

Completing a training session involves loads that cause aspects of muscle physiology to deviate from homeostasis results in a transient reduction in performance, followed by which of the following conditions if the body is allowed to adapt?

a.) involution
b.) overreaching
c.) supercompensation

Answer 33

c.) supercompensation

Question 34

The eccentric phase of a resistance training exercise is often referred to as “negative”, because which of the following variables would return a negative value if calculated during this phase?

a.) work
b.) force
c.) energy

Answer 34

a.) work

Question 35

True or False: the time course of the responses to training load and competition stress can vary from minutes to days post-stimulus.

Answer 35

True

Question 36

The area under the force-time curve represents which of the following?

a.) momentum
b.) power
c.) impulse

Answer 36

c.) impulse

Question 37

True or False: if the jump height measured during a countermovement jump test does not differ from a baseline value when measured following a training session, we can be certain that neuromuscular fatigue has not occurred.

Answer 37

False

Question 38

Which of the following statistics will tell the strnegth and conditioning coach about the reliability of a particular measurement?

a.) coefficient of variation
b.) minimal difference
c.) correlation coefficient

Answer 38

a.) coefficient of variation

Question 39

Which portion of a sarcomere maintains its length during a muscle contraction?

a.) H-band
b.) I-band
c.) A-band

Answer 39

c.) A-band

Question 40

Heart rate measured just prior to the start of exercise is known as…

a.) pre-exercise HR
b.) resting HR
c.) baseline HR
d.) basal HR

Answer 40

a.) pre-exercise HR

Question 41

Which of the following is a primary endocrine gland?

a.) adipose cells
b.) muscle cells
c.) adrenal medulla

Answer 41

c.) adrenal medulla

Question 42

Physiologic key performance indicators such as power output, distance covered, speed and acceleration, and weight lifted are used to identify which of the following?

a.) external training load
b.) internal training load
c.) performance objectives

Answer 42

a.) external training load

Question 43

Steroid hormones exert their effect by…

a.) activating adenylate cyclase
b.) blocking the effect of cyclic AMP
c.) causing an inflammatory response
d.) altering the activity of DNA

Answer 43

d.) altering the activity of DNA

Question 44

True or False: the rise in growth hormone that accompanies moderate intensity resistance exercise plays a significant role in hypertrophy response to that exercise.

Answer 44

False

Question 45

Physiologic key performance indicators such as heart rate, blood lactate, perception of effort and salivary biomarkers are used to identify which of the following?

a.) internal training loads
b.) performance outcomes
c.) external training loads

Answer 45

a.) internal training loads

Question 46

The people that make up a sports organization’s interdisciplinary team (IDT) should be held together with a set of values and behaviors that align to a common vision and are upheld by all who enter the work environment. This is referred to as…

a.) high performance unit
b.) shared mental model
c.) competence

Answer 46

b.) shared mental model

Question 47

The citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle) yields most of which of the following substances?

a.) NADH
b.) FADH2
c.) ATP

Answer 47

a.) NADH

Question 48

Which member of a sports organization’s high performance unit is responsible for establishing the technical and tactical vision forming the basis of how athletes will play the game?

a.) sport psychologist
b.) strength and conditioning professional
c.) athletic trainer
d.) sport coach

Answer 48

d.) sport coach

Question 49

Which of the following energy systems yields the most ATP when carbs are used as the substrate?

a.) alactic (slow) glycolysis
b.) lactic (fast) glycolysis
c.) oxidative phosphorylation

Answer 49

c.) oxidative phosphorylation

Question 50

Which substrate yields the highest kcal per liter of O2 consumed?

a.) carb
b.) fat

Answer 50

a.) carb

Question 51

What is the most accurate measure of cardiorespiratory fitness?

a.) resting heart rate
b.) lactate threshold
c.) VO2Max

Answer 51

c.) VO2Max

Question 52

The respiratory control center is located in the…

a.) cerebrum
b.) cerebellum
c.) medulla oblongata
d.) carotid bodies

Answer 52

c.) medulla oblongata

Question 53

____________ is the amount of air inspired and expired at rest.

a.) residual volume
b.) total lung capacity
c.) tidal volume
d.) vital capacity

Answer 53

c.) tidal volume

Question 54

Which aspect of VO2Max is considered the limiting factor of performance in endurance athletes?

