Antibiotic treatment review Flashcards

1
Q

Mechanism of action of Bactrim (Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole)

A
  • competitively inhibits dihydroteroate synthetase, which reduces dihydrofrolic acid thereby reducing nucleic acid synthesis
  • e.g. stops DNA synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which drug works by inhibiting dihydroperoate sythetase?

A
  • Trimethoprim Sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Mechanism of action of Ciprofloxacin

A
  • inhibition of bacterial DNA gyrase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which drug works by inhibition of bacterial DNA gyrase

A
  • Ciprofloxacin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mechanism of action of Vancomycin

A
  • inhibition of cell wall synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Mechanism of action of Aminoglycosides

A
  • protein synthesis inhibition by inactivation of 30s ribosomal subunit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which drug class works by protein synthesis inhibition in the form of inactivation of 30s ribosomal subunit

A
  • Aminoglycosides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Mechanism of action of Macrolides

A
  • protein synthesis inhibition by inactivation of 50s ribosomal subunit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which drug class works by protein synthesis inhibition in the form of inactivation of 50s ribosomal subunit

A
  • Macrolides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Give examples of Aminoglycosides

A
  • Gentamicin
  • Amikacin
  • Tobramycin
  • Streptomycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Give examples of Macrolides

A
  • Azithromycin
  • Erythromycin
  • Clarithromycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what part of Klebsiella and E. Coli organism is responsible for the septic response?

A
  • lipopolysaccharide complex, specifically lipid A within the LPS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Treatment for Cytomegalovirus infection

A
  • ganciclovir
  • Foscarnet
  • Cidofovir
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Give examples of aminoglycosides

A
  • gentamicin
  • tobramycin
  • Amikacin
  • Streptomycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

side effect of Mafenide acetate

A

Non-anion gap metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

side effect of Bacitracin

A

nephrotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

side effect of silver nitrate

A

hypocalcemia
hypokalemia
methemoglobinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

side effect of silver sulfadiazine

A

neutropenia

thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

give examples of encapsulated organisms

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
haemophilus influenza
neisseria meningiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

most common encapsulated organism to cause infection after splenectomy

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Treatment for neutropenic colitis?

A

bowel rest
hydration
broad spectrum antibiotics

22
Q

treatment for CMV colitis

A

ganciclovir or valganciclovir

23
Q

Oral Ciprofloxacin is partially inactivated by this oral agent?

A
  • if you give it with calcium you chelate the antibiotic by 60-75%
  • this is for all fluoroquinolones
24
Q

Antibiotic alternative for penicillin allergy in colorectal surgery

A

Clindamycin + Levofloxacin

25
Q

most common organism implicated in SBP?

A
  • E. Coli
26
Q

what organism(s) is implicated in hydatid disease?

A

Echinococcous Granulosa/multilocularis/vogeli

27
Q

what causes the symptoms of a C Diff infection?

A

Toxin A > Toxin B

28
Q

Gram postive Aerobic cocci, coagulase negative?

A

Enterococcus

Streptococcus

29
Q

Gram positive cocci, aerobic, coagulase +

A

Staphylococcus

30
Q

Gram positive bacilli, anaerobic

A

Clostridium

31
Q

Gram positive branching filaments, anaerobic

A

Actinomyces

32
Q

Gram negative diplococci, aerobic

A

Escherichia

33
Q

Gram-negative cocco-bacili, aerobic

A

Hemophilus

34
Q

Gram-negative bacili, aerobic

A

Pseudomonas

Klebsiella

35
Q

Gram-negative bacili, anaerobic

A

Bacteriodes

36
Q

what are the anti-microbial properties of silver

A
  • ribosomal toxicity
  • intercalates DNA
  • denaturation of proteins
  • disruption of bacterial cell membrane
37
Q

Another name for silver sufladiazine

A

Silvadene

38
Q

What do you use to treat candida infection in a burn?

A

Silver Sulfadiazine

39
Q

patient with history of kidney transplant has diagnostic colonoscopy showing punch out ulcers, biopsy shows Cowdry bodies with eosinophilia…what do they have?

A

CMV/Herpes Colitis

40
Q

treatment for mucopurulent cervicitis?

A

Ceftriaxone and Doxycycline

41
Q

treatment for bacterial vaginosis

A

Metronidazole

42
Q

Treatment for Trichomonas

A

Metronidazole

43
Q

antibiotic regimen for human bite?

A

amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin)

44
Q

Risk factors for invasive fungal infections

A
broad spectrum antibiotics
Hemodialysis
solid-organ transplantation
TPN
gastric perforation
45
Q

mechanism behind a vancomycin infusion reaction

A

vancomycin causes degranulation of basophils and mast cells -> increased histamine release

46
Q

which narcotics are associated with the smallest release of histamine?

A
  • fentanyl

- tramadol

47
Q

how do bacteria gain resistance to ahminoglycosides?

A
  • increased active transport out of cell
48
Q

side effect of aminoglycosides?

A
  • ototoxicity
49
Q

After a Hep C exposure when should someone be tested?

A
  • baseline anti-HCV first

- if negative repeat anti-HCV in 4-6 months

50
Q

mechanism of action for clindamycin

A

inhibits 50s subunit of ribosomes in bacteria, but it is NOT a macrolid

51
Q

patient with HIV needs emergency surgery is on HARRT but has a detectably viral load, what can you give to help the situation

A

IV injection of albuvirtide to lower detectable viral load prior to surgery