APK6176 - Strength & Conditioning Flashcards
What is the process of obtaining Acetyl-CoA molecules from fatty acids called?
a.) beta oxidation
b.) Krebs cycle
c.) Glucose-Alanine cycle
a.) beta oxidation
An Olympic 5K athlete is completing a race at an intensity equivalent to 100% of their VO2Max. Which of the following substrates is fueling this athlete during the face?
a.) carbs
b.) fat
c.) carbs and fat
a.) carbs
Exercise training will NOT lead to adaptations in which bioenergetic pathway?
a.) aerobic metabolism
b.) glycolysis
c.) ATP-PCr system
c.) ATP-PCr system
Pyruvate formed from glycolysis reacts with H+ to form which of the following molecules?
a.) glycogen
b.) Acetyl-CoA
c.) lactate
c.) lactate
Exercise training will NOT lead to adaptations in which bioenergetic pathway?
a.) glycolysis
b.) oxidative phosphorylation
c.) phosphagen system
c.) phosphagen system
During low intensity exercise, blood glucose is used to carry out glycolysis in a muscle cell more than in stored muscle glycogen. How many net ATP are re-synthesized in the sarcoplasm as a result of glycolysis when one molecule of glucose from blood glucose is used as the substrate?
a.) 2
b.) 3
c.) 4
a.) 2
What is the dominant energy system in a typical resistance training energy system?
a.) ATP-PCr
b.) aerobic metabolism
c.) glycolysis
c.) glycolysis
The onset of blood lactate accumulation is said to occur when blood lactate concentrations reach…
a.) 2mM
b.) 4mM
c.) 8mM
b.) 4mM
Glycolysis is a 10 step process that results in either 2 or 3 net ATP. Which source of glucose results in 3 net ATP produced?
a.) blood
b.) muscle cells
c.) both can produce net 3 ATP, depending on the amount of time it takes
b.) muscle cells
Which of the following types of training sessions will elicit the greatest EPOC (post-exercise oxygen consumption)?
a.) steady state low intensity aerobic training
b.) low intensity mind-body exercise
c.) high-intensity interval training
c.) high-intensity interval training
Exercise-induced hypoxemia that may occur in elite endurance athletes during heavy exercise is likely due to…
a.) a right-to-left shunt
b.) overt lung disease
c.) reduced alveolar ventilation due to exercise-induced asthma
d.) a diffusion limitation secondary to a rapid red blood cell transit time
d.) a diffusion limitation secondary to a rapid red blood cell transit time
Q* (a-v)O2 difference represents…
a.) Frank-Starling equation
b.) Gellish equation
c.) Fick equation
c.) Fick equation
Which of the following is a primary muscle involved in the upper extremity horizontal pushing exercises?
a.) latissimus dorsi
b.) anterior deltoids
c.) sternocleidomastoid
b.) anterior deltoids
Chronic high blood pressure has which of the following impacts on cardiac afterload?
a.) increases it
b.) decreases it
c.) has no effect on it
a.) increases it
A strength and conditioning coach can expect the VO2Max value of an elite female endurance athlete to be…
a.) 60-70mL/kg/min
b.) 40-50mL/kg/min
c.) 80-90mL/kg/min
d.) 20-30mL/kg/min
a.) 60-70mL/kg/min
What happens to resting cardiac output following chronic aerobic exercise training?
a.) it increases
b.) it decreases
c.) it remains basically the same as it was before training
c.) it remains basically the same as it was before training
Co-activation of the cardiovascular and motor control centers of the brain at the onset of exercise characterizes…
a.) central command
b.) mechanoreception
c.) proprioception
a.) central command
Increasing the end-diastolic volume of the left ventricle places a stretch on the cardiac muscle cells, and places the sarcomeres within these cells in a position with more overlap between their actin and myosin, thus allowing for a greater force with the subsequent left ventricle contraction. This phenomenon is known as…
a.) the Fick principle
b.) the Gellish mechanism
c.) the Frank-Starling mechanism
c.) the Frank-Starling mechanism
True or False: an increase in alveolar ventilation serves to lower arterial PCO2 and increase blood pH.
