AP Psychology big exam Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

psychology

A

the scientific study of behavior and mental processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

functionalism

A

an early school of psychology countering structuralism that focused on how our minds and behaviors enable us to adapt, survive, and flourish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

behaviorism

A

the view that psychology should be an objective science that studies behavior without reference to mental processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Wilhelm Wundt

A

a German who established the first psychological laboratory in 1879

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Structuralism

A

an early school of psychology that used introspection to explore the structural elements of the human mind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Evolutionary psychology

A

the study of the evolution of behavior and the mind, using principles of natural selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Gestalt psychology

A

a psychological approach that emphasizes that we often perceive the whole rather than the sum of the parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

William James

A

an American psychologist who founded functionalism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Introspection

A

the process of looking inward in an attempt to directly observe one’s own psychological processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Natural selection

A

Charles Darwin’s principle that traits contributing to reproduction and survival will most likely be passed on to succeeding generations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

cognitive psychology

A

the scientific study of mental processes, including perception, thought, memory, and reasoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Mary Whiton Calkins

A

the first woman president of the APA (American Psychological Association)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Case study

A

a research method in which one individual or group is studied in depth in the hope of revealing universal principles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

positive correlation

A

as one variable increases or decreases, so does the other in the same direction (e.g. practice and performance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

scatterplot

A

a graphed cluster of dots, each of which represents the values of two variables. The amount of scatter suggests the strength of the correlation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

independent variable

A

in an experiment, the variable whose effect is being studied. It is what is controlled by the experimenter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

naturalistic observation

A

observing and recording behavior in naturally occurring situations without trying to manipulate and control the situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

negative correlation

A

as one variable increases, the other decreases (e.g. stress and health)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

experimental group

A

in an experiment, the group exposed to the independent variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

dependent variable

A

in an experiment, the outcome that is measured; the variable that may change in response to the independent variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

survey

A

a technique for obtaining the self-reported attitudes or behaviors of a particular group, usually by questioning a random sample of the group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

correlation coefficient

A

a statistical index of the relationship between two things (from -1.00 to +1.00)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

control group

A

in an experiment, the group not exposed to the independent variable that serves as a comparison for evaluating the effect of the treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

random sample

A

a sample that fairly represents a population because each member has an equal chance of inclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

random assignment

A

assigning participants to experimental and control groups by chance, thus minimizing preexisting differences between the different groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

placebo effect

A

a “fake” pill that has no therapeutic effect, used as a control in testing new drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

mean

A

the arithmetic average of a distribution, obtained by adding the scores and then dividing by the number of scores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

range

A

the difference between the highest and lowest scores in a distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

operational definition

A

a statement of the exact procedures (or operations) used in a research study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

informed consent

A

giving potential participants enough information about a study to enable them to choose whether they wish to participate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

median

A

the middle score in a distribution; half the scores are above it and half are below it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

standard deviation

A

a computed measure of how much scores vary around the mean score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

replication

A

repeating the essence of a research study to see whether the basic finding can be reproduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

debriefing

A

the post-experimental explanation of a study, including its purpose and any deceptions, to its participants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

mode

A

the most frequently occurring score(s) in a distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

normal distribution

A

a bell-shaped curve, describing the spread of a characteristic throughout a population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

sensation

A

the process by which our sensory receptors and nervous system receive and represent stimulus energies from our environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

signal detection theory

A

a theory that assumes there is no single absolute threshold and that detection depends partly on a person’s experience, expectations, motivation, and alertness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

top-down processing

A

information processing guided by higher-level mental processes, as when we construct perceptions drawing on our experience and expectations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

pupil

A

the adjustable opening in the center of the eye through which light enters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

perception

A

the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information, enabling us to recognize meaningful objects and events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

difference threshold

A

the minimum difference between two stimuli required for detection; sometimes called the just noticeable difference (j.n.d.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

bottom-up processing

A

analysis that begins with the sensory receptors and works up to the brain’s integration of sensory information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

lens

A

the transparent structure behind the pupil that changes shape to help focus images on the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

absolute threshold

A

the minimum stimulus energy needed to detect a particular stimulus 50 percent of the time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Weber’s law

