APK5404 - Sport Psychology Flashcards

1
Q

_______________ was a clinical psychologist and applied sport psychology professional.

a.) Bruce Ogilvie
b.) Franklin Henry
c.) Coleman Griffith

A

a.) Bruce Ogilvie

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2
Q

___________ was influential in establishing sport psychology as a recognized academic field.

a.) Bruce Ogilvie
b.) Franklin Henry
c.) Coleman Griffith

A

b.) Franklin Henry

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3
Q

Goal-directed actions are planned, initiated, and controlled by _________________.

a.) muscles
b.) the brain and nervous system
c.) joints and ligaments
d.) an athlete’s motivation

A

b.) the brain and nervous system

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4
Q

Goal-setting, mental imagery, emotion regulation, and pre-performance routines are examples of ____________.

a.) positive psychology
b.) psychological factors
c.) psychological skills
d.) clinical psychology

A

c.) psychological skills

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5
Q

Q
________________ is the mechanism that drives expertise attainment in all human performance domains.

a.) physical superiority
b.) an advantaged environment
c.) neural adaptation
d.) genetic predisposition

A

c.) neural adaptation

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6
Q

Experts display superior abilities to execute sport-specific motor skills. This characteristic falls under the __________ component of Janelle & Hillman’s model of expert performance.

a.) physical
b.) tactical
c.) perceptual
d.) technical
e.) emotional

A

d.) technical

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7
Q

Experts typically have the ability to report more sport-specific information from memory (ex: the position of players on the field at a given point in time in a game) and to more accurately identify situation-specific outcome probabilities. These characteristics fall under the __________ component of Janelle & Hillman’s model of expert performance.

a.) physical
b.) tactical
c.) perceptual
d.) technical
e.) emotional

A

b.) tactical

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8
Q

Experts exhibit more efficient visual search strategies, recognize patterns more quickly and accurately, and identify critical performance cues earlier than novices.
These characteristics fall under the __________ component of Janelle & Hillman’s model of expert performance.

a.) physical
b.) tactical
c.) perceptual
d.) technical
e.) emotional

A

c.) perceptual

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9
Q

Experts typically perceive stressful performance environments as facilitating success (an opportunity to succeed) and appear immune to pressure situations - performing optimally when stress is the highest.
These characteristics fall under the __________ component of Janelle & Hillman’s model of expert performance.

a.) physical
b.) tactical
c.) perceptual
d.) technical
e.) emotional

A

e.) emotional

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10
Q

Q
____________ focuses on the systematic skill development with the goal of refining specific skill sets and attaining expertise.

a.) deliberate play
b.) diverse training
c.) specialization
d.) deliberate practice

A

d.) deliberate practice

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11
Q

_____________ is a mode of instruction that facilitates rule-free skill acquisition.

a.) implicit instruction
b.) prescriptive instruction
c.) guided discovery
d.) explicit instruction

A

a.) implicit instruction

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12
Q

________________ is a mode of instruction that facilitates athlete-generated solutions during skill acquisition.

a.) prescriptive instruction
b.) explicit instruction
c.) implicit instruction
d.) guided discovery

A

d.) guided discovery

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13
Q

The __________ of practice refers to the degree of predictability between consecutive practice trials.

a.) high variability
b.) low variability
c.) variability
d.) randomness

A

d.) randomness

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14
Q

The direction of the relationship between peers and self-esteem, motivation and behavior is influenced by the amount of ____________ and ________________.

a.) peer acceptance; peer social support
b.) peer pressure; peer valuation
c.) peer learning; peer cohesion
d.) peer leadership; peer norms

A

a.) peer acceptance; peer social support

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15
Q

__________________ refers to the psychological training phase where the objective is to learn a specific psychological skill.

a.) education
b.) acquisition
c.) practice, implementation and evaluation
d.) self-regulation

A

b.) acquisition

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16
Q

The ______________ phase in Singer’s 5-Step Strategy is where the athlete is able to perform psychological and motor skills automatically.