True
An Olympic track athlete competes in the 800m race at their highest intensity. What is the dominant substrate used in glycolysis during this race?
a.) glucose
b.) protein
c.) glycogen
c.) glycogen
Which hormone is associated with presenting an athlete with a lack of autonomy in their training and practice, due to increase in stress that normally accompanies this scenario?
a.) dopamine
b.) cortisol
c.) serotonin
b.) cortisol
When skeletal muscle is activated, the muscle action potential travels down which of the following?
a.) sarcomeres
b.) sarcoplasmic reticulum
c.) t-tubules
b.) sarcoplasmic reticulum
True or False: the muscle fibers contained within a single motor unit tend to be clustered together in a particular region of the muscle belly.
False
The site where the motor neuron and muscle meet is called the…
a.) neuromuscular junction
b.) end-plate potential
c.) sarcolemma
a.) neuromuscular junction
The energy liberated during ATP hydrolysis when the phosphate bond is broken on ATP to form ADP and Pi is used for which of the following?
a.) to detach the myosin head from the actin following the powerstroke
b.) to change the position of the myosin head prior to its attachment to actin
c.) to change the position of the myosin head after its attachment to actin
b.) to change the position of the myosin head prior to its attachment to actin
An action potential in a neuron occurs due to depolarization of the axon, which causes voltage gated Na+ to open. Once the cell is depolarized, K+ channels open so that this ion can leave the cell. During this time, the membrane potential decreases below resting levels in a process known as…
a.) hypopolarization
b.) saltatory conduction
c.) hyperpolarization
c.) hyperpolarization
Where is calcium stored in a muscle cell when it isn’t contracting?
a.) sarcoplasmic reticulum
b.) neuromuscular junction
c.) t-tubule
a.) sarcoplasmic reticulum
True or False: kinesthesia involves your sense of body position.
False
Collagen filaments, titin and tendons make up what portion of the passive length-tension relationship of a muscle?
a.) series elastic component
b.) parallel elastic component
c.) hyper elastic component
a.) series elastic component
An individual’s maximal heart rate is most accurately obtained via…
a.) using 208 - (0.7 * age) equation
b.) using (220-age) equation
c.) completing a graded exercise test
c.) completing a graded exercise test
The condition where an athlete has no impairment of physical performance, no mental fatigue or excessive psychological distress is known as…
a.) supercompensation
b.) functional overreaching
c.) readiness
c.) readiness
The process whereby repeated mechanical stress imparted to the musculoskeletal system stimulates chemical reactions resulting in the expression of specific neuromuscular characteristics is known as…
a.) mechano-physical transduction
b.) mechano-chemical transduction
c.) mechano-biological transduction
b.) mechano-chemical transduction
Completing a training session involves loads that cause aspects of muscle physiology to deviate from homeostasis results in a transient reduction in performance, followed by which of the following conditions if the body is allowed to adapt?
a.) involution
b.) overreaching
c.) supercompensation
c.) supercompensation
The eccentric phase of a resistance training exercise is often referred to as “negative”, because which of the following variables would return a negative value if calculated during this phase?
a.) work
b.) force
c.) energy
a.) work
True or False: the time course of the responses to training load and competition stress can vary from minutes to days post-stimulus.
True
The area under the force-time curve represents which of the following?
a.) momentum
b.) power
c.) impulse
c.) impulse
True or False: if the jump height measured during a countermovement jump test does not differ from a baseline value when measured following a training session, we can be certain that neuromuscular fatigue has not occurred.
False
Which of the following statistics will tell the strnegth and conditioning coach about the reliability of a particular measurement?
a.) coefficient of variation
b.) minimal difference
c.) correlation coefficient
a.) coefficient of variation
Which portion of a sarcomere maintains its length during a muscle contraction?
a.) H-band
b.) I-band
c.) A-band
c.) A-band
Heart rate measured just prior to the start of exercise is known as…
a.) pre-exercise HR
b.) resting HR
c.) baseline HR
d.) basal HR
a.) pre-exercise HR
Which of the following is a primary endocrine gland?
a.) adipose cells
b.) muscle cells
c.) adrenal medulla
c.) adrenal medulla
Physiologic key performance indicators such as power output, distance covered, speed and acceleration, and weight lifted are used to identify which of the following?
a.) external training load
b.) internal training load
c.) performance objectives
a.) external training load
Steroid hormones exert their effect by…
a.) activating adenylate cyclase
b.) blocking the effect of cyclic AMP
c.) causing an inflammatory response
d.) altering the activity of DNA
d.) altering the activity of DNA
True or False: the rise in growth hormone that accompanies moderate intensity resistance exercise plays a significant role in hypertrophy response to that exercise.