A

the principle that, to be perceived as different, two stimuli must differ by a constant percentage (rather than a constant amount)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

sensory adaptation

A

diminished sensitivity as a consequence of constant stimulation (e.g. getting used to the temperature of a pool)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

accommodation

A

the process by which the eye’s lens changes shape to focus near or far objects on the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

retina

A

the light-sensitive inner surface of the eye, containing the receptor rods and cones plus layers of neurons that begin the processing of visual information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

transduction

A

in sensation, the transforming of stimulus energies, such as sights and sounds, into neural impulses our brains can interpret

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

retinal disparity

A

by comparing retinal images from the two eyes, the brain computes distance; the greater the disparity (difference) between the two, the closer the object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

vestibular sense

A

our sense of body movement and position that enables our sense of balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

rods

A

retinal receptors that detect black, white, and gray, and are necessary for peripheral and twilight vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

optic nerve

A

the nerve that carries neural impulses from the eye to the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

cochlea

A

a coiled, bony, fluid-filled tube in the inner ear through which sound waves trigger nerve impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

gate control theory

A

the theory that the spinal cord contains a neurological “gate” that blocks pain signals or allows them to pass on to the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

cones

A

retinal receptor cells that detect fine detail and give rise to color sensations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

trichromatic theory

A

the theory that the firing of red, green, and blue cones cause color vision. Also known as the Young-Helmholtz theory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

olfaction

A

the sense of smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

perceptual constancy

A

perceiving objects as unchanging (having consistent color, shape, and size) even as illumination and retinal images change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Neurons

A

a nerve cell; the basic building block of the nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Myelin sheath

A

a fatty tissue that covers the axons of some neurons and helps speed neural impulses as the impulse hops from one node to the next

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

endorphins

A

natural, opiate-like neurotransmitters linked to pain control and to pleasure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

motor neurons

A

neurons that carry outgoing information from the brain and spinal cord to the muscles and glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

axon

A

the extension of a neuron that passes messages to other neurons or to muscles or glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

synapse

A

the meeting point between the axon tip of the sending neuron and the dendrite or cell body of the receiving neuron. The tiny gap at this site is called the synaptic gap or synaptic cleft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

acetylcholine (Ach)

A

a neurotransmitter that enables muscle action, learning and memory. With Alzheimer’s disease, neurons that produce this deteriorate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Hormones

A

chemical messengers produced by endocrine glands that are carried by the bloodstream to other body tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Dendrites

A

a neuron’s branching extensions that receive messages from other cells and conduct impulses toward the cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

neurotransmitters

A

chemical messengers that cross the synaptic gaps between neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

sensory neurons

A

neurons that carry incoming information from the body’s tissues and sensory receptors to the brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

pituitary gland

A

the endocrine system’s most influential gland that regulates growth and controls other endocrine glands. This gland is influenced by the brain’s hypothalamus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

central nervous system

A

the brain and spinal cord make up this division of the nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

autonomic nervous system

A

the division of the peripheral nervous system that controls the glands and the muscles of internal organs (like the heart)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

medulla

A

the base of the brainstem that controls heartbeat and breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

limbic system

A

a neural system associated with emotions and drives that includes the amygdala, hypothalamus, and hippocampus. This system is located below the cerebral hemispheres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

peripheral nervous system

A

all of the neurons that are not in the central nervous system. Carries information to and from the central nervous system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

sympathetic nervous system

A

a subdivision of the autonomic nervous system that activates nerves, glands and muscles in times of stress or threat, preparing the body for action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

cerebellum

A

this brain structure coordinates movement output and balance and enables nonverbal learning and memory. It is located at the rear of the brainstem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

hypothalamus

A

a neural structure that directs eating, drinking, and body temperature, helps govern the endocrine system, and is linked to emotion and reward. It is located below the thalamus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