a.) readying phase
b.) imaging phase
c.) focusing phase
d.) executing phase
e.) evaluating phase

A

d.) executing phase

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17
Q

________________ feedback is provided only when performance falls outside of specified criteria.

a.) self-controlled
b.) Q&A
c.) summary
d.) bandwidth
e.) descriptive

A

d.) bandwidth

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18
Q

_______________ feedback describes performance, rather than prescribes solution.

a.) self-controlled
b.) Q&A
c.) summary
d.) descriptive
e.) prescriptive

A

d.) descriptive

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19
Q

Practice that is ____________ and ____________ is best for a sport like golf.

a.) constant, random
b.) constant, blocked
c.) variable, random
d.) variable, blocked

A

a.) constant, random

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20
Q

Practice that is ____________ and ____________ is best for a sport like soccer or hockey.

a.) constant, random
b.) constant, blocked
c.) variable, random
d.) variable, blocked

A

c.) variable, random

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21
Q

Practice that is ____________ and ____________ is best for a sport like football.

a.) constant, random
b.) constant, blocked
c.) variable, random
d.) variable, blocked

A

d.) variable, blocked

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22
Q

According to Self-determination Theory, what are three types of intrinsic motivation regulatory processes?

a.) autonomy, competence and relatedness
b.) amotivation, extrinsic and intrinsic
c.) know, accomplish and experience stimulation

A

c.) know, accomplish and experience stimulation

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23
Q

In the Hierarchical Model of Intrinsic and Extrinsic Motivation, the influence of global, contextual and situational factors is predicted to be mediated by individual’s perceptions of ___________, ______________ and ______________.

a.) autonomy, competence, relatedness
b.) amotivation, extrinsic, intrinsic
c.) affective, cognitive, behavioral

A

a.) autonomy, competence, relatedness

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24
Q

______________ is the regulatory style of extrinsic motivation based on internal rewards and punishments.

a.) introjected regulation
b.) external regulation
c.) identified regulation
d.) integrated regulation

A

a.) introjected regulation

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25
Q

______________ is the regulatory style of extrinsic motivation where long-term benefits shape an individual’s choice to engage in unpleasant activity.

a.) introjected regulation
b.) external regulation
c.) identified regulation
d.) integrated regulation

A

c.) identified regulation

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26
Q

_____________ is the regulatory style of extrinsic motivation where coherence of activity with self value shapes an individual’s choice to engage in unpleasant activity.

a.) introjected regulation
b.) external regulation
c.) identified regulation
d.) integrated regulation

A

d.) integrated regulation

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27
Q

Focusing on performance during competition has been shown to be associated with _________ anxiety and _________ performance.

a.) less; superior
b.) more; poorer
c.) more; superior
d.) less; poorer

A

a.) less; superior

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28
Q

The mechanistic explanation for the effectiveness of goal setting includes…

a.) mobilizing and directing efforts towards improvement
b.) identifying the importance of winning
c.) emphasizing outcome focused goals
d.) understanding one’s teammates better

A

a.) mobilizing and directing efforts towards improvement

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29
Q

Having a goal to win the race is an example of a _____________ goal.

a.) outcome
b.) process
c.) performance

A

a.) outcome

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30
Q

Having a goal to improve one’s best time is an example of a ___________ goal.

a.) outcome
b.) process
c.) performance

A

c.) performance

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31
Q

What is a common problem when setting goals?

a.) failure to evaluate and adjust goals
b.) not setting enough goals
c.) systematically setting goals
d.) setting goals that are too specific

A

a.) failure to evaluate and adjust goals

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32
Q

Which of the following goal types should help an athlete direct their attention away from aspects that cause emotional stress and disrupt performance?

a.) process goals
b.) objective goals
c.) performance goals
d.) outcome goals

A

a.) process goals

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33
Q

What are JJ Gross’ three categories of affect?

a.) arousal, pleasantness, unpleasantness
b.) time, form, content
c.) emotional state, emotionality, meta-emotion
d.) stress, emotion, mood