a.) variables contributing to the demand side of oxygen during exercise
b.) variables contributing to the supply side of oxygen during exercise
c.) neither of these

Answer 54

b.) variables contributing to the supply side of oxygen during exercise

Question 55

What category of muscle action has an inverse relationship between muscle force and muscle contraction velocity?

a.) eccentric
b.) isometric
c.) concentric

Answer 55

c.) concentric

Question 56

The majority of neurons within the nervous system belong to which category?

a.) efferent neurons
b.) afferent neurons
c.) interneurons

Answer 56

c.) interneurons

Question 57

True or False: a direct relationship exists between eccentric contraction force and eccentric contraction velocity; when muscle force production is high, contraction velocity is high.

Answer 57

True

Question 58

True or False: making learners struggle to achieve a goal or perform a task during a practice session forces them to concentrate harder and leads to more effective motor learning.

Answer 58

False

Question 59

Which of the following areas of a sarcomere will decrease in size during a concentric skeletal muscle contraction?

a.) M-line
b.) I-band
c.) A-band

Answer 59

b.) I-band

Question 60

Which of the following statistics will tell a strength and conditioning coach about the reliability of a particular measurement?

a.) minimal difference
b.) coefficient of variation
c.) correlation coefficient

Answer 60

b.) coefficient of variation

Question 61

Velocity is…

a.) displacement/time
b.) velocity/time
c.) force * time
d.) mass * velocity

Answer 61

a.) displacement/time

Question 62

Acceleration is…

a.) displacement/time
b.) velocity/time
c.) force * time
d.) mass * velocity

Answer 62

b.) velocity/time

Question 63

Impulse is…

a.) displacement/time
b.) velocity/time
c.) force * time
d.) mass * velocity

Answer 63

c.) force * time

Question 64

Momentum is…

a.) displacement/time
b.) velocity/time
c.) force * time
d.) mass * velocity

Answer 64

d.) mass * velocity

Question 65

The stretch shortening cycle is the coupling of eccentric and concentric muscle actions to produce more overall force in plyometrics, agility and speed drills. The most important phase is the amortization phase, because it allows afferent signals in and efferent signals out. It should be…

a.) long
b.) short
c.) doesn’t matter, as long as concentric phase follows

Answer 65

b.) short

Question 66

Which of the following questions best corresponds with the determination of KPIs in a sport?

a.) “What set structure should be used in resistance training programs?”
b.) “What does it take to win the event?”
c.) “What does the strength coach need to measure?”

Answer 66

c.) “What does the strength coach need to measure?”

Question 67

What is the best way to induce the production of erythropoietin?

a.) HIIT
b.) resistance training
c.) aerobically train at high altitudes above 3000m for a week

Answer 67

c.) aerobically train at high altitudes above 3000m for a week

Question 68

A strength coach identifying the optimal pacing strategy for a marathon athlete to use during an upcoming race is seeking…

a.) physiological demand info
b.) tactical requirement info
c.) psychological skill info
d.) technical requirement info

Answer 68

b.) tactical requirement info

Question 69

True or False: the rise in Growth Hormone that accompanies moderate intensity resistance exercise plays a significant role in the hypertrophy response to that exercise.

