Antibiotics Flashcards

1
Q

Name the DNA topoisomerases (class & names)

A

Fluoroquinolones => “-oxacin”

Quinolone => nalidixic acid

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2
Q

Name ABx that damages DNA

A

metronidazole

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3
Q

name ABx that disrupts bacterial mRNA synthesis (RNA polymerase)

A

rifampin

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4
Q

Which ABx bind to protein synthesis 50S subunit? class & name

A

Chloramphenicol
Clindamycin
Linezolid

Macrolides=> Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, Erythromycin

Streptogramins=> Quinupristin, Dalfopristin

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5
Q

Which ABx bind to protein synthesis 30S subunit? class & name

A

Aminoglycosides=> gentamicin, neomycin, amikacin, tobramycin, streptomycin

Tetracyclines=> tetracycline, doxycycline, minocycline

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6
Q

What are the Folic acid synthesis (DNA methylation) inhibitors? What is the difference in them?

A

Sulfonamides (block PABA to DHF) => Sulfamethoxazole, sulfisoxazole, sulfadiazine

Trimethoprim blocks DHF to THF

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7
Q

What are the two types of cell wall synthesis inhibitors?

A

Peptidoglycan synthesis

Peptidoglycan cross-linking

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8
Q

What are the cell wall peptidoglycan synthesis inhibitors?

A

Glycopeptides=> vancomycin, bacitracin

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9
Q

What are the cell wall peptidoglycan cross linking inhibitors?

A

Penicillinase sensitive penicillins => Pen G, V; Ampicillin, Amoxicillin

Penicillinase-resistant penicillins => oxacillin, nafcillin, dicloxacillin

Antipseudomonals=> ticarcillin, piperacillin

Cephalosporins

Carbapenems=> Imipenem, meropenem, ertrapenem, doripenem

Monobactams => aztreonam

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10
Q

Name one individual drug from each class of cephalosporins

A

1=> cephazolin, cephalexin

2=> Cefoxitin, cefaclor, cefuroxime

3=> ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, ceftazidime

4=> Cefipime

5=> Ceftaroline

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11
Q

What treats anaerobes above the diaphragm? what treats anaerobes below the diaphragm?

A

Clindamycin above

Metronidazole below

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12
Q

What does Metronidazole treat?

A

GET GAP on the Metro!
Giardia, Entamoeba, Trichomonas
Gardnerella vaginalis, Anaerobes (Bacteroides, C. dif), H. Pylori

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13
Q

What is the “Triple therapy” against H. pylori?

A

PPI, metronidazole, clarithromycin

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14
Q

If M. tuberculosis is suspected in the area of the patient, what can be used for prophylaxis?

A

Isoniazid

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15
Q

What is the Tx for M. tuberculosis?

A

RIPE

Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol

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16
Q

What is the prophylaxis of M. avium-intracellulare?

A

Azithromycine, rifabutin

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17
Q

What is the Treatment for M. leprae?

A

Long term treatment w/ dapsone & rifampin for tuberculoid form

Add clofazimine for lepromatous form

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18
Q

What is a meningococcal prophylaxis agent?

A

rifamycin=> rifampin, rifabutin

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19
Q

What can be used as chemoprophylaxis in contacts of children w/ H. flu type B?

A

Rifamycin=> rifampin, rifabutin

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20
Q

What are the 4 Rs of Rifampin?

A

RNA polymerase inhibitor
Ramps up microsomal cytochrome P-450
Red/orange body fluids
Rapid resistance if used alone

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21
Q

Why is rifabutin favored over rifampin in HIV patients?