somatic nervous system

A

the division of the peripheral nervous system that controls the body’s skeletal muscles and voluntary movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

parasympathetic nervous system

A

the division of the autonomic nervous system that calms the body, conserving its energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

thalamus

A

the brain’s sensory control center. It directs messages to the sensory receiving areas in the cortex and transmits replies to the cerebellum and medulla.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

amygdala

A

two neural clusters in the limbic system linked to emotion, specifically aggression and fear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

hippocampus

A

a neural center in the limbic system that helps process explicit memories of facts and events for storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

motor cortex

A

an area at the rear of the frontal lobes that controls voluntary movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

parietal lobes

A

the portion of the cerebral cortex that receives sensory input for touch and body position. These lobes lie at the top of the head and toward the rear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A

a technique to show brain anatomy that uses magnetic fields and radio waves to produce computer-generated images of soft tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

corpus callosum

A

the large band of neural fibers connecting the two brain hemispheres and carrying messages between them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Broca’s area

A

an area of the frontal lobe that controls language expression by directing the muscle movements involved in speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

temporal lobes

A

the portion of the cerebral cortex that includes auditory areas that receive information from the ears. These lobes are roughly above the ears.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Functional MRI (fMRI)

A

these scans show brain function and structure by revealing bloodflow and comparing successive MRI scans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Frontal lobes

A

the portion of the cerebral cortex involved in speaking, muscle movements, making plans and judgement. These lobes lie just behind the forehead.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

occipital lobes

A

the portion of the cerebral cortex that receives information from the visual fields. These lobes are located at the back of the head.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Electroencephalogram (EEG)

A

an amplified recording of the waves of electrical activity that sweep across the brain’s surface measured by electrodes placed on the scalp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Positron emission tomography (PET)

A

a visual display of brain activity that detects where a radioactive form of glucose goes while the brain performs a given task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Behavioral genetics

A

the study of the relative power and limits of genetic and environmental influences on behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

REM sleep

A

rapid eye movement sleep; a recurring sleep stage during which vivid dreams commonly occur. The muscles are relaxed but other body systems are active in this stage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

sleep apnea

A

a sleep disorder characterized by temporary cessations of breathing (in which breathing stops) during sleep and repeated momentary awakenings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

classical conditioning

A

a type of learning in which we link two or more stimuli; as a result, the first stimulus leads to a response in anticipation of the second stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

heritability

A

the extent to which differences among individuals can be attributed to their differing genes. This statistic takes a value between 0 and 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

insomnia

A

a sleep disorder characterized by recurring problems in falling or staying asleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

stimulants

A

drugs (such as caffeine, nicotine, and cocaine) that excite neural activity and speed up body functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

unconditioned stimulus (UCS)

A

in classical conditioning, a stimulus that naturally and automatically triggers an unconditioned response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

circadian rhythm

A

our biological clock; regular bodily rhythms that occur on a 24-hour cycle (for example, temperature and wakefulness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

narcolepsy

A

a sleep disorder characterized by uncontrollable sleep attacks. The sufferer may lapse directly into REM sleep, often at inopportune times.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

depressants

A

drugs (such as alcohol) that reduce neural activity and slow body functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

unconditioned response (UCR)

A

in classical conditioning, an unlearned, naturally occurring response to an unconditioned stimulus (such as salivation to food in the mouth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

conditioned stimulus (CS)

A

in classical conditioning, an originally neutral stimulus that, after association with an unconditioned stimulus, comes to trigger a conditioned response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

stimulus discrimination

A

in classical conditioning, the learned ability to distinguish between a conditioned stimulus and similar stimuli that do not signal an unconditioned stimulus. (In operant conditioning, the ability to distinguish responses that are reinforced from similar responses that are not reinforced.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

operant conditioning

A

a type of learning in which a behavior becomes more likely to recur if followed by a reinforcer or less likely to recur if followed by a punisher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

schedules of reinforcement

A

in operant conditioning, any event that strengthens the behavior it follows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Conditioned response (CR)

