Apheresis - Plasmapheresis Flashcards

1
Q

What are the subtypes of Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

A

Classic is demyelinating (AIDP)
ASMAN/AMAN (axonal damage)
Miller-Fischer (ophthalmoplegia and ataxia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the treatment of Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

A

Respiratory support, TPE and/or IVIG (equivalent). Steroids are not helpful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What defines CIDP?

A

2+ months of chronic symptoms consistent with AIDP (motor/sensory loss).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the treatment of CIDP?

A

TPE is first-line if severe. IVIG is comparably good.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is peripheral neuropathy with monoclonal gammopathy treated?

A

Because they are usually IgM-mediated, they should respond to plasma exchange. Exception: POEMS does not respond.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What serologies are seen in Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Most cases have an anti-AChR, some have anti-MuSK, and some are seronegative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is myasthenia gravis treated?

A

Symptomatic treatment (stigmines), immunosuppression, thymectomy (many a/w malignant thymoma), TPE or IVIG (equivalent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does LEMS compare to MG?

A

LEMS patients may often present with pain, but not diplopia/dysarthria. TPE is somewhat less effective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What antibodies are implicated in LEMS?

A

Antibodies against presynaptic antigens, mostly P/Q/N voltage-gated calcium channels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Stiff-person syndrome

A

Caused by antibody to Glutamic Acid Decarboxylase, maybe Gephyrin. Extremely poorly described.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MS/NMO

A

Not antibody-mediated, though NMO does have anti-aquaporin antibodies. NMO is better indication than MS, but reserve TPE for severe cases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do the microthrombi in TTP differ from those in DIC?

A

TTP microthrombi generally lack fibrin and inflammatory cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are some causes of atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome?

A

Abnormalities of Factor H, Factor I, or CD46 (inborn deficiency vs acquired inihibitors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some secondary causes of thrombotic microangiopathies?

A

Infection (incl. HIV), CVDs (SLE), drugs (ticlopidine, quinine), pregnancy…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the consequences of major incompatible ABO mismatched HSCT?

A

Hemolysis of red cells in product.
Delayed engraftment.
Pure red cell aplasia (destruction of normoblasts in product)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the consequences of minor incompatible ABO mismatched HSCT?

A

Hemolysis of patient red cells, passenger lymphocyte syndrome

17
Q

How can apheresis be helpful pre-hSCT-transplant?

A

In major incompatibility, reduces isohemagglutinins. In minor incompatibility (RCX!), can “convert” patient’s type temporarily.

18
Q

What is the role of TPE in aplastic anemia?

A

Basically no role (not even in ASFA), despite some cases being immune-mediated (others: drug, virus, acquired clonal)

19
Q

What autoimmune hemolytic anemias should respond to TPE?

A

Cold hemolytic anemias moreso than warms, due to IgM more often than IgG (exception: PCH)

20
Q

What is the role of TPE in ITP?

A

Not great; ancient and scant data. Would not recommend.

21
Q

What is the role of TPE in hemophila?

A

Can reduce high-strength (>5 BU) inhibitors, but not really favored.

22
Q

What are the three types of cryoglobulinemias?

A

Type I: IgG or IgM monoclonal
Type II: IgM (mono) or IgG (poly); HCV-assoc
Type III: Polyclonal, associated with infection

23
Q

At what serum viscosity should patients become symptomatic?

A

Above 4-6x viscosity of water.

24
Q

How should TPE be timed with rituximab?

A

Always done before rituximab, both to not remove antibody and because of temporary IgM worsening with rituximab infusion.

25
Q

What is the recommended regimen for treatment of Goodpasture?

A

Exchange daily and at least partially with FFP.

26
Q

What is the role of TPE in treating the rapidly progressive glomerulonephritides?

A

Maybe some benefit if concomitant pulmonary hemorrhage (PEXIVAS?). ASFA categories range from I-III.

27
Q

How should myeloma cast nephropathies be treated?

A

Treat underlying myeloma. Mixed evidence for benefit of TPE. Standard dialysis will not remove free light chains.

28
Q

What is the role of TPE in lupus?

A

May actually worsen disease due to antibody rebound; reserve for severe cases or secondary complications like TTP or antiphospholipid syndrome.

29
Q

What is the role of TPE in scleroderma?

A

Mixed; ECP may be superior. Reserve for scleroderma renal crisis?

30
Q

What is the role of TPE in GVHD?

A

Extremely limited, due to markedly better efficacy of extracorporeal photopheresis.

31
Q

How can TPE be used in the pre- and post-transplant settings?

A

Pre: Reduce isohemagglutinins for ABO-incompatible transplants, reduce DSA/PRA pre-transplant.
Post: Reduce DSA, antibody-mediated rejection.

32
Q

What isohemagglutinin titer is recommended for safe ABO-incompatible transplant?

A

16

33
Q

How is recurrent FSGS treated?

A

TPE is first-line (as compared to primary FSGS, which is chronic and irreversible).

34
Q

What is the role of TPE in heart, liver, and lung transplant?

A

Not popular; cellular rejection is more common and is treated with ECP. HLA tolerizing is not practical pre-transplant. ECP also treats AMR…

35
Q

How does HUS present differently from TTP?

A

More renal manifestations, fewer neuro manifestations.

36
Q

What is the normal viscosity of plasma? At what levels can symptoms set in?

A

1.4 - 1.8 centipoise

Symptomatic hyperviscosity above 4 centripoise.

37
Q

At what plasma levels does each paraprotein isotype cause hyperviscosity?

A

IgM: 3 g/dL
IgG: 4 g/dL
IgA: 6 g/dL