A

Rifampin ramps up p-450 but rifabutin does not

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22
Q

Antimicrobial prophylaxis for Endocarditis w/ surgical or dental procedures

A

penicillins

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23
Q

Antimicrobial prophylaxis for Gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone

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24
Q

Antimicrobial prophylaxis for Hx of recurrent UTIs

A

TMP-SMX

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25
Antimicrobial prophylaxis for Meningococcal infection
ciprofloxacin (DOC), rifampin for children
26
Antimicrobial prophylaxis for Pregnant women carrying GBS
Ampicillin
27
Antimicrobial prophylaxis for prevention of gonococcal or chlamydial conjunctivitis in newborn
erythromycin ointment
28
Antimicrobial prophylaxis for prevention of post-surg infection due to S. aureus
Cefazolin
29
Antimicrobial prophylaxis for prophylaxis of strep pharyngitis in child w/ prior rheumatic fever
oral penicillin
30
Antimicrobial prophylaxis for Syphilis
Benzathine penicillin G
31
HIV patient with CD4 < 200 cells/mm3 - what is the necessary prophylaxis & what infection is it given for?
TMP-SMX for Pneumocystis pneumonia
32
HIV patient with CD4 < 100 cells/mm3 - what is the necessary prophylaxis & what infection is it given for?
TMP-SMX for Pneumocystis pneumonia & toxoplasmosis
33
HIV patient with CD4 < 50 cells/mm3 - what is the necessary prophylaxis & what infection is it given for?
Azithromycin for Mycobacterium avium complex
34
HIV patients who cannot tolerate TMP-SMX may be given what? what is the risk assoc?
Aerosolized pentamidine but does not prevent toxoplasmosis
35
What is the Tx for MRSA?
vancomycin, daptomycin, linezolid (can cause serotonin syndrome), tigecycline, ceftaroline
36
What is Tx for VRE?
linezolid and streptogramins (quinupristin/dalfopristin)
37
Name the anti fungal that inhibits lanosterol synthesis. Name the enzyme that is blocked
Squalene epoxidase is blocked by | terbinafine
38
Name the anti fungal that inhibits cell wall synthesis
Echinocandins => caspofungin, micafungin, anidulafungin
39
Name the anti fungal that forms membrane pores
Polyenes => amphotericin B, nystatin
40
Name the anti fungal that inhibits nucleic acid synthesis
5-flucytosine
41
Name the anti fungal that inhibits ergosterol synthesis. Name the enzyme that is blocked
14-alpha-demethylase blocked by | Azoles=> fluconazole, ketoconazole, clotrimazole, miconazole, itraconazole, voriconazole
42
Tx for toxoplasmosis
pyrimethamine
43
Tx for Trypanosoma brucei
suramin & melaroprol
44
Tx for T. cruzi
nifurtimox
45
Tx for leishmaniasis
sodium stibogluconate
46
MOA for chloroquine
blocks detoxification of heme into hemozoin so heme accumulates & toxic to plasmodia
47
Why should chloroquine not be used for P. falciparum?
resistance is too high due to membrane pump that decreases intracellular concentration of drug
48
Tx for P. falciparum
artemether/lumefantrine or atovaquone/proguanil
49
For life threatening malaria, what Rx should be used?
quinidine (quinine) in US or artesunate
50
Toxicity of chloroquine
retinopathy; | pruritis (esp in dark skinned individuals)
51
What is the mechanism of action for Rx in the Tx of helminths? name the treatments
immobilize Mebendazole, pyrantel pamoate, ivermectin, diethylcarbamazine, praziquantel
52
What Rx is for flukes (trematodes) such as Schistosoma?
Praziquantel
53
For HIV antiviral therapy, what are the primary locations of attack of Rx?
fusion; reverse transcriptase; integrase inhibitors; protease inhibitors (proteolytic processing)
54
Name the protease inhibitors for HIV retroviral therapy
Lopinavir; Atazanavir; darunavir; fosamprenavir; saquinavir; ritonavir; indinavir
55
Name the integrase inhibitors for HIV retroviral therapy
raltegravir
56
Name the fusion inhibitors for HIV retroviral therapy
attachment=> maraviroc penetration=> enfuvirtide
57
Name the reverse transcriptase inhibitors for HIV retroviral therapy
NRTI=> Tenofovir, Emtricitabine, abacavir, lamivudine, zidovudine, didanosine, stavudine NNRTI=> nevirapine, efavirenz, delaviridine
