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High Yield Pharm unit 6 > Anti-Virals > Flashcards

Anti-Virals Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four targets of HIV drugs?

A
  1. entry
  2. RT
  3. integrase
  4. protease
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2
Q

What are the four NRTIs? What is the their MOA?

A

LATE

  1. lamivudine
  2. abacavir
  3. tenofovir
  4. emtricitabine

-analog posers - terminate Viral DNA

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3
Q

Which NRTIs is known to cause nephrotoxicity?

A

tenofovir

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4
Q

As a class, the NRTIs are known to cause what side effect?

A

lactic acidosis

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5
Q

What are the four NNRTIs? MOA?

A

NEER

  1. Nevirapine
  2. efavirenz
  3. etravirine
  4. rilpirine

-directly inhibit RT

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6
Q

What is the main s/e of NNRTIs?

A

rash

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7
Q

Which NNRTI can’t be used in pregancy? why?

A

efavirenz - teratogenic

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8
Q

Nevirapine and Etravirine are known to cause s/e in what organ?

A

liver

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9
Q

Rilpivirine has what s/e?

A

QT prolongation

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10
Q

What are the protease inhibitors? (5)

A

“Navir”

  1. ritonavir
  2. fosamprenavir
  3. lopinavir
  4. atazanavir
  5. darunavir
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11
Q

Explain why Ritonavir has a “good” drug s/e

A

it boosts the concentrations of other drugs
inhibits P4503A4
reduces frequency of dosing and improves adherence

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12
Q

What are the main s/e of protease inhibitors?

A

metabolic:

dyslipidemia, hyperglycemia, lipodystrophy (cushings)

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13
Q

What is the only HIV drug that is injectable? what does it do? when is it used?

A

enfuviritide

  • entry inhibitor
  • used when a patient has built up a lot of resistance
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14
Q

Which drug inhibits CCR5?

A

Maraviroc

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15
Q

Which drugs are integrase inhibitors?

A

RED- “ TEGravir”

  1. raltegravir
  2. elvitegravir
  3. dolutegravir
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16
Q

What are the requirements of HAART therapy?

A

patient must be willing and able to commit

regimen must include 3 different agents from at least 2 classes

17
Q

What is considered an undetectable viral load?

A

<20 copies/mL within 24-48 wks of therapy

18
Q

What happens first: drop in viral load, or inc in CD4 cells?

A

drop in viral load

19
Q

How is a person determined to be “cured of Hep C?

A

sustained viral response - no detectable viral load 12 weeks after termination of therapy

20
Q

What is the MOA of interferon?

A

establishes a general anti-viral state of cells

21
Q

What are the s/e of interferon?

A

flu like symptoms, cytopenias, depression, fatigue

22
Q

What is ribavirin?

A

old Hep C drug used with interferon

-nucleoside analog

23
Q

What are the s/e of ribavirin?

A

hemolytic anemia and teratogenic

24
Q

Which drug is a NS5B polym inhibitor?

A

Sofosbuvir

25
Which drug is a NS5A polym inhibitor?
Ledispasvir
26
Which drugs are a NS3/4A protease inhibitor?
"Previr" - prevent maturation of virus 1. simeprevir 2. telaprevir 3. broceprevir
27
How do guanosine nucleoside antivirals get activated?
phosphorylated in infected cells via viral thymidine kinase
28
What drug is the drug of choice for HSV infections?
Acyclovir
29
What are the s/e of acyclovir?
GI, CNS, renal dysfunction
30
Which infections is penciclovir good for?
HSV1 and 2 and varicella zoster | same as acyclovir
31
What is the drug of choice for CMV?
ganciclovir
32
What is the main s/e of ganciclovir?
myelosuppression
33
What are the guanosine nucleoside antivirals notorious for?
poor bioavailability
34
Which guanosine nucleoside antiviral is only available IV? moa?
foscarnet | -directly inhibits DNA polym or HIV RT
35
What is the negative of using foscarnet?
significant toxicity - renal, electrolyte, CNS, myelosupppresion
36
What are the two neuraminidase inhibitors? what are they used for?
1. oseltamivir 2. zanamivir -influenza A and B
37
When do the neuraminidase inhibitors need to be given?
within 48 hours of symptoms
38
What are the s/e of the neuraminidase inhibitors?
GI, neuropsych issues

High Yield Pharm unit 6 (11 decks)

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