A

d.) stress, emotion, mood

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34
Q

Hanin proposes that emotional experiences comprise of…

a.) arousal, pleasantness, unpleasantness
b.) time, form, content
c.) emotional state, emotionality, meta-emotion
d.) stress, emotion, mood

A

c.) emotional state, emotionality, meta-emotion

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35
Q

Breath control works by…

a.) deregulation of blood oxygen concentrations and improving muscle contraction forces.
b.) managing blood oxygen concentrations and contributing to muscle contraction/relaxation coordination.
c.) decreasing CO2 in the brain and increasing muscle tension in the legs
d.) increasing CO2 in the brain and decreasing muscle coordination

A

b.) managing blood oxygen concentrations and contributing to muscle contraction/relaxation coordination.

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36
Q

According to the Process Model of Emotional Regulation, _____________ emotion regulation strategies must be applied at each stage of the emotion generation process to achieve effective emotion regulation.

a.) specific
b.) varied
c.) non-specific
d.) two

A

a.) specific

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37
Q

Breath control strategies should be…

a.) conducted only when supervised by boarded medical professionals
b.) specifically designed for each sport context
c.) applied universally
d.) utilized only by expert athletes

A

b.) specifically designed for each sport context

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38
Q

According to the Temporal Influence Model of Emotion Regulation, as the demands of sport performance context increases, the number of beneficial emotion regulation strategies…

a.) increases
b.) decreases
c.) remains constant

A

b.) decreases

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39
Q

According to the hypothesis of the Temporal Influence Model of Emotion Regulation, ____________ is the most efficient regulatory strategy.

a.) cognitive change
b.) response modulation
c.) attentional deployment
d.) situation selection

A

c.) attentional deployment

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40
Q

According to IZOF theory, __________ is when a person performs optimally when they are experiencing low anxiety.

a.) Low IZOF
b.) Moderate IZOF
c.) High IZOF

A

a.) Low IZOF

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41
Q

According to IZOF theory, ___________ is when a person performs optimally when they are experiencing high anxiety.

a.) Low IZOF
b.) Moderate IZOF
c.) High IZOF

A

c.) High IZOF

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42
Q

_____________ refers to how pleasant or unpleasant a person feels a situation is, which affects their IZOF.

a.) intensity
b.) content
c.) form
d.) time
e.) context

A

b.) content

43
Q

______________ is an arousal regulation strategy where the person directs their attention towards physiological sensation (ie: feeling heavy or warm extremities).

a.) meditation
b.) autogenic training
c.) systematic desensitization
d.) breath control

A

b.) autogenic training

44
Q

What is the correct order of the Attention-Performance Process?

a.) Perception, Attention, Stimulus, Response
b.) Stimulus, Perception, Attention, Response
c.) Attention, Perception, Stimulus, Response

A

b.) Stimulus, Perception, Attention, Response

45
Q

____________ is a state of focused awareness on a subset of the available perceptual information?

a.) distractor
b.) attention
c.) perception
d.) concentration

A

b.) attention

46
Q

___________ involves the processes that organize and interpret sensory information as having been produced by the properties of objects or events in the external, three-dimensional world.

a.) distractor
b.) attention
c.) perception
d.) concentration

A

c.) perception

47
Q

A quarterback whose attention is focused on a single receiver is utilizing ___________ attention.

a.) narrow-external
b.) broad-external
c.) broad-internal
d.) narrow-internal

A

a.) narrow-external

48
Q

A quarterback mentally rehearsing the proper throwing motion is utilizing _____________ attention.

a.) narrow-external
b.) broad-external
c.) broad-internal
d.) narrow-internal

A

d.) narrow-internal

49
Q

A quarterback who is both attending to receivers as they run routes and assessing the defensive backfield’s coverage scheme is utilizing _____________ attention.

a.) narrow-external
b.) broad-external
c.) broad-internal
d.) narrow-internal

A

b.) broad-external

50
Q

A quarterback considering multiple plays to call while in the huddle, while evaluating which play would be best for the defense’s past schemes and the likelihood of the scheme they will use on the next play is utilizing ___________ attention.

