Antivirals Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Which viruses does acyclovir treat?

A

HSV, VZV, EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How does acyclovir work?

A

Activated by viral thymidine kinase. Once activated, can block viral DNA extension by competitively inhibiting viral DNA polymerases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is acyclovir an analogue for?

A

Guanosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why is acyclovir not an effective treatment for CMV?

A

CMV lacks the thymidine kinase enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which viruses does gangciclovir treat?

A

CMV, EBV, HHV-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a side effect of ganciclovir?

A

Bone marrow suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who requires treatment for CMV?

A

Neonates (congenital)
Immunocompromised
Pregnancy
HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

RCHEP is a mnemonic for the effects of CMV. What does it stand for?

A
Retinitis
Colitis
Hepatitis
Encephalitis
Pneumonitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do cells infected with CMV show on microscopy?

A

Owl’s eye inclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If resistant/allergic/sever side effects to ganciclovir, which 2 antivirals can be used instead?

A

Foscarnet

Cidofovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is foscarnet an analogue of?

A

Pyrophosphonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does foscarnet work?

A

Inhibits nucleic acid synthesis without requiring activation

Also used as prophylaxis post organ transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the main uses of cidofovir?

A

Treating CMV retinitis (esp in HIV pts)

Treatment of non-herpes viral infections in opportunistic post-transplant setting (eg BK virus, adenovirus, JC virus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does cidofovir work?

A

Inhibits viral replication by selectively inhibiting viral DNA polymerases

Also incorporates itself into viral DNA hence inhibiting viral DNA synthesis during reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which organ do foscarnet and cidofovir cause toxicity to, and how is this side effect mitigated?

A

Nephrotoxic

Maintain hydration and co-administer probenecid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The mnemonic for HSV (genital, oral, encephalitis, disseminated) treatment is Act Very Fast, what does this stand for?

A

Acyclovir
Valaciclovir
Famciclovir

17
Q

In a serious HSV infection what should be stared as early as possible?

A

IV acyclovir

18
Q

What is the treatment for a serious HSV infection + ganciclovir resistance?

A

Foscarnet/cidofovir

19
Q

In which pts does VZV require treatment?

A

Immunocompromised
Pregnant
Adults with pneumonitis

20
Q

What is the preemptive therapy for CMV in bone marrow transplants?

A

Monitor CMV viral load in the blood during high risk period

21
Q

What is the acute therapy for CMV in bone marrow transplants?

A

1st line: ganciclovir (but has marrow toxicity!)
2nd line: foscarnet (nephrotoxic) / ganciclovir+foscarnet combo
3rd line: cidofovir (nephrotoxic)

22
Q

What are the 3 criteria for deciding when to treat hep B (HBV)?

A

1) Serum HBV DNA levels (>2000IU/ml)
2) Serum aminotransferase (ALT, AST) levels (>normal upper limit)
3) Liver biopsy histological grade + stage: moderate-severe active necroinflammation and/or fibrosis

23
Q

What are the treatment goals when treating Hep B?

A
  • Prevent progression to cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
  • Maintain serum HBV DNA level as low as possible
  • Attain histology improvement
  • ALT normalisation
  • Loss of HBVeAg and seroconversion to HBVeAb
24
Q

One treatment option for HBV is pegylated interferon (INF) alpha 2a. How is this administered?

A

Subcut

25
Q

What are the 2 modes of action of pegylated interferon (INF) alpha 2a?

A

Direct antiviral effect

Upregulates expression of MHC on cell surfaces

26
Q

HBV can also be treated with nucleoside and nucleotide analogues. What are the 2 groups of these drugs?

A

Inhibitors of viral polymerase

Inhibitors of reverse transcriptase

27
Q

List 4 inhibitors of viral polymerase, used in the treatment of HBV

A

Lamivudine
Adefovir dipivoxil
Entecavir (no resistance)
Telbivudine

28
Q

Name an inhibitor of reverse transcriptase used in the treatment of HBV

A

Tenofovir

29
Q

What is the preferred 1st line treatment combination for HBV?

A
Entecavir
AND
PegINF alpha 2a
AND
Tenofovir
30
Q

What are the treatment goals when treating Hep C (HCV)?

A
  • Sustained virologic response (SVR): persistant absence of HCV RNA in serum >6/12 after completing antiviral treatment
  • Prevent progression to cirrhosis / HCC / decompensated liver disease requiring liver transplantation
31
Q

What is the treatment for HCV?

A

Combination of:

  • PegINF alpha 2a/2b
  • Ribavirin (RNA nucleoside analogue)
32
Q

What is the major side effect of ribivirin?

A

Haemolytic anaemia

33
Q

How many distinct genotypes of HCV are there and why is this clinically significant?

A

6 - genotype predicts response to treatment

34
Q

In which HCV genotypes is treatment more successful?

A

2 and 3 (~50% of UK burden)

35
Q

In which HCV genotypes is treatment less successful?

A

1, 4, 5 and 6 (~50% of UK burden)

36
Q

How are respiratory viruses diagnosed?

A

PCR-BAL
Throat swab
Nasopharyngeal aspirate (NPA)

37
Q

Which treatments are used for influenza and what is their route of administration?

A

Zanamivir (inhaled)
Oseltamivir (PO)
Amantadine (PO)

38
Q

What is the treatment for respiratory syncitial virus (RSV) /parainfluenza?

A

Ribavirin (guanosine analogue)