Answer 69

False

Question 70

If peptide hormones activate G-proteins that then activate other enzymes in a series of biochemical pathways, how do steroid hormones work?

a.) they bind directly to proteins inside of a cell to change their shape and function
b.) they bind to receptors inside the cell or on the nucleus to initiate the transcription of a particular gene
c.) they bind to receptors on the cell surface to activate H-proteins

Answer 70

b.) they bind to receptors inside the cell or on the nucleus to initiate the transcription of a particular gene

Question 71

Which of the following is true regarding the mechanisms of action for neurotransmitters (nervous system) and hormones (endocrine system)?

a.) neurotransmitters can impact the neighboring nerve cell, whereas hormones cannot impact a neighboring cell from the one that secreted it
b.) neurotransmitters elicit change in membrane potential, whereas hormones elicit biochemical pathways to initiate it
c.) neurotransmitters bind to receptors on the surface of a cell, whereas hormones are not capable of doing that

Answer 71

b.) neurotransmitters elicit change in membrane potential, whereas hormones elicit biochemical pathways to initiate it

Question 72

Steroid hormones are derived from…

a.) cholesterol
b.) amino acid
c.) triglyceride

Answer 72

a.) cholesterol

Question 73

True or False: compiling normative data for an assessment, such as the 40yard dash, from studies that used different methods (radar gun, timing light, etc.) is acceptable when generating performance norms for benchmarking purposes.

Answer 73

False

Question 74

Conducting a vertical jump test where the measurements taken involve trunk and lower extremity movements during the landing phase, rather than the jump height, would make this test fall under…

a.) specific movement screen
b.) agility
c.) maximal anaerobic power

Answer 74

a.) specific movement screen

Question 75

Of the four metabolic factors of fatigue, three are associated with…

a.) hydrogen ions
b.) reduction of available ATP
c.) phosphates inhibiting crossbridge cycling
d.) calcium impedence

Answer 75

a.) hydrogen ions

Question 76

Which of the following is a test of local muscular endurance included in the NFL combine battery of tests?

a.) 225lbs bench press test
b.) 40yd dash
c.) vertical jump

Answer 76

a.) 225lbs bench press test

Question 77

____________ is when an athlete screens positive for injury risk and was injured.

a.) true positive
b.) false positive
c.) true negative
d.) false negative

Answer 77

a.) true positive

Question 78

____________ is when an athlete screens positive for injury risk, but was not injured.

a.) true positive
b.) false positive
c.) true negative
d.) false negative

Answer 78

b.) false positive

Question 79

____________ is when an athlete screens negative for injury risk, and was not injured.

a.) true positive
b.) false positive
c.) true negative
d.) false negative

Answer 79

c.) true negative

Question 80

____________ is when an athlete screens negative for injury risk, but was injured.

a.) true positive
b.) false positive
c.) true negative
d.) false negative

Answer 80

d.) false negative

Question 81

What test can provide data on an athlete’s lower extremity rate of force development?

a.) isometric mid thigh pull
b.) multi RM squat test
c.) 1RM deadlift test

Answer 81

a.) isometric mid thigh pull

Question 82

Velocity based training is a form of…

a.) cluster training
b.) contrast training
c.) autoregulation

Answer 82

c.) autoregulation

Question 83

__________ is a primary muscle involved in posterior chain knee flexion exercises?

a.) biceps femoris
b.) rectus femoris
c.) quadratus femoris

Answer 83

a.) biceps femoris

Question 84

True or False: overtraining describes a decrease in performance that lasts dats to weeks, while overreaching describes a decrease in performance that lasts weeks to months.

Answer 84

False

Question 85

Which phase of a block periodization model is characterized by an increase in sport-specific training such as speed, power and conditioning at a high intensity?

a.) realization
b.) transmutation
c.) accumulation

Answer 85

b.) transmutation

Question 86

The amount of work completed in a single training session is known as…

a.) training density
b.) training intensity
c.) training frequency

Answer 86

a.) training density

Question 87

The tempo prescription for the bench press is 3:0:1. How long will the athlete spend in the eccentric phase of each rep?

a.) 3 seconds
b.) 0 seconds
c.) 1 second

Answer 87

a.) 3 seconds

Question 88

True or False: high heart rate variability is an indicator of athlete readiness.

