Antimicrobial Selection Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 3 indications for antimicrobials

A
  1. infection
  2. prophylaxis
  3. metaphylaxis
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2
Q

prophylaxis

A

short term administration to prevent infection during surgery

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3
Q

metaphylaxis

A

treatment of a group of animals that aren’t diseased but are in proximity to diseased animals

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4
Q

what are the main considerations when choosing a specific antimicrobial

A
  • susceptibility of organism
  • infection site
  • administration route, frequency, and adverse effects
  • cost/owner compliance
  • drug label and WDTs
  • concurrent medications
  • host factors
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5
Q

broad spectrum antimicrobials

A

active against a wide spectrum of bacteria

  • carbapenems
  • fluoroquinolones
  • chloramphenicol
  • 2nd/3rd generation cephalosporins
  • tetracyclines
  • clavamox
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6
Q

pros and cons of broad spectrum antibiotics

A

pros:
- effective against a wide variety of bacteria

cons:
- greater disruption of normal flora
- increased risk of resistance

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7
Q

narrow spectrum antimicrobials

A

active against a selected group of bacteria

  • erythromycin
  • penicillin
  • clindamycin
  • aminoglycosides
  • rifampin
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8
Q

pros and cons of narrow spectrum antimicrobials

A

pros:
- less disruption of normal flora
- decreased risk of resistance

cons:
- may not be effective if organism is unknown

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9
Q

what are limited sites

A

body sites that only certain drugs are able to reach

  • abscesses
  • brain/CNS
  • eye
  • prostate
  • bronchial epithelium and secretions
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10
Q

can all drugs penetrate intracellularly

A

NO - only certain drugs are able to be effective against intracellular organisms

  • tetracyclines
  • fluoroquinolones
  • macrolides
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11
Q

local factors that effect drug penetration

A
  • purulent material and necrotic debris
  • foreign material
  • acidic environment
  • anaerobic environment
  • poor vascularization
  • biofilms
  • abscesses
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12
Q

1st line drugs

A

used for empirical selection in the absence of/pending results of C&S testing
- will treat a LIKELY cause of infection

  • amoxicillin
  • cephalexin
  • doxycycline
  • TMS
  • penicillin
    +/- fluoroquinolones
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13
Q

2nd line drugs

A

used on the basis of C&S testing with the lack of susceptibility to 1st line drugs
- if results show susceptibility to a 1st line drug, use the 1st line drug

  • piperacillin
  • amikacin
  • gentamicin
  • 3rd generation cephalosporins
  • fluoroquinolones
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14
Q

3rd line drugs

A

reserved drugs - only used when absolutely necessary
- MUST have documented susceptibility
- must not be susceptible to any 1st or 2nd line drugs
- infection must be serious/life threatening
- infection should be treatable

  • vancomycin
  • linezoid
  • carbapenems
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15
Q

considerations for equine antimicrobials

A
  • poor oral absorption of drugs
  • requires large volume of parenteral drugs
  • potential for GI upset
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16
Q

considerations for food animal antimicrobials

A
  • cost
  • withdrawal times
  • label and ELDU of drugs
  • large volume required
  • effect on meat/milk quality
  • often parenteral drugs
17
Q

when is it indicated to use a combination of antimicrobials

A
  1. resistance is rapidly generated against a single antimicrobial
  2. poolymicrobial infection in which one antimicrobial will not provide wide enough spectrum
  3. unknown organism w/ life threatening infection
  4. mixed infections with anaerobic bacteria
18
Q

synergistic response

A

ability to kill is enhanced over the additive effect of 2 drugs

19
Q

indifferent response

A

no enhanced ability to kill bacteria, additive only

20
Q

antagonistic response

A

the drug combination is less effective than the individual drug

avoid using the two drugs together when this is the result

21
Q

when is antimicrobial prophylaxis recommended

A

risk of infection outweighs the adverse effects of the drug

22
Q

what type of antimicrobial should be used for prophylaxis

A

different antimicrobial than one used to treat the infection that would occur at the site

23
Q

should prophylactic antimicrobials be used for IV or urinary catheters

A

no - will increase the risk of infection

24
Q

goal of surgical prophylaxis

A

prevent the development of a SSI and reduce the duration of hospitalization

25
Q

indications for surgical prophylaxis

A
  1. procedure has a high rate of infection
    - contaminated and clean-contaminated
  2. consequence of infection is high (even if chances of getting infection are slim)
26
Q

should prophylactic antimicrobials be used in clean orthopedic surgeries without an implant

A

no

27
Q

should prophylactic antimicrobials be used in clean orthopedic surgeries with an implant

A

yes - implant can cause biofilm formation

28
Q

should prophylactic antimicrobials be used in clean-contaminated surgeries

A

yes

29
Q

should prophylactic antimicrobials be used in contaminated surgeries (ex. into the GIT)

A

yes

30
Q

should prophylactic antimicrobials be used in spays/neuters

A

no

31
Q

what is the most common antimicrobial used for surgical prophylaxis in small animals

A

cefazolin

32
Q

when should prophylactic antimicrobials be administered

A

30-60 minutes before incision

short sx: single dose prior to surgery
long sx: use throughout surgery then stop immediately after