A

in classical conditioning, a learned response to a previously neutral (but now conditioned) stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

extinction

A

the diminishing of a conditioned response; occurs in classical conditioning when an unconditioned stimulus (US) does not follow a conditioned stimulus (CS); occurs in operant conditioning when a response is no longer reinforced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

reinforcement

A

in operant conditioning, any event that strengthens the behavior it follows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

punishment

A

an event that tends to decrease the behavior that it follows

117
Q

stimulus generalization

A

the tendency, once a response has been conditioned, for stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus to elicit similar responses. (In operant conditioning, generalization occurs when responses learned in one situation occurs in other, similar situations.)

118
Q

spontaneous recovery

A

the reappearance, after a pause, of a previously extinguished conditioned response

119
Q

shaping

A

an operant conditioning procedure in which reinforcers guide behavior toward closer and closer approximations of the desired behavior

120
Q

observational learning

A

learning by observing others (also called social learning)

121
Q

sensory memory

A

the immediate, very brief recording of sensory information in the memory system

122
Q

explicit memory

A

retention of facts and experiences that one can consciously know and “declare” (also called declarative memory)

123
Q

flashbulb memory

A

a clear, sustained memory of an emotionally significant moment or event

124
Q

encoding

A

the process of getting information into the memory system

125
Q

working memory

A

a newer understanding of short-term memory that adds conscious active processing of incoming information and of information retrieved from long-term memory

126
Q

semantic memory

A

explicit memory of facts and general knowledge

127
Q

implicit memory

A

retention of learned skills or classically conditioned associations independent of conscious recollection

128
Q

storage

A

the process of retaining encoded information over time

129
Q

long term memory

A

the relatively permanent and limitless storehouse of the memory system

130
Q

episodic memory

A

explicit memory of personally experienced events

131
Q

procedural memory

A

a type of long-term memory of how to perform different actions and skills

132
Q

retrieval

A

the process of getting information out of memory storage

133
Q

long term potentiation (LTP)

A

an increase in a cell’s firing potential after brief, rapid stimulation. This is believed to be a neural basis for learning and memory.

134
Q

Priming

A

the activation, often unconsciously, of particular associations in memory

135
Q

Retroactive interference

A

the disruptive effect of newer learning on the recall of old information

136
Q

proactive interference

A

the disruptive effect of older learning on the recall of new information

137
Q

retrograde amnesia

A

an inability to retrieve information from one’s past

138
Q

Mnemonic devices

A

memory aids, especially those techniques that use vivid imagery and organizational devices

139
Q

serial position effect

A

our tendency to recall best the last and first items in a list

140
Q

anterograde amnesia

A

an inability to form new memories

141
Q

Henry Molaison (Patient H.M.)

A

a famous patient in the history of neuroscience who, because of damage to medial temporal lobe structures, was unable to encode new, explicit memories of facts and experiences

142
Q

Elizabeth Loftus

A

psychologist involved with analyzing vivid memories triggered by brain stimulation (found that seeming flashbacks appeared to be invented, not relived)

143
Q

Cognition

A

all the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating

144
Q

Concept

A

a mental grouping of similar objects, events, ideas, or people

145
Q

prototype

A

a mental image or best example of a category

146
Q

Algorithm

A

a methodical, logical rule or procedure that guarantees solving a particular problem

147
Q

Heuristic

A

a simple thinking strategy that often allows us to make judgements and solve problems efficiently; usually speedier but also more error-prone than algorithms

148
Q

Availability heuristic

A

estimating the likelihood of events based on their availability in memory; if instances come readily to mind, we presume such events are common

149
Q

representativeness heuristic

A

estimating the likelihood of events in terms of how well they seem to represent, or match, particular prototypes, which may lead us to ignore other relevant information

150
Q

insight

A

a sudden realization of a problem’s solution; contrasts with strategy-based solutions