False
Physiologic key performance indicators such as heart rate, blood lactate, perception of effort and salivary biomarkers are used to identify which of the following?
a.) internal training loads
b.) performance outcomes
c.) external training loads
a.) internal training loads
The people that make up a sports organization’s interdisciplinary team (IDT) should be held together with a set of values and behaviors that align to a common vision and are upheld by all who enter the work environment. This is referred to as…
a.) high performance unit
b.) shared mental model
c.) competence
b.) shared mental model
The citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle) yields most of which of the following substances?
a.) NADH
b.) FADH2
c.) ATP
a.) NADH
Which member of a sports organization’s high performance unit is responsible for establishing the technical and tactical vision forming the basis of how athletes will play the game?
a.) sport psychologist
b.) strength and conditioning professional
c.) athletic trainer
d.) sport coach
d.) sport coach
Which of the following energy systems yields the most ATP when carbs are used as the substrate?
a.) alactic (slow) glycolysis
b.) lactic (fast) glycolysis
c.) oxidative phosphorylation
c.) oxidative phosphorylation
Which substrate yields the highest kcal per liter of O2 consumed?
a.) carb
b.) fat
a.) carb
What is the most accurate measure of cardiorespiratory fitness?
a.) resting heart rate
b.) lactate threshold
c.) VO2Max
c.) VO2Max
The respiratory control center is located in the…
a.) cerebrum
b.) cerebellum
c.) medulla oblongata
d.) carotid bodies
c.) medulla oblongata
____________ is the amount of air inspired and expired at rest.
a.) residual volume
b.) total lung capacity
c.) tidal volume
d.) vital capacity
c.) tidal volume
Which aspect of VO2Max is considered the limiting factor of performance in endurance athletes?
a.) variables contributing to the demand side of oxygen during exercise
b.) variables contributing to the supply side of oxygen during exercise
c.) neither of these
b.) variables contributing to the supply side of oxygen during exercise
What category of muscle action has an inverse relationship between muscle force and muscle contraction velocity?
a.) eccentric
b.) isometric
c.) concentric
c.) concentric
The majority of neurons within the nervous system belong to which category?
a.) efferent neurons
b.) afferent neurons
c.) interneurons
c.) interneurons
True or False: a direct relationship exists between eccentric contraction force and eccentric contraction velocity; when muscle force production is high, contraction velocity is high.
True
True or False: making learners struggle to achieve a goal or perform a task during a practice session forces them to concentrate harder and leads to more effective motor learning.
False
Which of the following areas of a sarcomere will decrease in size during a concentric skeletal muscle contraction?
a.) M-line
b.) I-band
c.) A-band
b.) I-band
Which of the following statistics will tell a strength and conditioning coach about the reliability of a particular measurement?
a.) minimal difference
b.) coefficient of variation
c.) correlation coefficient
b.) coefficient of variation
Velocity is…
a.) displacement/time
b.) velocity/time
c.) force * time
d.) mass * velocity
a.) displacement/time
Acceleration is…
a.) displacement/time
b.) velocity/time
c.) force * time
d.) mass * velocity
b.) velocity/time
Impulse is…
a.) displacement/time
b.) velocity/time
c.) force * time
d.) mass * velocity
c.) force * time
Momentum is…
a.) displacement/time
b.) velocity/time
c.) force * time
d.) mass * velocity
d.) mass * velocity
The stretch shortening cycle is the coupling of eccentric and concentric muscle actions to produce more overall force in plyometrics, agility and speed drills. The most important phase is the amortization phase, because it allows afferent signals in and efferent signals out. It should be…
a.) long
b.) short
c.) doesn’t matter, as long as concentric phase follows
b.) short
Which of the following questions best corresponds with the determination of KPIs in a sport?
a.) “What set structure should be used in resistance training programs?”
b.) “What does it take to win the event?”
c.) “What does the strength coach need to measure?”
c.) “What does the strength coach need to measure?”
What is the best way to induce the production of erythropoietin?
a.) HIIT
b.) resistance training
c.) aerobically train at high altitudes above 3000m for a week
c.) aerobically train at high altitudes above 3000m for a week
A strength coach identifying the optimal pacing strategy for a marathon athlete to use during an upcoming race is seeking…
a.) physiological demand info
b.) tactical requirement info
c.) psychological skill info
d.) technical requirement info
b.) tactical requirement info
True or False: the rise in Growth Hormone that accompanies moderate intensity resistance exercise plays a significant role in the hypertrophy response to that exercise.