Answer 88

True

Question 89

The world record for the men’s 100m freestyle event in swimming is 46.91 secs. What is the dominant energy system used?

a.) glycolysis
b.) phosphagen
c.) oxidative phosphorylation

Answer 89

a.) glycolysis

Question 90

Which type of muscle fiber in the ATP-PCr energy system is most prevalent?

a.) Type I slow twitch
b.) Type II fast twitch
c.) ATP-PCr system is equally prevalent in both types

Answer 90

b.) Type II fast twitch

Question 91

Where does glycolysis occur in a muscle cell?

a.) sarcoplasm
b.) mitochondria
c.) nucleus

Answer 91

a.) sarcoplasm

Question 92

The process whereby the body metabolizes food substrates or stored fuel to produce ATP is known as…

a.) Cori cycle
b.) Krebs cycle
c.) bioenergetics

Answer 92

c.) bioenergetics

Question 93

Stroke volume during exercise will increase more when the athlete is in which of the following positions?

a.) supine
b.) prone
c.) standing

Answer 93

c.) standing

Question 94

The ventilatory threshold is characterized by a ratio of…

a.) VCO2:VO2
b.) VE:VO2
c.) VO2:VCO2

Answer 94

b.) VE:VO2

Question 95

Skeletal muscle fibers that contain large numbers of mitochondria and myoglobin could be classified as…

a.) type I fibers
b.) type IIB fibers
c.) Type IIX fibers

Answer 95

a.) type I fibers

Question 96

What substance speeds up the transmission of an AP down an axon?

a.) acetylcholine
b.) titin
c.) calcium
d.) myelin

Answer 96

d.) myelin

Question 97

A neuron’s cell membrane is more permeable to ______ than the other, allowing more positive charges to leave the neuron at rest or repolarization, so that a negative resting membrane potential can be established?

a.) K+
b.) Na+

Answer 97

a.) K+

Question 98

Which portion of the deep fascia that surrounds the various levels of a muscle is the least dense, in order to allow blood vessels and nerves to penetrate, so that they can interact with the muscle fibers directly?

a.) epimysium
b.) perimysium
c.) endomysium

Answer 98

c.) endomysium

Question 99

You have decided to incorporate 3 new sprint running drills into today’s speed training session with your athlete. Which of the following will optimize the athlete’s ability to learn how to successfully complete the drill?

a.) allow the athlete to choose the order of the drills
b.) only provide verbal feedback when movement errors are identified during the drills
c.) have the athlete complete the drills in a pre-determined order you feel is best

Answer 99

a.) allow the athlete to choose the order of the drills

Question 100

Which of the following qualities would be beneficial to an athlete during the eccentric phase of a stretch shortening cycle activity?

a.) low magnitude of muscle stretch
b.) high velocity muscle stretch
c.) higher compliance (less stiffness) of muscle stretch

Answer 100

b.) high velocity muscle stretch

Question 101

True or False: mental fatigue seemingly has greater potential to limit endurance performance, as opposed to anaerobic performance based on available evidence.

Answer 101

True

Question 102

What is the end position of the concentric phase of a pull up?

a.) chin above the bar
b.) elbows extended
c.) chin at bar level

Answer 102

a.) chin above the bar

Question 103

The area under the force-time curve represents…

a.) power
b.) impulse
c.) momentum

Answer 103

b.) impulse

Question 104

While hormones circulate to all tissues, some affect only a few tissues. This is due to…

a.) type of receptor at the tissue
b.) concentration of the hormone
c.) plasma concentration of the hormone
d.) training state of the subject

Answer 104

a.) type of receptor at the tissue

Question 105

Which of the following is an individual with hyperthyroid more susceptible to during exercise?

a.) decreased cardiovascular function
b.) low VO2
c.) heat stroke

Answer 105

c.) heat stroke

Question 106

A strength and conditioning coach is most likely to utilize…

a.) skill-based KPIs
b.) psychologically based KPIs
c.) physiologically based KPIs
d.) tactical based KPIs

Answer 106

c.) physiologically based KPIs

Question 107

Which of the following KPIs will have the least validity and reliability?

a.) barbell velocity during an olympic snatch exercise
b.) knee flexion angles during cutting tasks in a lab setting without opponents
c.) ground force reactions when landing from a simulated volleyball serve onto a force plate

Answer 107

b.) knee flexion angles during cutting tasks in a lab setting without opponents

Question 108

_____________ is identifying normative data values for physical characteristics necessary for success in a sport that can be used as comparison values for individual athletes.