151
Q

confirmation bias

A

a tendency to search for information that supports our preconceptions and to ignore or distort contradictory evidence

152
Q

belief perseverance

A

clinging to one’s initial beliefs after the basis on which they were formed has been discredited

153
Q

framing effect

A

the way an issue is posed; how an issue is worded can significantly affect decisions and judgements

154
Q

mental set

A

a tendency to approach a problem in one particular way, often a way that has been successful in the past

155
Q

phoneme

A

in language, the smallest distinctive sound unit

156
Q

morpheme

A

in a language, the smallest unit that carries meaning; may be a word or a part of a word (such as a prefix)

157
Q

semantics

A

the set of rules by which we derive meaning from morphemes, words, and sentences in a given language; also, the study of meaning

158
Q

syntax

A

the rules for combining words into grammatically sensible sentences in a given language

159
Q

crystallized intelligence

A

our accumulated knowledge and verbal skills, which tends to increase with age

160
Q

fluid intelligence

A

our ability to reason speedily and abstractly, which tends to decrease during late adulthood

161
Q

“g” factor

A

intelligence that underlies all mental abilities and is therefore measured by every task on an intelligence test

162
Q

triarchic theory of intelligence

A

Robert Sternberg’s theory of intelligence that describes intelligence as having analytic, creative, and practical dimensions

163
Q

creative intelligence

A

the ability to produce new and valuable ideas

164
Q

Divergent thinking

A

creative thinking that provides a number of different answers

165
Q

convergent thinking

A

thinking that provides a single correct answer

166
Q

factor analysis

A

a statistical procedure that indentifies clusters of related test items on a test; used to identify different dimensions of performance that underlie one’s total score

167
Q

Analytical intelligence

A

(academic-problem-solving)
traditional intelligence traits

168
Q

practical intelligence

A

required for everyday tasks where multiple solutions exist

169
Q

Gardner’s multiple intelligences

A

visual/spatial
verbal/linguistic
musical/rhythmic
logical/mathematical
bodily/kinesthetic
interpersonal
interpersonal
natural

170
Q

emotional intelligence

A

the ability to perceive, understand, manage, and use emotions

171
Q

intelligence quotient (IQ)

A

defined originally as the ratio of mental age to chronological age multiplied by 100. (On contemporary intelligence tests, the average performance for a given age is assigned a score of 100.)

172
Q

mental age

A

a measure of intelligence test performance devised by Alfred Binet; the level of performance typically associated with children of a certain chronological age

173
Q

Alfred Binet

A

French psychologist best remembered for developing the first widely used intelligence test

174
Q

Standardization

A

defining uniform testing procedures and meaningful scores by comparison with the performance of a pretested group

175
Q

Validity

A

the extent to which a test measures or predicts what it is supposed to

176
Q

Reliability

A

the extent to which a test yields consistent results, as assessed by the consistency of scores on two halves of the test, on alternate forms of the test, or on retesting

177
Q

David Wechsler

A

creator of the most widely used intelligence test, WAIS, his test contains both verbal and performance (nonverbal) tests

178
Q

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS)

A

the most widely used intelligence test containing verbal and performance (nonverbal) subtests

179
Q

developmental psychology

A

a branch of psychology that studies physical, cognitive, and social change throughout the life span

180
Q

longitudinal study

A

research that follows and retests the same people over time

181
Q

cross sectional study

A

research that compares people of different ages at the same point in time

182
Q

zygote

A

the fertilized egg; it enters a 2-week period of rapid cell division and develops into an embryo

183
Q

fetus

A

the developing human organism from 9 weeks after conception to birth

184
Q

teratogens

A

substances that can reach the embryo or fetus during prenatal development and cause harm

185
Q

fetal alcohol syndrome

A

physical and cognitive abnormalities in children caused by a pregnant woman’s heavy drinking

186
Q

cognitive development

A

The process by which a child’s understanding of the world changes due to their age and experience.