58
Other than HIV therapy, what are the targets of other antiviral therapy?
Protein synthesis; Uncoating; nucleic acid synthesis; release of progeny virus
59
Name the Rx responsible for inhibiting protein synthesis via preventing binding of virus. Also name what disease it is used in
Interferon-alpha => HBV, HCV
60
Name the Rx responsible for blocking uncoating of the virus once inside the cell
Amantadine & Rimantadine => no longer used for influenza due to resistance Amantadine used in Parkinson's
61
Name the Rx responsible for blocking the release of viral progeny & disease assoc
Neuraminidase inhibitors => zanamivir & oseltamivir for Influenza A & B
62
Name the Rx & enzyme that is blocked to prevent nucleic acid synthesis from occurring. Also name disease
Guanine nucleotide synthesis => ribavirin => RSV, HCV viral DNA polymerase inhibitors => foscarnet & cidofovir for CMV & HSV (if HSV is acyclovir resistant) Guanosine analogs => acyclovir for HSV, VZV; ganciclovir for CMV
63
When should HAART begin?
when patients have AIDS defining illness; low CD4 cell counts (< 500 cells/mm3); or high viral load
64
What makes up the HAART regimen?
Regimen consists of 3 drugs to prevent resistance: [2 nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)] + [1 non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) OR 1 protease inhibitor OR 1 integrase inhibitor]
65
How are protease inhibitors recognized?
ALL protease inhibitors end in -navir
66
Which protease inhibitor is assoc with DDI?
Ritonavir
67
How do protease inhibitors in HIV work?
Block the HIV-1 protease (pol gene) which is responsible for assembly thus preventing maturation of new viruses
68
What are the toxicities assoc w/ HIV protease inhibitors?
hyperglycemia, GI distress; lipodystrophy; nephropathy; Hematuria (indinavir)
69
What is the MOA for NRTIs?
competitively inhibit nucleotide binding to reverse transcriptase & terminate DNA chain which lacks an OH group
70
What is the structure of the NRTIs?
All are nucleosides while Tenofovir is a nucleoTide
71
What is used for general prophylaxis & during pregnancy to decrease risk of fetal transmission? What ADE is specifically assoc w/ this Rx?
zidovudine (ZDV, formerly AZT) anemia
72
NRTIs are associated w/ bone marrow suppression. How can this be treated?
reversed w/ G-CSF & erythropoietin
73
ADE of tenofovir
rash
74
Common ADE w/ all NRTIs
bone marrow suppression & peripheral neuropathy
75
Lactic acidosis is an ADE of what NRTIs?
nucleosides
76
What NRTI is assoc w/ pancreatitis?
didanosine
77
MOA for NNRTIs & name the Rx
Efavirenz, nevirapine, delaviridine Bind to reverse transcriptase at different site from NRTIs & do NOT require phosphorylation to be active or compete w/ nucleotides
78
What ADEs are assoc w/ all NNRTIs?
rash & hepatotoxicity
79
ADE of efavirenz
vivid dreams & CNS symptoms are common
80
Which NNRTIs are contraindicated in pregnancy?
Delaviridine & efavirenz
81
Name the Rx & MOA for integrate inhibitors. What is the assoc ADE?
Raltegravir => inhibits HIV genome integration into host cell chromosome by reversibly inhibiting HIV integrate ADE=> hypercholesterolemia
82
Name the Rx & MOA for the fusion inhibitors. ADE assoc
Enfuvirtide bind gp41 to inhibit viral entry => skin run at injxn Maraviroc binds CCR-5 on surface of T cells & monocytes
83
Name the specific type of interferon used for each of its disease associations
IFN-alpha=> chronic HBV, HCV, Kaposi sarcoma, hairy cell leukemia, condyloma acuminatum, renal cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma IFN-Beta=> MS IFN-gamma=> chronic granulomatous disease
84
result of giving sulfonamides in pregnancy
kernicterus
85
result of giving aminoglycosides in pregnancy
ototoxicity
86
result of giving fluoroquinolones in pregnancy
cartilage damage
87
result of giving clarithromycin in pregnancy
embryotoxic
88
result of giving tetracyclines in pregnancy
discolored teeth, inhibition of bone growth
89
result of giving ribavirin (antiviral) in pregnancy
teratogenic
90
result of giving griseofulvin (antifungal) in pregnancy
teratogenic
91
result of giving chloramphenicol in pregnancy
"gray baby"