a.) profiling
b.) long term athletic development
c.) benchmarking

Answer 108

c.) benchmarking

Question 109

Performing a test on an isokinetic dynamometer to measure knee flexion and extension peak torques would have which of the following characteristics?

a.) low construct validity, low face validity
b.) low construct validity, high face validity
c.) high construct validity, low face validity
d.) high construct validity, high face validity

Answer 109

c.) high construct validity, low face validity

Question 110

The reciprocal of the sit and reach test is…

a.) Thomas test
b.) deep squat test of the FMS
c.) toe touch test

Answer 110

a.) Thomas test

Question 111

Predictive and concurrent validity are different types of…

a.) criterion validity
b.) performance validity
c.) face validity

Answer 111

a.) criterion validity

Question 112

What is the optimal rep volume when the intensity of a resistance exercise is 90% 1RM or higher?

a.) 4 reps
b.) 8 reps
c.) 12 reps
d.) 15 reps

Answer 112

a.) 4 reps

Question 113

True or False: injured athletes should not complete any strength and conditioning training sessions until they have fully recovered from their injury.

Answer 113

False

Question 114

What is an appropriate progression from the supine double leg stability ball leg curl exercise?

a.) supine single leg straight-leg bridge
b.) supine double leg straight-leg bridge
c.) supine double leg bent-leg bridge

Answer 114

a.) supine single leg straight-leg bridge

Question 115

If you are training for maximal strength, speed strength and strength endurance concurrently, you are following which periodization model?

a.) conjugate
b.) block
c.) linear

Answer 115

a.) conjugate

Question 116

The body will adapt to the demands placed on it, no more, no less. This is referred to as…

a.) FITT principle
b.) HITT principle
c.) SAID principle

Answer 116

c.) SAID principle

Question 117

True or False: reduction of training-related injury is the strength and conditioning professional’s primary objective.

Answer 117

True

Question 118

Which of the following is TRUE regarding tempo training?

a.) intensity should be 70% VO2max or lower
b.) session duration should be 45-60 mins
c.) frequency should be 4-5x per week
d.) benefits include improving lactate threshold

Answer 118

d.) benefits include improving lactate threshold

Question 119

Which ground-based explosive lift should involve 2 spotters?

a.) clean
b.) snatch
c.) jerk
d.) none

Answer 119

c.) jerk

Question 120

Long interval is…

a.) 75 sec work: 90 sec rest
b.) 30 sec work: 2 mins rest
c.) 45 secs work: 45 secs rest
d.) 5 secs work: 15 secs rest

Answer 120

a.) 75 sec work: 90 sec rest

Question 121

Short interval is…

a.) 75 sec work: 90 sec rest
b.) 30 sec work: 2 mins rest
c.) 45 secs work: 45 secs rest
d.) 5 secs work: 15 secs rest

Answer 121

c.) 45 secs work: 45 secs rest

Question 122

Repeated Sprint Training is…

a.) 75 sec work: 90 sec rest
b.) 30 sec work: 2 mins rest
c.) 45 secs work: 45 secs rest
d.) 5 secs work: 15 secs rest

Answer 122

d.) 5 secs work: 15 secs rest

Question 123

Sprint Interval Training is…

a.) 75 sec work: 90 sec rest
b.) 30 sec work: 2 mins rest
c.) 45 secs work: 45 secs rest
d.) 5 secs work: 15 secs rest

Answer 123

b.) 30 sec work: 2 mins rest

Question 124

Which of the following is recommended as the first drill to perform in a progression of drills when training starting speed?

a.) falling starts
b.) push-up starts
c.) 3-point stance start
d.) ground start

Answer 124

a.) falling starts

Question 125

Which of the following is TRUE regarding speed endurance training?

a.) beneficial in improving athlete’s ability to perform multiple bouts of near max speed over a period of time
b.) duration of drills should be <6 secs
c.) speed endurance training should occur early in the off-season
d.) length of drills should be 30-60 meters