False
If peptide hormones activate G-proteins that then activate other enzymes in a series of biochemical pathways, how do steroid hormones work?
a.) they bind directly to proteins inside of a cell to change their shape and function
b.) they bind to receptors inside the cell or on the nucleus to initiate the transcription of a particular gene
c.) they bind to receptors on the cell surface to activate H-proteins
b.) they bind to receptors inside the cell or on the nucleus to initiate the transcription of a particular gene
Which of the following is true regarding the mechanisms of action for neurotransmitters (nervous system) and hormones (endocrine system)?
a.) neurotransmitters can impact the neighboring nerve cell, whereas hormones cannot impact a neighboring cell from the one that secreted it
b.) neurotransmitters elicit change in membrane potential, whereas hormones elicit biochemical pathways to initiate it
c.) neurotransmitters bind to receptors on the surface of a cell, whereas hormones are not capable of doing that
b.) neurotransmitters elicit change in membrane potential, whereas hormones elicit biochemical pathways to initiate it
Steroid hormones are derived from…
a.) cholesterol
b.) amino acid
c.) triglyceride
a.) cholesterol
True or False: compiling normative data for an assessment, such as the 40yard dash, from studies that used different methods (radar gun, timing light, etc.) is acceptable when generating performance norms for benchmarking purposes.
False
Conducting a vertical jump test where the measurements taken involve trunk and lower extremity movements during the landing phase, rather than the jump height, would make this test fall under…
a.) specific movement screen
b.) agility
c.) maximal anaerobic power
a.) specific movement screen
Of the four metabolic factors of fatigue, three are associated with…
a.) hydrogen ions
b.) reduction of available ATP
c.) phosphates inhibiting crossbridge cycling
d.) calcium impedence
a.) hydrogen ions
Which of the following is a test of local muscular endurance included in the NFL combine battery of tests?
a.) 225lbs bench press test
b.) 40yd dash
c.) vertical jump
a.) 225lbs bench press test
____________ is when an athlete screens positive for injury risk and was injured.
a.) true positive
b.) false positive
c.) true negative
d.) false negative
a.) true positive
____________ is when an athlete screens positive for injury risk, but was not injured.
a.) true positive
b.) false positive
c.) true negative
d.) false negative
b.) false positive
____________ is when an athlete screens negative for injury risk, and was not injured.
a.) true positive
b.) false positive
c.) true negative
d.) false negative
c.) true negative
____________ is when an athlete screens negative for injury risk, but was injured.
a.) true positive
b.) false positive
c.) true negative
d.) false negative
d.) false negative
What test can provide data on an athlete’s lower extremity rate of force development?
a.) isometric mid thigh pull
b.) multi RM squat test
c.) 1RM deadlift test
a.) isometric mid thigh pull
Velocity based training is a form of…
a.) cluster training
b.) contrast training
c.) autoregulation
c.) autoregulation
__________ is a primary muscle involved in posterior chain knee flexion exercises?
a.) biceps femoris
b.) rectus femoris
c.) quadratus femoris
a.) biceps femoris
True or False: overtraining describes a decrease in performance that lasts dats to weeks, while overreaching describes a decrease in performance that lasts weeks to months.
False
Which phase of a block periodization model is characterized by an increase in sport-specific training such as speed, power and conditioning at a high intensity?
a.) realization
b.) transmutation
c.) accumulation
b.) transmutation
The amount of work completed in a single training session is known as…
a.) training density
b.) training intensity
c.) training frequency
a.) training density
The tempo prescription for the bench press is 3:0:1. How long will the athlete spend in the eccentric phase of each rep?
a.) 3 seconds
b.) 0 seconds
c.) 1 second
a.) 3 seconds
True or False: high heart rate variability is an indicator of athlete readiness.