187
Q

Jean Piaget

A

a developmental psychologist who studied cognition; his studies led him to believe that a child’s mind develops through a series of 4 stages

188
Q

schemas

A

a concept or framework that organizes and interprets information

189
Q

assimilation

A

interpreting our new experiences in terms of our existing schemas

190
Q

accommodation

A

adapting our current understandings (schemas) to incorporate new information

191
Q

sensorimotor stage

A

in Piaget’s theory, the stage during which infants know the world mostly in terms of their sensory impressions and motor activities

192
Q

object permanence

A

the awareness that things continue to exist even when not seen

193
Q

preoperational stage

A

in Piaget’s theory, the stage during which a child learns to use language but does not yet comprehend the mental operations of concrete logic

194
Q

egocentrism

A

in Piaget’s theory, the preoperational child’s difficulty taking another’s point of view

195
Q

concrete operational stage

A

in Piaget’s theory, the stage of cognitive development during which children gain the mental operations that enable them to think logically about concrete events

196
Q

conservation

A

the principle that properties such as mass, volume, and number remain the same despite changes in the forms of objects

197
Q

formal operational stage

A

in Piaget’s theory, the stage of cognitive development during which people begin to think logically about abstract concepts

198
Q

attachment

A

an emotional tie with another person; shown in young children by their seeking closeness to their caregiver and showing distress on separation

199
Q

imprinting

A

the process by which certain animals form strong attachments during early life

200
Q

authoritarian parenting

A

a parenting style characterized by strict rules and expected obedience

201
Q

authoritative parenting

A

a parenting style characterized by demands, but warmth; these parents encourage open discuss and allow exceptions

202
Q

permissive parenting

A

a parenting style characterized by few demands and little punishment

203
Q

levels of moral reasoning

A
204
Q

Erik Erikson

A

a developmental psychologist who contended each stage of life has its own psychosocial task, a crisis that needs resolution

205
Q

trust vs. mistrust

A

Erikson’s stage in infancy in which infants develop a sense of basic trust if needs are dependably met

206
Q

identity vs. role confusion

A

Erikson’s stage in adolescence in which teenagers work at refining a sense of self, or they become confused about who they are

207
Q

integrity vs. despair

A

Erikson’s stage in late adulthood in which adults, reflecting on their lives, may feel a sense of satisfaction or failure

208
Q

Alzheimer’s disease

A

a neurocognitive disorder, often with onset after age 80, entailing a progressive decline in memory and other cognitive abilities

209
Q

intrinsic motivation

A

a desire to perform a behavior for its own sake

210
Q

extrinsic motivation

A

a desire to perform a behavior due to promised rewards or threats of punishment

211
Q

instincts

A

an innate behavior that is rigidly patterned throughout a species and is unlearned (i.e. imprinting, rooting)

212
Q

drive-reduction theory

A

the idea that a physiological need creates an aroused state (a drive, like hunger) that motivates an organism to satisfy the need

213
Q

incentives

A

a positive or negative environmental stimulus that motivates behavior

214
Q

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

A

Abraham Maslow’s pyramid of human needs, beginning at the base with physiological needs that must first be satisfied before higher-level safety needs and then psychological needs (love, esteem, and self-actualization) become active

215
Q

self-actualization

A

according to Abraham Maslow, the need to live up to our fullest and unique potential

216
Q

James-Lange theory

A

the theory that our experience of emotion is our awareness of our physiological responses to emotion-arousing stimuli: stimulus -> arousal -> emotion

217
Q

Cannon-Bard theory

A

the theory that an emotion-arousing stimulus simultaneously triggers physiological responses and the subjective experience of emotion

218
Q

Two-factor theory

A

Schachter and Singer’s theory that to experience emotion one must (1) be physically aroused and (2) cognitively label the arousal

219
Q

Type A personality

A

a behavior pattern marked by a sense of time urgency, impatience, excessive competitiveness, hostility, and anger

220
Q

type B personality

A

a behavior pattern marked by a relaxed, easygoing approach to life, without the urgency, impatience, and hostility of the Type A pattern