a.) narrow-external
b.) broad-external
c.) broad-internal
d.) narrow-internal

A

c.) broad-internal

51
Q

____________ is when athletes are given time to figure out on their own how to successfully perform a skill.

a.) errorless learning
b.) explicit learning
c.) analogy learning
d.) discovery learning

A

d.) discovery learning

52
Q

_____________ is when a task is modified to increase the likelihood of successful performance.

a.) errorless learning
b.) explicit learning
c.) analogy learning
d.) discovery learning

A

a.) errorless learning

53
Q

Lindsey finds herself trying to explicitly control each step in her serving movements during competitive serves. She is also very aware of the crowd around her. She is currently utilizing a _________ attentional focus.

a.) biased
b.) dissociative
c.) associative
d.) selective

A

c.) associative

54
Q

____________ is when attention is focused on information unrelated to execution of the motor skill.

a.) biased
b.) dissociative
c.) associative
d.) selective

A

b.) dissociative

55
Q

Generic attention training programs are hypothesized to influence sport performance by…

a.) improving generalized attentional capacity and efficiency
b.) improving task specific attentional capacity and efficiency
c.) improving generalized perceptual skills
d.) improving task specific perceptual skills

A

a.) improving generalized attentional capacity and efficiency

56
Q

Eye tracking technology provides data on athletes’…

a.) covert attention
b.) overt attention
c.) total visual field attention
d.) peripheral visual attention

A

b.) overt attention

57
Q

Ability is considered a _______________ attribute.

a.) stable and internal
b.) unstable and external
c.) unstable and internal
d.) stable and external

A

a.) stable and internal

58
Q

Effort is considered a _________________ attribute.

a.) stable and internal
b.) unstable and external
c.) unstable and internal
d.) stable and external

A

c.) unstable and internal

59
Q

Task difficulty is considered a _______________ attribute.

a.) stable and internal
b.) unstable and external
c.) unstable and internal
d.) stable and external

A

d.) stable and external

60
Q

Which of the following is NOT a stage of achievement motivation development?

a.) social comparison
b.) perceived competence
c.) autonomous competence
d.) integrated stage

A

b.) perceived competence

61
Q

Substantial research indicates that although these two factors influence one another, ________ exerts more influence on ____________.

a.) attention; motivation
b.) self-efficacy; performance
c.) performance; psychological skills
d.) performance; self-efficacy

A

d.) performance; self-efficacy

62
Q

Attribution Theory asserts that all desirable attributions will possess a __________ component.

a.) controllable
b.) stable
c.) measurable
d.) internal

A

a.) controllable

63
Q

______________ is self-efficacy training aimed at improving performers’ explanations of why successes or failures occurred.

a.) embodied cognition
b.) social learning
c.) verbal persuasion
d.) attribution theory

A

d.) attribution theory

64
Q

______________ is self-efficacy training aimed at modifying performers’ perceptions by adjusting their overt behaviors (posture, dress, expressions, etc).

a.) embodied cognition
b.) social learning
c.) verbal persuasion
d.) attribution theory

A

a.) embodied cognition

65
Q

___________ is self-efficacy training aimed at modifying performers’ perceptions of efficacy by having them observe ideal, modeled behaviors.

a.) embodied cognition
b.) social learning
c.) verbal persuasion
d.) attribution theory

A

b.) social learning

66
Q

_____________ is self-efficacy training aimed at influencing performers’ perceptions of efficacy by controlling the feedback they receive.

a.) embodied cognition
b.) social learning
c.) verbal persuasion
d.) attribution theory

A

c.) verbal persuasion

67
Q

__________ is an imagery mechanism where imagery simulates real experiences in the brain.

a.) physiological arousal
b.) neuromuscular adaptation
c.) neural adaptation
d.) vividness

A

c.) neural adaptation

68
Q

___________ is an imagery mechanism where imagery activates muscles.

a.) physiological arousal
b.) neuromuscular adaptation
c.) neural adaptation
d.) vividness