True
The world record for the men’s 100m freestyle event in swimming is 46.91 secs. What is the dominant energy system used?
a.) glycolysis
b.) phosphagen
c.) oxidative phosphorylation
a.) glycolysis
Which type of muscle fiber in the ATP-PCr energy system is most prevalent?
a.) Type I slow twitch
b.) Type II fast twitch
c.) ATP-PCr system is equally prevalent in both types
b.) Type II fast twitch
Where does glycolysis occur in a muscle cell?
a.) sarcoplasm
b.) mitochondria
c.) nucleus
a.) sarcoplasm
The process whereby the body metabolizes food substrates or stored fuel to produce ATP is known as…
a.) Cori cycle
b.) Krebs cycle
c.) bioenergetics
c.) bioenergetics
Stroke volume during exercise will increase more when the athlete is in which of the following positions?
a.) supine
b.) prone
c.) standing
c.) standing
The ventilatory threshold is characterized by a ratio of…
a.) VCO2:VO2
b.) VE:VO2
c.) VO2:VCO2
b.) VE:VO2
Skeletal muscle fibers that contain large numbers of mitochondria and myoglobin could be classified as…
a.) type I fibers
b.) type IIB fibers
c.) Type IIX fibers
a.) type I fibers
What substance speeds up the transmission of an AP down an axon?
a.) acetylcholine
b.) titin
c.) calcium
d.) myelin
d.) myelin
A neuron’s cell membrane is more permeable to ______ than the other, allowing more positive charges to leave the neuron at rest or repolarization, so that a negative resting membrane potential can be established?
a.) K+
b.) Na+
a.) K+
Which portion of the deep fascia that surrounds the various levels of a muscle is the least dense, in order to allow blood vessels and nerves to penetrate, so that they can interact with the muscle fibers directly?
a.) epimysium
b.) perimysium
c.) endomysium
c.) endomysium
You have decided to incorporate 3 new sprint running drills into today’s speed training session with your athlete. Which of the following will optimize the athlete’s ability to learn how to successfully complete the drill?
a.) allow the athlete to choose the order of the drills
b.) only provide verbal feedback when movement errors are identified during the drills
c.) have the athlete complete the drills in a pre-determined order you feel is best
a.) allow the athlete to choose the order of the drills
Which of the following qualities would be beneficial to an athlete during the eccentric phase of a stretch shortening cycle activity?
a.) low magnitude of muscle stretch
b.) high velocity muscle stretch
c.) higher compliance (less stiffness) of muscle stretch
b.) high velocity muscle stretch
True or False: mental fatigue seemingly has greater potential to limit endurance performance, as opposed to anaerobic performance based on available evidence.
True
What is the end position of the concentric phase of a pull up?
a.) chin above the bar
b.) elbows extended
c.) chin at bar level
a.) chin above the bar
The area under the force-time curve represents…
a.) power
b.) impulse
c.) momentum
b.) impulse
While hormones circulate to all tissues, some affect only a few tissues. This is due to…
a.) type of receptor at the tissue
b.) concentration of the hormone
c.) plasma concentration of the hormone
d.) training state of the subject
a.) type of receptor at the tissue
Which of the following is an individual with hyperthyroid more susceptible to during exercise?
a.) decreased cardiovascular function
b.) low VO2
c.) heat stroke
c.) heat stroke
A strength and conditioning coach is most likely to utilize…
a.) skill-based KPIs
b.) psychologically based KPIs
c.) physiologically based KPIs
d.) tactical based KPIs
c.) physiologically based KPIs
Which of the following KPIs will have the least validity and reliability?
a.) barbell velocity during an olympic snatch exercise
b.) knee flexion angles during cutting tasks in a lab setting without opponents
c.) ground force reactions when landing from a simulated volleyball serve onto a force plate
b.) knee flexion angles during cutting tasks in a lab setting without opponents
_____________ is identifying normative data values for physical characteristics necessary for success in a sport that can be used as comparison values for individual athletes.
a.) profiling
b.) long term athletic development
c.) benchmarking
c.) benchmarking
Performing a test on an isokinetic dynamometer to measure knee flexion and extension peak torques would have which of the following characteristics?
a.) low construct validity, low face validity
b.) low construct validity, high face validity
c.) high construct validity, low face validity
d.) high construct validity, high face validity
c.) high construct validity, low face validity
The reciprocal of the sit and reach test is…
a.) Thomas test
b.) deep squat test of the FMS
c.) toe touch test
a.) Thomas test
Predictive and concurrent validity are different types of…
a.) criterion validity
b.) performance validity
c.) face validity
a.) criterion validity
What is the optimal rep volume when the intensity of a resistance exercise is 90% 1RM or higher?
a.) 4 reps
b.) 8 reps
c.) 12 reps
d.) 15 reps
a.) 4 reps
True or False: injured athletes should not complete any strength and conditioning training sessions until they have fully recovered from their injury.
