Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

yupi-s-TiSiTi. > AOM Limitations > Flashcards

AOM Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Maximum N1, low pressure compressor limit (-4,-8)

A

-4: 117.5%
-8: 106.7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

N2, high pressure compressor, maximum (-4, -8)

A

-4: 112.5%
-8: 105.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

APU start cycle limitations

A

Between starts 1 & 2: 1min (TR wait), 1 min (batt)
Between starts 2 &3: 10 min (TR wait), 1 min (batt)
Between starts 3 & 4: 75 min (TR wait), 75 min (TR wait)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Restriction on speedbrakes inflight

A

use of spreedbrakes inflight with flaps extended beyond 20 degrees is not recommended
- DO NOT use speedbrakes below 1000ft AFE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Use of quiet climb for takeoff weights less than ___ is prohibited (-8)

A

650,000 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Fuel temperature minimum limits (-4,-8)

A

-4: Fuel freeze + 3C
-8: Fuel freeze + 3C or -48C, whichever is higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Maximum transient EGT (-4, -8)

A

-4: 870C (40 sec), during start
-8: 1060C (30 sec)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Maximum Continuous EGT ?
(-4, -8)

A

-4: 925C
-8: 1030C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

APU negative pressure altitude limit is?

A

Do not operate APU below negative 1000 feet pressure altitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Do not extend flaps between positions ___ during fuel jettison

A

1 and 5 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Maximum altitude with flaps extended

A

20,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When is reverse thrust prohibited?

A

Inflight and for backing the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In icing conditions, if engine vibration indications are available and above ___ units, do not takeoff (-8)

A

4 units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

For winds greater than ___ limit engine thrust to idle (-8)

A

55 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Engines must be shutdown when crosswind component exceeds ___ (-8).

A

55 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

For tailwind component greater than ___ and winds greater than ___, limit thrust to ___ (-8).

A

5 kts, 26 kts, 45 %N1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

For crosswind greater than ___, limit thrust to a setting not to exceed ___. (-8)

A

35 kts, 45%N1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When must continuous ignition be used (-4)

A

(auto activated with anti-ice)

  • Icing conditions;
  • Severe turbulence;
  • Heavy precipitation
  • Volcanic ash
  • Slush & Standing.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Maximum continuous and maximum transient oil temperature and time (-4, -8)

A

-4: 160 continuous, 175 transient (15 min)

-8: 160 continuous, 177 transient (15 min)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Inflight start
maximum EGT
(-4, -8)

A

-4: 750C (unlimited)

-8: 875C (unlimited)
or
975C for airstarts following inflight high power fuel cut.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Maximum takeoff EGT (-4, -8)

A

-4: 960C (5 minutes)
-8: 1060C (5 minutes, or 10 minutes if loss of thrust on engine during takeoff)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Minimum oil pressure

A

10 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ground start maximum EGT

A

750C unlimited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Autoland wind limits

A

HW 25 kts
XW 25 kts
TW 15 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Autoland glideslope angle limits

A

Maximum: 3.25 degrees
Minimum: 2.5 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Autoland flap limitations

A

Only at flaps 25 or flaps 30 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

For single channel ILS approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged before the airplane descends below ___.

A

100 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Maximum landing weight (-4, -8)

A

-4: 652,000 lbs
-8: 763,000 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Maximum zero fuel weight (-4, -8)

A

-4: 610,000 lbs
-8: 727,000 lbs

30
Q

With Aft fire suppression system armed __________.

A

Turning any pack switch off is prohibited.

31
Q

When must nacelle anti-ice be used?

A

During all ground and flight operations…
where icing conditions exist or are anticipated.

32
Q

How many window heat windows may be inoperative?

A

Only 1 number 1 or 1 number 2, provided flight is not dispatched into known icing conditions

33
Q

Use of ___ with autopilot engaged is prohibited.

A

Aileron trim

34
Q

Minimum altitude for autopilot after takeoff (-4, -8)

A

-4: 250 AGL
-8: 200 AGL

35
Q

Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must not remain engaged ___.

A

Below 100’ RA

36
Q

Do not use FLCH on final approach below ___.

A

1,000 AFE

37
Q

When do icing conditions exist?

A

10C or below in visible moisture (rain, snow, sleet, ice, fog vis below 1.0mi).

38
Q

Do not use anti ice if OAT or TAT exceeds ___.

A

10C

39
Q

Maximum differential pressure for takeoff and landing.

A

0.11 PSI

40
Q

Maximum differential pressure (relief valve).

A

9.4 PSI

41
Q

When must smoke barrier door be closed (-4, BCF)?