A

b.) neuromuscular adaptation

69
Q

__________ is an imagery mechanism where imagery modifies heart and respiration rates.

a.) physiological arousal
b.) neuromuscular adaptation
c.) neural adaptation
d.) vividness

A

a.) physiological arousal

70
Q

Which of the following situations involving the use of imagery might result in detrimental performance outcomes?

a.) imagery scripts that systematically direct the performers’ attention to relevant cues during performance
b.) imagery scripts that direct the performers’ attention to a multitude of environmental stimuli while they imagine executing important movements
c.) imagery scripts that create a high degree of vividness
d.) imagery scripts that emphasize imagining performance situations in real time

A

b.) imagery scripts that direct the performers’ attention to a multitude of environmental stimuli while they imagine executing important movements

71
Q

According to the PETTLEP imagery model, performers should imagine completing tasks…

a.) in the absence of emotion
b.) in slow motion
c.) in a quiet, isolated room
d.) from the 1st person perspective

A

d.) from the 1st person perspective

72
Q

____________ is the characteristic of self talk that refers to how pleasant or unpleasant the self talk is.

a.) automaticity
b.) overtness
c.) valence
d.) interpretation

A

c.) valence

73
Q

_____________ task difficulty increases self-talk frequency.

a.) low
b.) moderate
c.) extreme

A

b.) moderate

74
Q
A
75
Q

______________ is the biggest indicator of early participation in youth sports.

a.) gender
b.) race
c.) household income
d.) BMI

A

c.) household income

76
Q

_______________ focuses on participation in athletic endeavors for the purpose of enjoying the activity. Skills are inherently developed during participation.

a.) specialization
b.) deliberate play
c.) diverse training
d.) deliberate practice

A

b.) deliberate play

77
Q

Many characteristics of consultants are valued by clients. Which of the following is typically the least valued?

a.) professional status
b.) interpersonal skills
c.) race
d.) attire

A

c.) race

78
Q

An athlete’s performance issues can be caused by what kind of problems?

a.) biomechanical
b.) psychological
c.) physiological
d.) all answer choices are possible

A

d.) all answer choices are possible

79
Q

___________ influence the psychological factors that can facilitate or disrupt motor performance, and when performed appropriately, enable performers to get one step closer to their performance potential.

a.) thoughts
b) neurons
c.) psychological skills
d.) muscle physiology

A

c.) psychological skills

80
Q

Information delivery that relies on observational learning is known as…

a.) implicit feedback
b.) verbal instruction
c.) implicit discovery
d.) demonstration

A

d.) demonstration

81
Q

Michael doesn’t enjoy the training program he is engaging in, but he knows it will get him one step closer to his goals to become a starter for an NBA team. Michael’s motivation is currently regulated at the ____________ level.

a.) identified
b.) introjected
c.) integrated
d.) intrinsic

A

a.) identified

82
Q

IZOF proposes that 5 dimensions of psychobiosocial states exist, which does NOT include …

a.) intensity
b.) mood
c.) time
d.) form
e.) content
f.) context

A

b.) mood

83
Q

True or False: emotions influence motor performance in terms of modifying reaction time, force output magnitude, and maintenance/control of force.

A

True

84
Q

Cyntrice’s coach describes the approach-oriented attacking strategy that Cyntrice performs when she is angry. This observation is consistent with the ______ level of Affect Driven Action Model (ADAM).

a.) social context & consequences
b.) cognitive modulation
c.) distance regulation
d.) biological predisposition

A

c.) distance regulation

85
Q

____________ refers to the experiences, reactions and processes in emotions.

a.) emotional state
b.) emotionality
c.) meta-emotion

A

a.) emotional state

86
Q

__________ refers to the patterns, dispositions and traits in emotions.

a.) emotional state
b.) emotionality
c.) meta-emotion

A

b.) emotionality

87
Q

Two of the physiological sensations associated with relaxation and emphasized in autogenic training include feeling _________ and ________ in the extremities.

a.) warmth and lightness
b.) warmth and heaviness
c.) cold and lightness
d.) cold and. heaviness