False
What is an appropriate progression from the supine double leg stability ball leg curl exercise?
a.) supine single leg straight-leg bridge
b.) supine double leg straight-leg bridge
c.) supine double leg bent-leg bridge
a.) supine single leg straight-leg bridge
If you are training for maximal strength, speed strength and strength endurance concurrently, you are following which periodization model?
a.) conjugate
b.) block
c.) linear
a.) conjugate
The body will adapt to the demands placed on it, no more, no less. This is referred to as…
a.) FITT principle
b.) HITT principle
c.) SAID principle
c.) SAID principle
True or False: reduction of training-related injury is the strength and conditioning professional’s primary objective.
True
Which of the following is TRUE regarding tempo training?
a.) intensity should be 70% VO2max or lower
b.) session duration should be 45-60 mins
c.) frequency should be 4-5x per week
d.) benefits include improving lactate threshold
d.) benefits include improving lactate threshold
Which ground-based explosive lift should involve 2 spotters?
a.) clean
b.) snatch
c.) jerk
d.) none
c.) jerk
Long interval is…
a.) 75 sec work: 90 sec rest
b.) 30 sec work: 2 mins rest
c.) 45 secs work: 45 secs rest
d.) 5 secs work: 15 secs rest
a.) 75 sec work: 90 sec rest
Short interval is…
a.) 75 sec work: 90 sec rest
b.) 30 sec work: 2 mins rest
c.) 45 secs work: 45 secs rest
d.) 5 secs work: 15 secs rest
c.) 45 secs work: 45 secs rest
Repeated Sprint Training is…
a.) 75 sec work: 90 sec rest
b.) 30 sec work: 2 mins rest
c.) 45 secs work: 45 secs rest
d.) 5 secs work: 15 secs rest
d.) 5 secs work: 15 secs rest
Sprint Interval Training is…
a.) 75 sec work: 90 sec rest
b.) 30 sec work: 2 mins rest
c.) 45 secs work: 45 secs rest
d.) 5 secs work: 15 secs rest
b.) 30 sec work: 2 mins rest
Which of the following is recommended as the first drill to perform in a progression of drills when training starting speed?
a.) falling starts
b.) push-up starts
c.) 3-point stance start
d.) ground start
a.) falling starts
Which of the following is TRUE regarding speed endurance training?
a.) beneficial in improving athlete’s ability to perform multiple bouts of near max speed over a period of time
b.) duration of drills should be <6 secs
c.) speed endurance training should occur early in the off-season
d.) length of drills should be 30-60 meters
a.) beneficial in improving athlete’s ability to perform multiple bouts of near max speed over a period of time
Why will power output fall over the course of 10 reps of 6-second running sprints if the rest interval is only 30 secs?
a.) insufficient removal of lactate between sprints
b.) insufficient resynthesis of PCr between sprints
c.) insufficient buffering of electrons between sprints
b.) insufficient resynthesis of PCr between sprints
A sequential training model is best suited for…
a.) performing arts athletes
b.) team sport athletes with short prep periods
c.) individual sport athletes
c.) individual sport athletes
Fundamental differences between the acceleration phase and max velocity phase of sprinting include the following EXCEPT…
a.) arm action during max velocity phase is greater than during acceleration phase
b.) torso is upright during max velocity phase vs. 45 degree lean during acceleration phase
c.) foot contacts ground below center of gravity in max velocity phase vs. behind athlete in acceleration phase
a.) arm action during max velocity phase is greater than during acceleration phase
You have measured your athlete’s 30yd dash time to be 4 secs. You want him to run repeated 30yd sprints at 90% of maximal efforts. What time will you prescribe to complete each sprint rep?
a.) 4.4 secs
b.) 4 secs
c.) 3.6 secs
a.) 4.4 secs
A shock microcycle is recommended for inclusion in which period, due to its intended purpose of generating adaptation through sudden increases in training volume and intensity?
a.) transition
b.) preparatory
c.) competition
b.) preparatory
Which of the following exercises is most appropriate to use when the training goal is to increase the stride frequency during sprinting?
a.) olympic weightlifting
b.) resisted sprint drills
c.) assisted sprint drills
c.) assisted sprint drills
During a sprint, what force is actually propelling the sprinter across the ground?
a.) ground reaction force
b.) inertial force
c.) applied force into the ground
a.) ground reaction force
Good sprint running technique involves fully extending the hips posteriorly as a component to each running stride. Due to active insufficiency, what position will the knee be in during this motion to ensure that the hip can extend as far as possible?
a.) externally rotated
b.) extended
c.) flexed
b.) extended
True or False: kinesio taping promotes normal movement, even in the acute phases of an injury.