Answer 125

a.) beneficial in improving athlete’s ability to perform multiple bouts of near max speed over a period of time

Question 126

Why will power output fall over the course of 10 reps of 6-second running sprints if the rest interval is only 30 secs?

a.) insufficient removal of lactate between sprints
b.) insufficient resynthesis of PCr between sprints
c.) insufficient buffering of electrons between sprints

Answer 126

b.) insufficient resynthesis of PCr between sprints

Question 127

A sequential training model is best suited for…

a.) performing arts athletes
b.) team sport athletes with short prep periods
c.) individual sport athletes

Answer 127

c.) individual sport athletes

Question 128

Fundamental differences between the acceleration phase and max velocity phase of sprinting include the following EXCEPT…

a.) arm action during max velocity phase is greater than during acceleration phase
b.) torso is upright during max velocity phase vs. 45 degree lean during acceleration phase
c.) foot contacts ground below center of gravity in max velocity phase vs. behind athlete in acceleration phase

Answer 128

a.) arm action during max velocity phase is greater than during acceleration phase

Question 129

You have measured your athlete’s 30yd dash time to be 4 secs. You want him to run repeated 30yd sprints at 90% of maximal efforts. What time will you prescribe to complete each sprint rep?

a.) 4.4 secs
b.) 4 secs
c.) 3.6 secs

Answer 129

a.) 4.4 secs

Question 130

A shock microcycle is recommended for inclusion in which period, due to its intended purpose of generating adaptation through sudden increases in training volume and intensity?

a.) transition
b.) preparatory
c.) competition

Answer 130

b.) preparatory

Question 131

Which of the following exercises is most appropriate to use when the training goal is to increase the stride frequency during sprinting?

a.) olympic weightlifting
b.) resisted sprint drills
c.) assisted sprint drills

Answer 131

c.) assisted sprint drills

Question 132

During a sprint, what force is actually propelling the sprinter across the ground?

a.) ground reaction force
b.) inertial force
c.) applied force into the ground

Answer 132

a.) ground reaction force

Question 133

Good sprint running technique involves fully extending the hips posteriorly as a component to each running stride. Due to active insufficiency, what position will the knee be in during this motion to ensure that the hip can extend as far as possible?

a.) externally rotated
b.) extended
c.) flexed

Answer 133

b.) extended

Question 134

True or False: kinesio taping promotes normal movement, even in the acute phases of an injury.

Answer 134

True

Question 135

A slow stretch is…

a.) gently moving the limb into a stretch direction the entire length of the stretch
b.) gently moving the limb into a point of discomfort and maintaining this position the entire length of the stretch
c.) incorporating contraction and relaxation of involved muscles to produce greater ROM increases

Answer 135

a.) gently moving the limb into a stretch direction the entire length of the stretch

Question 136

A static stretch is…

a.) gently moving the limb into a stretch direction the entire length of the stretch
b.) gently moving the limb into a point of discomfort and maintaining this position the entire length of the stretch
c.) incorporating contraction and relaxation of involved muscles to produce greater ROM increases

Answer 136

b.) gently moving the limb into a point of discomfort and maintaining this position the entire length of the stretch

Question 137

A PNF stretch is…

a.) gently moving the limb into a stretch direction the entire length of the stretch
b.) gently moving the limb into a point of discomfort and maintaining this position the entire length of the stretch
c.) incorporating contraction and relaxation of involved muscles to produce greater ROM increases

Answer 137

c.) incorporating contraction and relaxation of involved muscles to produce greater ROM increases

Question 138

How often should athletes seek to identify hot spots in their tissues?

a.) 5x per week
b.) daily
c.) 3x per week

Answer 138

b.) daily

Question 139

Which mobilization technique forces blood and lymph out of the affected tissue and allows for fresh blood and lymph to flow back into the tissue to enhance the healing process?

a.) contract-relax
b.) PNF stretching
c.) distraction

Answer 139

a.) contract-relax

Question 140

What is the most appropriate next profession for the double leg hurdle hop with a catch?