A

b.) warmth and heaviness

88
Q

The objective of stress inoculation training is to ….

a.) teach people that stress is predominantly in their minds
b.) expose individuals to acute amounts of stress to enhance their immunity to it
c.) help individuals obtain states of hypoxia by attenuating breathing
d.) sensitize individuals to stress, increasing their ability to obtain increased arousal states

A

b.) expose individuals to acute amounts of stress to enhance their immunity to it

89
Q

Cyntrice’s consultant uses their sessions to increase her exposure to a higher volume and intensity of anger inducing stimuli. The consultant is using ____________ to help her prepare for the anger inducing stimuli she will likely experience in an active performance context.

a.) attentional focus
b.) cognitive reappraisal
c.) autogenic training
d.) systematic desensitization
e.) biofeedback

A

d.) systematic desensitization

90
Q

Joe is always concerned with comparing his ability to others and to winning. He has a…

a.) attributional goal orientation
b.) outcome goal orientation
c) task goal orientation
d) mastery goal orientation

A

b.) outcome goal orientation

91
Q

______________ is defined as a disposition to strive for satisfaction when making comparisons with a standard of excellence in the presence of evaluating others.

a.) self-esteem
b.) competitiveness
c.) self-confidence
d.) achievement motivation

A

b.) competitiveness

92
Q

Which of the following are correct concerning findings related to Need Achievement Theory?

a.) high achievers enjoy evaluating their abilities
b.) low achievers often become preoccupied with failure thoughts
c.) high achievers have high motive to achieve success and low motive to avoid failure
d.) all of the above

A

d.) all of the above

93
Q

____________ is a state of focused attention on task and is resistant to distraction from irrelevant external or internal stimuli.

a.) distractor
b.) attention
c.) perception
d.) concentration

A

d.) concentration

94
Q

With ___________ learning, the coach provides the athlete with an example or illustration of what the movement should look like.

a.) errorless learning
b.) explicit learning
c.) analogy learning
d.) discovery learning

A

c.) analogy learning

95
Q

With ___________ learning, a task is modified to increase the likelihood of successful performance.

a.) errorless learning
b.) explicit learning
c.) analogy learning
d.) discovery learning

A

a.) errorless learning

96
Q

Biofeedback or more traditional coaching methods should be utilized to _______ and _________ attention training programs.

a.) identify; plan
b.) evaluate; adapt
c.) assess; culminate

A

b.) evaluate; adapt

97
Q

Effective attenders…

a.) flexibly manage attention
b.) train with concentration grids
c.) focus on only one cue

A

a.) flexibly manage attention

98
Q

A coach describes a player’s performance failure as occurring when the player was overwhelmed by the situation and could not see the game like they normally do. The coach is describing what property of attention?

a.) automatized skill
b.) skill limited by available resources
c.) trainable skill
d.) context specific skill

A

b.) skill limited by available resources

99
Q

The Modality characteristic of imagery indicates that mental imagery can involve the _______ sense.

a.) olfactory
b.) visual
c.) auditory
d.) all are correct

A

d.) all are correct

100
Q

Hardy identifies 5 __________ of self-talk, which include cognitive specific, cognitive general, mastery, arousal and persistence.

a.) outcomes
b.) characteristics
c.) functions
d.) sub-functions

A

d.) sub-functions

101
Q

The overarching principle that guides PETTLEP based imagery interventions is that mental imagery should aim to be ____________ actual performance.

a.) completed prior to
b.) completed during
c.) functionally equivalent to

A

c.) functionally equivalent to

102
Q

According to Hardy, automaticity, frequency, overtness, valence and interpretation are the _________ of self-talk.

a.) outcomes
b.) characteristics
c.) functions
d.) sub-functions

A

b.) characteristics

103
Q

Nate’s consultant recommends he add a self-talk component that cues his attention to the target of his passing game. This is an example of…

a.) cognitive specific self-talk
b.) cognitive general self-talk
c.) mastery self-talk
d.) arousal self-talk
e.) persistence self-talk

A

a.) cognitive specific self-talk