True
A slow stretch is…
a.) gently moving the limb into a stretch direction the entire length of the stretch
b.) gently moving the limb into a point of discomfort and maintaining this position the entire length of the stretch
c.) incorporating contraction and relaxation of involved muscles to produce greater ROM increases
a.) gently moving the limb into a stretch direction the entire length of the stretch
A static stretch is…
a.) gently moving the limb into a stretch direction the entire length of the stretch
b.) gently moving the limb into a point of discomfort and maintaining this position the entire length of the stretch
c.) incorporating contraction and relaxation of involved muscles to produce greater ROM increases
b.) gently moving the limb into a point of discomfort and maintaining this position the entire length of the stretch
A PNF stretch is…
a.) gently moving the limb into a stretch direction the entire length of the stretch
b.) gently moving the limb into a point of discomfort and maintaining this position the entire length of the stretch
c.) incorporating contraction and relaxation of involved muscles to produce greater ROM increases
c.) incorporating contraction and relaxation of involved muscles to produce greater ROM increases
How often should athletes seek to identify hot spots in their tissues?
a.) 5x per week
b.) daily
c.) 3x per week
b.) daily
Which mobilization technique forces blood and lymph out of the affected tissue and allows for fresh blood and lymph to flow back into the tissue to enhance the healing process?
a.) contract-relax
b.) PNF stretching
c.) distraction
a.) contract-relax
What is the most appropriate next profession for the double leg hurdle hop with a catch?
a.) continuous double leg hurdle hop
b.) depth jump
c.) double leg hurdle hop with a bounce
c.) double leg hurdle hop with a bounce
Which of the following is true regarding the correct technique for the Yoga Push Up dynamic warm up exercise?
a.) hips should sag at the top of the push up position
b.) knees should remain extended
c.) elbows should flair out past 45 degrees
b.) knees should remain extended
Energy availability is a new way of addressing energy balance in athletes. What values in the equation make it unique from the simple energy balance equation (energy intake - total energy expenditure)?
a.) basal metabolic rate and fat mass
b.) thermic effect of food and fat free mass
c.) energy cost of exercise and fat free mass
c.) energy cost of exercise and fat free mass
Which essential amino acid has the greatest positive effect on muscle protein synthesis?
a.) leucine
b.) valine
c.) isoleucine
a.) leucine
A typical set of 12-15 reps of resistance training lasts 30-45 secs. Given this information, which of the following supplements may be most beneficial to an athlete who regularly resistance trains with this rep range?
a.) creatine
b.) L-carnitine
c.) beta alanine
c.) beta alanine
The use of honey as a pre-exercise source of carb is not recommended due to the high concentration of…
a.) fructose
b.) galactose
c.) glucose
a.) fructose
Why won’t 30g of plant-based protein have the same effect on muscle protein synthesis as 30g of animal-based protein?
a.) most plant-based proteins are digested and absorbed more slowly than animal-based protein
b.) plant-based proteins are more readily converted to urea once absorbed
c.) plant-based protein contains less essential amino acids
d.) all of these
d.) all of these
Which member of the sports management teams spends the most time with athletes on a day-to-day basis and serves as the point of communication to other members of the team regarding the health of the athlete?
a.) sports psychologist
b.) team physician
c.) athletic trainer
d.) sport dietitian
c.) athletic trainer
An athlete with a BMI of 31 appears intoxicated and has a history of heat exhaustion symptoms. Which heat illness do you suspect?
a.) exertional heat stroke
b.) heat syncope
c.) exertional heat exhaustion
a.) exertional heat stroke
Which of the following is true regarding correct technique for the walking lunges dynamic warm up exercise?
a.) keep weight on the whole foot
b.) flex the trunk
c.) allow the knee to move into a valgus position
a.) keep weight on the whole foot
Muscle strains commonly affect which area of a muscle?
a.) the region where the tendon attaches to the bone
b.) the region adjacent to the musculotendinous junction
c.) the middle of the muscle belly
b.) the region adjacent to the musculotendinous junction
Which of the following statements describes the evidence regarding the effect of anti-inflammatory medication on the healing process in musculoskeletal injuries?
a.) their use delays muscle repair
b.) their use stimulates muscle repair
c.) their use has no effect on muscle repair
a.) their use delays muscle repair
Which member of the sports management team is best suited to conduct lab-based tests regarding the forces incurred by the athlete during lifting, jumping or sprinting tasks?
a.) athletic trainer
b.) biomechanist
c.) sport dietitian
d.) strength and conditioning coach
b.) biomechanist
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in older male athletes?
a.) coronary artery disease
b.) myocarditis
c.) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
a.) coronary artery disease
True or False: the flow state can be quantified.