A

-4: During taxi, takeoff, inflight, and landing
BCF: During taxi, takeoff, and landing

42
Q

When must ladder enclosure door be closed (-8)?

A

-8: Taxi, takeoff and landing.

Enclosure must be closed inflight except when entering and leaving main deck compartment.

43
Q

Maximum fuel transfer weight (-8)

A

827,366 lbs

44
Q

Maximum takeoff weight (-4, BCF, -8)

A

-BCF: 870,000 lbs
-4: 875,000 lbs
-8: 987,000 lbs

45
Q

Maximum taxi weight (-4, BCF, -8)

A

-4: 873,000 lbs
N570-N577: 878,000 lbs
N580-N583: 877,000 lbs
-8: 990,000 lbs

46
Q

Maximum inflight weight, landing flaps (-4)

A

-4: 670,000 lbs

47
Q

Minimum inflight weights (-4, BCF, -8)

A

-4: 361,200 lbs
BCF: 367,500 lbs
-8: 402,000 lbs

48
Q

Wind limits for door

A

Opening and closing: 40 kts
While open: 65 kts

49
Q

Turbulent air penetration speed (-4, -8)

A

-4: 290 to 310 or 0.82 to 0.85 whichever is lower
-8: 310 or 0.83 whichever is lower

50
Q

Maximum tire speed (-4, -8)

A

-4: 235 MPH
-8: 235 MPH, 260 MPH for overspeed landing

51
Q

Maximum mach for RVSM

A

0.90

52
Q

Landing gear operating speeds

A

Extension and retraction:
270 KIAS/ M 0.82

  • Extended: 320/ M 0.82
53
Q

Maximum takeoff and landing pressure altitude

A

10,000 feet PA

54
Q

Flaps up and down acceleration limits

A
  • Flaps Up: 2.5G to -1.0 G
  • Flaps Down: 2.0 to 0G,

-8 linearly decreases from
2G to 1.5G
and maximum landing weight with flaps 25 or 30.

55
Q

Maximum difference between altimeters on ground

A
  • SL to 5,000ft: 35ft
  • 5,000 to 9,500ft: 40 ft
56
Q

-4 flap speeds

A

1: 280 KIAS
5: 260 KIAS
10: 240 KIAS
20: 230 KIAS
25: 205 KIAS
30: 180 KIAS

57
Q

Mmo (-4, -8)

A

-4: 0.92
-8: 0.90

58
Q

Main deck occupancy (-4, BCF, -8)

A

-4: Prohibited during taxi, takeoff, flight and landing
BCF & -8: Prohibited during taxi, takeoff and landing

59
Q

Upper deck occupancy (-4, BCF, -8)

A

-4: No more than 4 other than flight crew members for a total of occupants not to exceed 8

BCF: Total number including crew shall not exceed 12

-8: Max of 6 supernumeraries. Including crew shall not exceed 8 persons

60
Q

O2 requirements for upper deck occupants

A

Adequate quantity for each occupant for flight at 25K feet cabin altitude to the nearest suitable airport when cargo compartment is loaded with class E. If in cabin depressurization oxygen flow to masks not in use must be turned off.

61
Q

Maximum pressure altitude (-4, -8)

A

-4: 45,100 feet
-8: 43,100 feet

62
Q

-8 flap speeds

A

1: 285 KIAS
5: 265 KIAS
10: 245 KIAS
20: 235 KIAS
25: 210 KIAS
30: 185 KIAS

63
Q

Minimum runway width for -8

A

150 feet wide, 180° turns are not authorized.

64
Q

Maximum difference between altimeter and field elevation

A

75 feet

65
Q

Maximum allowable difference in altimeters for RVSM operations

A

200 feet

66
Q

Maximum crosswind for takeoff and landing

A

30 knots

67
Q

Maximum field elevation

A

9,500 feet

68
Q

Maximum takeoff and landing tailwind

A

15 knots

69
Q

Maximum runway slope

A

2 percent

70
Q

When must a supernumerary portable O2 be carried during flight?

A

When in the main cargo deck

71
Q

Chapters of the AOM

A
  • 1: Limitations
  • 2: Non-normal
  • 3: Normal
  • 4: Supplementary
  • 5: Performance
72
Q

If leveling off within ___ feet after changing altimeter setting from QNE to QNH or QNH to QNE, do not use VNAV to execute the level off if QNH is less than __ in/ __ hPa. After the level off is complete VNAV may be reengaged.

A

2,000, 29.70, 1006

yupi-s-TiSiTi. (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions