Antibiotic discussion Flashcards

1
Q

What is consistent of all penicillins structures?

A
  1. Thiazolidine ring
    Beta-lactam ring
    Variable side chain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What produces penicillin?

A

Microbial byproduct of fungus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How are penicillins secreted?

A

Renal clearance

- Nafcillin and Oxacillin are excreted through the bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some side effects of penicillins?

A
  1. Rash
  2. Type 1 HSR
  3. Pseudomembrane colitis (C. difficle)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What penicillins usually cause C. Difficle?

A

Amox

Ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does penicillin cover?

A
  1. Gram + organisms
  2. N. meningiditis
  3. Spirochetes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the antipseudomonal penicillins and what do they cover?

A

Piperacillin and Ticarcillin

- covers pseudomonas as well as other gram - rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What do amox and amp cover?

A
HHELPSS
H influenzae
H pylori
E coli
Listeria monocytogenes
Proteus mirabilis
Salmonella
Shingella
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pros and cons of Cephalosporins?

A
  • Less susceptible to penicillinases
  • Fever allergic rxns
  • however need IV admid because not absorbed well in gut
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How are cephalosporins secreted?

A

Renal clearance

- Ceftiraxone is NOT–> bile rather

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why are cephasporins LAME?

A

Dont cover:

  • Listeria
  • Atypicals like myocoplasma and chlamydia
  • MRSA
  • Enterococci
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 1st gen cephalopsporins?

A

Cefazolin

Cephalexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 2nd gen cephalopsporins?

A

FAke FOX FUR
Cefaclor
Cefoxitin
Cefuoxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 3rd gen cephalopsporins?

A

Ceftriaxone
Cefotaxime
Ceftazidime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 4th gen cephalopsporins?

A

Cefepime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 5th gen cephalopsporins?

A

Cefaroline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When would one use a direct coombs test?

A

Rh+ infant of a Rh- mother

- also checks for immune medial hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When would one use a indirect Coomb’s test?

A

To check an Rh - mother after first child who was RH+ to make sure she didn’t develop ab’s against Rh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is coombs reagent?

A

An antibody that binds to auto antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the carbapenems?

A

Imipenem
Meropenem
Ertapenum
Doripenem

21
Q

What must be administered with imipenem and why?

A

Cislastin because it inhibits dehydropeptidase 1 which inactivates drug in renal tubles

22
Q

What are some common AE with carbapenems?

A

Gi distress
Skin rash
CNS toxicity–> seizures
Eosinophilia

23
Q

What type of HSR is autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A

Type 2

24
Q

What is vanco most often used for?

A

MRSA

Gram positive bacteria

25
Q

What are the AE of vanco?

A

NOT
Nephrotoxic
Ototoxic
Thrombophlebitis

26
Q

What is red man syndrome?

A
Diffuse flushing that is NOT a true allergy
- most often infusion rate dependent 
- puritis
- HoTN
Flushing of face and chest
27
Q

What are the drugs that cover MRSA?

A
Vanco
Ceftaroline
Linezolid
Daptomycin
Tigercycline
28
Q

What are the drugs that cover VRE?

A

Linezolid

Dalfopristin/quinupristin

29
Q

What is linezolid used for? cidal or static?

A

MRSA
VRE
Gram +

  • variable
30
Q

What are the AE of linezolid?

A
  • Bone marrow suppression (thrombo and anemia)
  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • Serotonin syndrome
  • GI distress
  • HA
31
Q

What are the tetracyclines? Cidal or static?

A

Doxycycline
Minocycline
Tetracycline
Tigecycline

  • static
32
Q

what is the MOA linezolid?

A

prevents formation of initiation complex by binding 50s subunit

33
Q

What is the MOA of tetracyclines?

A

Binds 30s subunit to prevent attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA

34
Q

What are tetracyclines used for?

A

Acne
Borrelia burgodorferi
M pneumoniae
- accumulate intracellularly and thus fight against obligate intracellular organisms like rickettsia and chlamydia

35
Q

What is contraindicated to ingest while on tetracyclines ?

A

Milk, Antacids

- divalent cations inhibits drugs absorption

36
Q

What are some side effects of tetracyclines?

A

GI distress
Discoloration of teeth and inhibits bone growth in children
- photosensitivity
- Class D drug

37
Q

What ist he mechanisms of resistance of tetracyclines?

A

Decreased uptake of increase efflux

38
Q

What are the macrolides ? cidal or static?

A

Azithromycin
Erythromycin
Clarithromycin

  • Static
39
Q

What is the MOA of macrolides?

A

Bind to 23s rRNA of 50s subunit and thus blocks translocation

40
Q

What are macrolides used for?

A
Mycoplasma
Chlamydia
Legionella
Gram + cocci 
Bordetella pertussis
41
Q

WHat are some side effects of macrolides?

A
MACRO
Gi Motility issues
Arrhythmias 
Cholestatis hepatitis
Rash
Eosinophila 

P450 metabolizer

42
Q

What is the mechanisms of resistance of macrolidse?

A

Via methylation of 23s rRNA binding site

43
Q

What are the quinolones? Static or cidal?

A
Ciprofloxacin
Enoxacin
Gemifloxacin
Levofloxacin
Moxifloxacin
Nalidixic acid
Norfloxacin
Ofloxacin
  • cidal
44
Q

What is the MOA of quinolones?

A

inhibit Topo 2 (DNA gyrase)

- inhibit Topo 4

45
Q

What must not be taken with quinolones?

A

antacids
-Chelate cations so don’t take with calcium, iron, aluminum, and zinc
- avoid dairy products or calcium-fortified juice
Adjust for renal dysfunction

46
Q

What are some side effects of quinolones?

A
GI 
Rash 
HA
Confusion 
Cartilage damage
Tendon rupture or tendonitis
47
Q

What gets tendon rupture of tendonitis from quinolones?

A

> 60 and also taking prednisone

48
Q

Why are quinolones contraindicated in mothers and children under 18?

A

Damage to cartilage

49
Q

What are quinolones used for?

A

Gram - rods

Gram +