True
In what aspect of motor performance does mental fatigue show up first?
a.) endurance performance
b.) accuracy
c.) reaction time
c.) reaction time
The strnegth coach who establishes a rewards system whereby any athlete who improves their 30-15 intermittent fitness test from one session to the next is exempt from the next closest conditioning system is using…
a.) external regulation motivation
b.) integrated regulation motivation
c.) identified regulation motivation
a.) external regulation motivation
When a strength coach engages with athletes about non-sport topics, they are practicing…
a.) autonomy support
b.) structure
c.) involvement
c.) involvement
What basic psychological needs is met when an athlete feels their role is important and that they are a meaningful contributor to the team?
a.) relatedness
b.) autonomy
c.) competency
a.) relatedness
What mental skill is involved in the athlete processing information from areas such as demonstration of ability, coach leadership, physical and mental preparation, and social support?
a.) self-confidence
b.) focus
c.) motivation
a.) self-confidence
What strategy would help Bob avoid heat acclimatization decay?
a.) complete one conditioning session in the heat every 5 days
b.) train indoors in a climate controlled environment 3 days a week
c.) complete no training sessions, so his body can supercompensate to the HA
a.) complete one conditioning session in the heat every 5 days
On what day of heat acclimatization protocol should protective pads and helmets be introduced during practices?
a.) 1
b.) 6
c.) 10
b.) 6
True or False: most heat dissipation is achieved via radiation.
False
At what outside temperatures should a warm up be performed indoors as a safety precaution?
a.) <30 F
b.) 30-60 F
c.) >60 F
a.) <30 F
Joe only has 4 days to attempt heat acclimatization. Which of the following is NOT likely to occur in the limited time he has to prepare?
a.) decreased exercise heart rate
b.) increased plasma volume
c.) decreased concentration of electrolytes in his sweat
c.) decreased concentration of electrolytes in his sweat
An elevation in internal body temperature due to the body’s inability to thermoregulate efficiently is formally defined as…
a.) heat exhaustion
b.) heat illness
c.) uncompensable heat stress
c.) uncompensable heat stress
Which of the following is true regarding the appropriate frequency of heat exposure while exercising to elicit optimal heat acclimatization responses?
a.) program a recovery day following intense HA training
b.) complete 2 HA sessions in a single day
c.) complete 1 HA session every 5 days
a.) program a recovery day following intense HA training
Current evidence suggests that the internal body temperature should rise to _____ in order to induce heat acclimatization responses?
a.) 38.5 C
b.) 39.5 C
c.) 37.5 C
a.) 38.5 C
At what stage of the construction of a new strength and conditioning facility will architectural blueprints be created?
a.) 5 - design development
b.) 3 - programming
c.) 4 - schematic design
d.) 2- pre-planning
a.) 5 - design development
How many square feet should be allotted for each Olympic weightlifting platform in a weight room?
a.) 36 ft
b.) 49 ft
c.) 64 ft
d.) 81 ft
c.) 64 ft
Cold water immersion is a recovery modality best suited to improve…
a.) symptoms related to DOMS following a training session
b.) joint mobility following a training session
c.) HR recovery following a training session
a.) symptoms related to DOMS following a training session
True or False: electrical muscle stimulation has been shown to have positive perceptual benefits in performance recovery.
True
How high off the ground should windows and mirrors be placed in a strength and conditioning facility?
a.) 12”
b.) 18”
c.) 20”
d.) 24”
c.) 20”
True or False: seeking a variety of candidates from different ethnicities, races and genders is sufficient to produce a diverse pool of candidates.
False
Distances between equipment and walkways within the strength and conditioning facility should be…
a.) 1 ft
b.) 3 ft
c.) 6 ft
d.) 9 ft
b.) 3 ft
The strength coach who decides to refurbish an old weightlifting platform is conducting what kind of maintenance?
a.) preventative
b.) cyclical
c.) unforeseen
b.) cyclical