221
Q

big five personality factors

A

five basic personality traits (neuroticism, extraversion, openness to experience, agreeableness, and conscientiousness) from which other traits are derived

222
Q

projective tests

A

a personality test, such as the Rorschach or TAT, that provides ambiguous stimuli designed to trigger projection of one’s inner dynamics

223
Q

Rorschach inkblot test

A

the most widely used projective test, a set of 10 inkblots that seeks to identify people’s inner feelings by analyzing their interpretations of the blots

224
Q

Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)

A

a projective test in which people express their inner feelings and interests through the stories they make up about ambiguous scenes

225
Q

Sigmund Freud

A

the founder of psychoanalysis, which is a controversial theory about the workings of the unconscious mind

226
Q

Psychoanalysis

A

Sigmund Freud’s theory of personality that attributes childhood experiences and unconscious motivations to personality development

227
Q

Id

A

according to Freud, the structure of the personality that is a reservoir of unconscious psychic energy that strives to satisfy basic drives

228
Q

Ego

A

according to Freud, the largely conscious “executive” part of personality that mediates among the demands of the id, superego, and reality

229
Q

Superego

A

according to Freud, the part of personality that provides a sense of morality (a conscience)

230
Q

Defense mechanisms

A

in psychoanalytic theory, the ego’s protective methods of reducing anxiety by unconsciously distorting reality

231
Q

repression

A

the basic defense mechanism that banishes anxiety-arousing thoughts, feelings, and memories from consciousness

232
Q

reaction formation

A

a defense mechanism by which the ego switches unacceptable impulses into their opposites

233
Q

projection

A

a defense mechanism by which people disguise their own threatening impulses by attributing them to others

234
Q

displacement

A

a defense mechanism that shifts impulses toward a less threatening object or person

235
Q

Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

A

a personality test that taps four characteristics and classifies people into 1 of 16 personality types

236
Q

reciprocal determinism

A

the interacting influences of behavior, internal cognition, and environment

237
Q

spotlight effect

A

overestimating others’ noticing and evaluating our appearance, performance, and blunders

238
Q

Dunning-Kruger effect

A

the tendency for unskilled individuals to overestimate their own ability and the tendency for experts to underestimate their own ability

239
Q

DSM-5

A

the current Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders used for classifying psychological disorders

240
Q

Generalized anxiety disorder

A

an anxiety disorder characterized by pervasive anxiety not connected to any one, specific stimulus

241
Q

panic disorder

A

an anxiety disorder characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks

242
Q

agoraphobia

A

fear or avoidance of situations, such as crowds or wide open places, where one has felt loss of control and panic

243
Q

obsessive-compulsive disorder

A

a disorder characterized by unwanted repetitive thoughts (obsessions), actions (compulsions), or both

244
Q

major depressive disorder

A

a disorder characterized by two weeks or more of low mood or loss of interest or pleasure, among other symptoms

245
Q

bipolar disorder

A

a disorder in which a person alternates between the hopelessness and lethargy of depression and the overexcited state of mania

246
Q

mania

A

a hyperactive, wildly optimistic state in which dangerously poor judgement is common, characteristic of bipolar disorder

247
Q

schizophrenia

A

a disorder characterized by delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and/or diminished, inappropriate emotional expression

248
Q

hallucinations

A

false sensory experiences, such as seeing something in the absence of an external visual stimulus

249
Q

delusions

A

a false belief, often of persecution or grandeur, that may accompany psychotic disorders

250
Q

dissociative identity disorder

A

a disorder in which a person exhibits two or more distinct and alternating personalities, formerly called multiple personality disorder

251
Q

antipsychotic drugs

A

drugs used to treat schizophrenia and other forms of severe thought disorder

252
Q

antidepressant drugs

A

drugs used to treat depression, anxiety, OCD, and PTSD. Several widely used ones are SSRIs - selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

253
Q

electroconvulsive therapy

A

a biomedical therapy for severely depressed patients in which a brief electric current is sent through the brain of an anesthetized patient