a.) continuous double leg hurdle hop
b.) depth jump
c.) double leg hurdle hop with a bounce

Answer 140

c.) double leg hurdle hop with a bounce

Question 141

Which of the following is true regarding the correct technique for the Yoga Push Up dynamic warm up exercise?

a.) hips should sag at the top of the push up position
b.) knees should remain extended
c.) elbows should flair out past 45 degrees

Answer 141

b.) knees should remain extended

Question 142

Energy availability is a new way of addressing energy balance in athletes. What values in the equation make it unique from the simple energy balance equation (energy intake - total energy expenditure)?

a.) basal metabolic rate and fat mass
b.) thermic effect of food and fat free mass
c.) energy cost of exercise and fat free mass

Answer 142

c.) energy cost of exercise and fat free mass

Question 143

Which essential amino acid has the greatest positive effect on muscle protein synthesis?

a.) leucine
b.) valine
c.) isoleucine

Answer 143

a.) leucine

Question 144

A typical set of 12-15 reps of resistance training lasts 30-45 secs. Given this information, which of the following supplements may be most beneficial to an athlete who regularly resistance trains with this rep range?

a.) creatine
b.) L-carnitine
c.) beta alanine

Answer 144

c.) beta alanine

Question 145

The use of honey as a pre-exercise source of carb is not recommended due to the high concentration of…

a.) fructose
b.) galactose
c.) glucose

Answer 145

a.) fructose

Question 146

Why won’t 30g of plant-based protein have the same effect on muscle protein synthesis as 30g of animal-based protein?

a.) most plant-based proteins are digested and absorbed more slowly than animal-based protein
b.) plant-based proteins are more readily converted to urea once absorbed
c.) plant-based protein contains less essential amino acids
d.) all of these

Answer 146

d.) all of these

Question 147

Which member of the sports management teams spends the most time with athletes on a day-to-day basis and serves as the point of communication to other members of the team regarding the health of the athlete?

a.) sports psychologist
b.) team physician
c.) athletic trainer
d.) sport dietitian

Answer 147

c.) athletic trainer

Question 148

An athlete with a BMI of 31 appears intoxicated and has a history of heat exhaustion symptoms. Which heat illness do you suspect?

a.) exertional heat stroke
b.) heat syncope
c.) exertional heat exhaustion

Answer 148

a.) exertional heat stroke

Question 149

Which of the following is true regarding correct technique for the walking lunges dynamic warm up exercise?

a.) keep weight on the whole foot
b.) flex the trunk
c.) allow the knee to move into a valgus position

Answer 149

a.) keep weight on the whole foot

Question 150

Muscle strains commonly affect which area of a muscle?

a.) the region where the tendon attaches to the bone
b.) the region adjacent to the musculotendinous junction
c.) the middle of the muscle belly

Answer 150

b.) the region adjacent to the musculotendinous junction

Question 151

Which of the following statements describes the evidence regarding the effect of anti-inflammatory medication on the healing process in musculoskeletal injuries?

a.) their use delays muscle repair
b.) their use stimulates muscle repair
c.) their use has no effect on muscle repair

Answer 151

a.) their use delays muscle repair

Question 152

Which member of the sports management team is best suited to conduct lab-based tests regarding the forces incurred by the athlete during lifting, jumping or sprinting tasks?

a.) athletic trainer
b.) biomechanist
c.) sport dietitian
d.) strength and conditioning coach

Answer 152

b.) biomechanist

Question 153

What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in older male athletes?

a.) coronary artery disease
b.) myocarditis
c.) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Answer 153

a.) coronary artery disease

Question 154

True or False: the flow state can be quantified.

