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High Yield Pharm unit 6 > Anti-Virals > Flashcards

Anti-Virals Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four targets of HIV drugs?

A
  1. entry
  2. RT
  3. integrase
  4. protease
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2
Q

What are the four NRTIs? What is the their MOA?

A

LATE

  1. lamivudine
  2. abacavir
  3. tenofovir
  4. emtricitabine

-analog posers - terminate Viral DNA

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3
Q

Which NRTIs is known to cause nephrotoxicity?

A

tenofovir

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4
Q

As a class, the NRTIs are known to cause what side effect?

A

lactic acidosis

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5
Q

What are the four NNRTIs? MOA?

A

NEER

  1. Nevirapine
  2. efavirenz
  3. etravirine
  4. rilpirine

-directly inhibit RT

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6
Q

What is the main s/e of NNRTIs?

A

rash

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7
Q

Which NNRTI can’t be used in pregancy? why?

A

efavirenz - teratogenic

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8
Q

Nevirapine and Etravirine are known to cause s/e in what organ?

A

liver

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9
Q

Rilpivirine has what s/e?

A

QT prolongation

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10
Q

What are the protease inhibitors? (5)

A

“Navir”

  1. ritonavir
  2. fosamprenavir
  3. lopinavir
  4. atazanavir
  5. darunavir
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11
Q

Explain why Ritonavir has a “good” drug s/e

A

it boosts the concentrations of other drugs
inhibits P4503A4
reduces frequency of dosing and improves adherence

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12
Q

What are the main s/e of protease inhibitors?

A

metabolic:

dyslipidemia, hyperglycemia, lipodystrophy (cushings)

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13
Q

What is the only HIV drug that is injectable? what does it do? when is it used?

A

enfuviritide

  • entry inhibitor
  • used when a patient has built up a lot of resistance
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14
Q

Which drug inhibits CCR5?

A

Maraviroc

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15
Q

Which drugs are integrase inhibitors?

A

RED- “ TEGravir”

  1. raltegravir
  2. elvitegravir
  3. dolutegravir
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16
Q

What are the requirements of HAART therapy?

A

patient must be willing and able to commit

regimen must include 3 different agents from at least 2 classes

17
Q

What is considered an undetectable viral load?

A

<20 copies/mL within 24-48 wks of therapy

18
Q

What happens first: drop in viral load, or inc in CD4 cells?

A

drop in viral load

19
Q

How is a person determined to be “cured of Hep C?

A

sustained viral response - no detectable viral load 12 weeks after termination of therapy

20
Q

What is the MOA of interferon?

A

establishes a general anti-viral state of cells

21
Q

What are the s/e of interferon?

A

flu like symptoms, cytopenias, depression, fatigue

22
Q

What is ribavirin?

A

old Hep C drug used with interferon

-nucleoside analog

23
Q

What are the s/e of ribavirin?

A

hemolytic anemia and teratogenic

24
Q

Which drug is a NS5B polym inhibitor?

A

Sofosbuvir

25
Q

Which drug is a NS5A polym inhibitor?

A

Ledispasvir

26
Q

Which drugs are a NS3/4A protease inhibitor?

A

“Previr” - prevent maturation of virus

  1. simeprevir
  2. telaprevir
  3. broceprevir
27
Q

How do guanosine nucleoside antivirals get activated?

A

phosphorylated in infected cells via viral thymidine kinase

28
Q

What drug is the drug of choice for HSV infections?

A

Acyclovir

29
Q

What are the s/e of acyclovir?

A

GI, CNS, renal dysfunction

30
Q

Which infections is penciclovir good for?

A

HSV1 and 2 and varicella zoster

same as acyclovir

31
Q

What is the drug of choice for CMV?

A

ganciclovir

32
Q

What is the main s/e of ganciclovir?

A

myelosuppression

33
Q

What are the guanosine nucleoside antivirals notorious for?

A

poor bioavailability

34
Q

Which guanosine nucleoside antiviral is only available IV? moa?

A

foscarnet

-directly inhibits DNA polym or HIV RT

35
Q

What is the negative of using foscarnet?

A

significant toxicity - renal, electrolyte, CNS, myelosupppresion

36
Q

What are the two neuraminidase inhibitors? what are they used for?

A
  1. oseltamivir
  2. zanamivir

-influenza A and B

37
Q

When do the neuraminidase inhibitors need to be given?

A

within 48 hours of symptoms

38
Q

What are the s/e of the neuraminidase inhibitors?

A

GI, neuropsych issues

High Yield Pharm unit 6 (11 decks)

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