254
Q

psychotherapy

A

treatment involving psychological, rather than biological, techniques, such as psychoanalysis or exposure therapy

255
Q

cognitive-behavioral therapy

A

therapy that combines cognitive therapy (changing self-defeating thinking) with behavior therapy (changing behavior)

256
Q

Rational-emotive behavioral therapy

A

a confrontational cognitive therapy that vigorously challenges people’s illogical, self-defeating attitudes and assumptions

257
Q

systematic desensitization

A

a type of exposure therapy that associates a pleasant relaxed state with gradually increasing anxiety-triggering stimuli. Commonly used to treat phobias

258
Q

token economy

A

an operant conditioning procedure in which people earn a token for exhibiting a desired behavior and can later exchange tokens for privileges or treats

259
Q

Dorothea Dix

A

an American advocate that led the way to humane treatment for those with psychological disorders

260
Q

social psychology

A

the scientific study of how we think about, influence, and relate to one another

261
Q

fundamental attribution error

A

the tendency for observers, when analyzing another’s behavior, to underestimate the impact of the situation and to overestimate the impact of personal disposition

262
Q

self-serving bias

A

a readiness to perceive oneself favorably

263
Q

conformity

A

adjusting our behavior or thinking to coincide with a group standard

264
Q

Solomon Asch

A

social psychologist who conducted studies on conformity in which participants’ estimates of line lengths were influenced by the presence of others giving incorrect answers

265
Q

obedience

A

compliance that occurs when people follow direct commands, usually from someone in a position of authority

266
Q

Stanley Milgram

A

social psychologist who conducted studies on obedience in which participants were told by an authority figure to electrically shock another individual

267
Q

Group polarization

A

the enhancement of a group’s prevailing opinions or feelings through discussion within the group

268
Q

groupthink

A

the mode of thinking that occurs when the desire for harmony in a decision-making group overrides realistic thinking in individuals

269
Q

deindividuation

A

the loss of self-awareness and self-restraint occurring in group situations that foster arousal and anonymity

270
Q

social loafing

A

the tendency for people in a group to exert less effort when pooling their efforts toward attaining a common goal than when individually accountable

271
Q

social norms

A

understood rules for accepted and expected behavior

272
Q

social facilitation

A

improved performance on simple or well-learned tasks in the presence of others

273
Q

cognitive dissonance

A

the theory that we act to reduce the discomfort we feel when two of our thoughts are inconsistent

274
Q

self-fulfilling prophecy

A

a belief that leads to its own fulfillment

275
Q

central route persuasion

A

attitude change that occurs when people focus on the content of the arguments and respond with favorable thoughts

276
Q

peripheral route persuasion

A

attitude change that occurs when people are influenced by incidental cues, such as a speaker’s attractiveness

277
Q

foot-in-the-door technique

A

the tendency for people who have first agreed to a small request to comply later with a larger request

278
Q

Stanford prison experiment

A

Philip Zimbardo’s study that demonstrated the powerful impact of roles, perceived power, and toxic situations on attitudes and behaviors

279
Q

Philip Zimbardo

A

social psychologist who conducted the famous Stanford Prison Experiment

280
Q

Prejudice

A

an unjustifiable attitude toward a group of people and its members

281
Q

Stereotypes

A

a generalized belief about a group of people

282
Q

ingroup bias

A

the tendency to favor our own group

283
Q

discrimination

A

unjustifiable negative behavior toward a group and its members

284
Q

aggression

A

any physical or verbal behavior intended to harm someone physically or emotionally

285
Q

frustration aggression hypothesis

A

the principle that frustration (the blocking of an attempt to achieve some goal) creates anger, which can generate aggression

286
Q

biopsychosocial approach

A

an integrated approach that incorporates biological, psychological, and social-cultural viewpoints

287
Q

altruism

A

unselfish regard for the welfare of others

288
Q

bystander effect

A

the tendency for any given person to be less likely to give aid to someone in need of help if other people are present