Answer 154

True

Question 155

In what aspect of motor performance does mental fatigue show up first?

a.) endurance performance
b.) accuracy
c.) reaction time

Answer 155

c.) reaction time

Question 156

The strnegth coach who establishes a rewards system whereby any athlete who improves their 30-15 intermittent fitness test from one session to the next is exempt from the next closest conditioning system is using…

a.) external regulation motivation
b.) integrated regulation motivation
c.) identified regulation motivation

Answer 156

a.) external regulation motivation

Question 157

When a strength coach engages with athletes about non-sport topics, they are practicing…

a.) autonomy support
b.) structure
c.) involvement

Answer 157

c.) involvement

Question 158

What basic psychological needs is met when an athlete feels their role is important and that they are a meaningful contributor to the team?

a.) relatedness
b.) autonomy
c.) competency

Answer 158

a.) relatedness

Question 159

What mental skill is involved in the athlete processing information from areas such as demonstration of ability, coach leadership, physical and mental preparation, and social support?

a.) self-confidence
b.) focus
c.) motivation

Answer 159

a.) self-confidence

Question 160

What strategy would help Bob avoid heat acclimatization decay?

a.) complete one conditioning session in the heat every 5 days
b.) train indoors in a climate controlled environment 3 days a week
c.) complete no training sessions, so his body can supercompensate to the HA

Answer 160

a.) complete one conditioning session in the heat every 5 days

Question 161

On what day of heat acclimatization protocol should protective pads and helmets be introduced during practices?

a.) 1
b.) 6
c.) 10

Answer 161

b.) 6

Question 162

True or False: most heat dissipation is achieved via radiation.

Answer 162

False

Question 163

At what outside temperatures should a warm up be performed indoors as a safety precaution?

a.) <30 F
b.) 30-60 F
c.) >60 F

Answer 163

a.) <30 F

Question 164

Joe only has 4 days to attempt heat acclimatization. Which of the following is NOT likely to occur in the limited time he has to prepare?

a.) decreased exercise heart rate
b.) increased plasma volume
c.) decreased concentration of electrolytes in his sweat

Answer 164

c.) decreased concentration of electrolytes in his sweat

Question 165

An elevation in internal body temperature due to the body’s inability to thermoregulate efficiently is formally defined as…

a.) heat exhaustion
b.) heat illness
c.) uncompensable heat stress

Answer 165

c.) uncompensable heat stress

Question 166

Which of the following is true regarding the appropriate frequency of heat exposure while exercising to elicit optimal heat acclimatization responses?

a.) program a recovery day following intense HA training
b.) complete 2 HA sessions in a single day
c.) complete 1 HA session every 5 days

Answer 166

a.) program a recovery day following intense HA training

Question 167

Current evidence suggests that the internal body temperature should rise to _____ in order to induce heat acclimatization responses?

a.) 38.5 C
b.) 39.5 C
c.) 37.5 C

Answer 167

a.) 38.5 C

Question 168

At what stage of the construction of a new strength and conditioning facility will architectural blueprints be created?

a.) 5 - design development
b.) 3 - programming
c.) 4 - schematic design
d.) 2- pre-planning

Answer 168

a.) 5 - design development

Question 169

How many square feet should be allotted for each Olympic weightlifting platform in a weight room?

a.) 36 ft
b.) 49 ft
c.) 64 ft
d.) 81 ft

Answer 169

c.) 64 ft

Question 170

Cold water immersion is a recovery modality best suited to improve…

a.) symptoms related to DOMS following a training session
b.) joint mobility following a training session
c.) HR recovery following a training session

Answer 170

a.) symptoms related to DOMS following a training session

Question 171

True or False: electrical muscle stimulation has been shown to have positive perceptual benefits in performance recovery.

Answer 171

True

Question 172

How high off the ground should windows and mirrors be placed in a strength and conditioning facility?

a.) 12”
b.) 18”
c.) 20”
d.) 24”

Answer 172

c.) 20”

Question 173

True or False: seeking a variety of candidates from different ethnicities, races and genders is sufficient to produce a diverse pool of candidates.

Answer 173

False

Question 174

Distances between equipment and walkways within the strength and conditioning facility should be…

a.) 1 ft
b.) 3 ft
c.) 6 ft
d.) 9 ft

Answer 174

b.) 3 ft

Question 175

The strength coach who decides to refurbish an old weightlifting platform is conducting what kind of maintenance?

a.) preventative
b.) cyclical
c.) unforeseen

Answer 175

b.) cyclical