Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology > Anti-TB and Anti-Malarial Drugs > Flashcards

Anti-TB and Anti-Malarial Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

First line anti-TB agents:

A 
Isoniazid
Streptomycin
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Isoniazid prodrug is activated by:

A

KatG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Only parenteral first-line anti-TB drug:

A

Streptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Bacteriostatic first line TB drugs:

A

Isoniazid (against slowly dividing TB)

Ethambutol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Tuberocidal first line anti-TB drugs:

A

Isoniazid (against rapidly dividing TB)
Rifampicin
Pyrazinamide
Streptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Drugs used against TB actively multiplying inside cavitary walls:

A

Streptomycin (best)
Isoniazid
Rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Drugs used against slowly dividing TB inside macrophages:

A

Pyrazinamide
Rifampicin
Isoniazid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Drugs active against dorman TB in caseous foci:

A

Rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Isoniazid inhibits DNA synthesis by inhibiting:

A

mycolase synthetase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Adverse effects of Isoniazid:

A

Peripheral neuritis
Hepatoxicity (most common)
Heomlysis n G6PD deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

These drugs decrease INH absorption:

A

Antacids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MOA of rifampicin:

A

Inhibits initiation of RNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Excretion of rifampicin:

A

Mainly in bile, also in feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

PAS is syngergistic with ___ but decreases absorption of ____.

A

Isoniazid; Rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

This drug affects the electron transport system by interfering with:

A

Pyrazinamide; NAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Active form of pyrazinamide:

A

Pyrazinoic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Adverse effects of pyrazinamide:

A

Hepatic injury (most serious)
Vertigo and hearing loss (most common)
Hyperuricemia (CI in gouty arthritis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mechanism of resistance ot pyrazinamide:

A

Alters ribosomal binding sites (16S)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

This parenteral TB drug acts by inhibiting ribosomal protein synthesis at the ___ subunit:

A

Streptomycin; 30S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Therapeutic concentrations of streptomycin are attained in the:

A

Bile, pleural fluids, extracellular fluids, and inflamed meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Drugs stopped after 2 months in 4 drug therapy:

A

Pyrazinamide

Streptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

This drug inhibits the polymerization of the crucial TB cell wall component ____:

A

Ethambutol; arabinogalactan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Retrobulbar neuritis is ____ caused by:

A

Red-green color blindness; Ethambutol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Adverse affects of streptomycin:

A

Facial paresthesias
Vestibular ototoxicity
Teratogen
Minimally nephrotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

2nd line anti-TB drugs:

A 
Levofloxacin
Rifepentine
Para-aminosalicylic acid
Ethionamide
Amikacin
Cycloserine
Capreomycin
Rifabutine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

2nd line TB drugs related to rifampicin:

A

Rifapentine

Rifabutine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Used in TB treatment of HIV:

A

Rifabutine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

2nd line TB drug used to inhibit onset of resistance to these 1st line drugs:

A

PAS; Streptomycin and Isoniazid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

2nd line drug not able to penetrate the BBB:

A

PAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

PAS is a ____ which acts almost exclusively against M. tb:

A

folate synthesis antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

This drug is related to isonizaid:

A

Ethionamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Ethionamide hepatoxicity increases when used with:

A

Rifampicin

33
Q

Coadministration of Amikacin with these drugs may increase nephrotoxicity:

A

Aminoglycosides
Penicllin
Cephalosporin
Amphotericin B

34
Q

Amikacin increases the effects of ____ which may cause ____.

A

Neuromuscular blocking agents; respiratory depression

35
Q

Administration of amikacin with loop diuretics may cause:

A

Irreversible hearing loss

36
Q

Cycloserine is a structural analogue of ___ which inhibits:

A

D-alanine; bacterial cell wall synthesis

37
Q

Cycloserine in combination with ___ may increase it’s:

A

Isoniazid; CNS effects

38
Q

Capreomycin is administered ___ and is useful for M.tb that is resistant to:

A

parenterally; streptomycin or amikacin

39
Q

Two phases of short course chemotherapy:

A 
First phase (Intensive/Bactericidal phase)
Second phase (Maintenance phase)
40
Q

TB drugs contraindicated in pregnant women:

A

Pyrazinamide

Streptomycin

41
Q

If not possible to defer treatment in patients with acute hepatitis, the treatment regimen is:

A

3SE/6HR (hepatotoxic H, R, P)

42
Q

Treatment regimen in those with renal failure:

A

2HRZ/4HR (nephrotoxic S and E)

43
Q

Corticosteroids are used in the following conditions:

A 
TB meningitis with high ICP
Acute pericardia effusion
Pleural effusion
Miliary TB
Enlarged mediastinal lymph nodes
TB pericarditis
44
Q

Recommended TB treatment regimen in elderly patients:

A

9HR + other drugs

45
Q

Malaria drug resistance is most notable in:

A

P. falciparum

46
Q

Malaria parasites responible for clinical illness:

A

erythrocytic parasites

47
Q

These malaria species go through only one cycle of liver cell invasion, and no parasite remains in the liver:

A

P. falciparum

p. malariae

48
Q

These malaria species have liver parasites that are not eradicated and may produce relapse:

A

p. vivax

p. ovale

49
Q

The only true causal prophylactic drugs:

A

The antifols:

Pyrimethamine
Chloroguanide

50
Q

Factors in choosing an anti-malarial drug:

A

Plasmodium species
Patient’s clinical status
Parasite’s drug susceptibility

51
Q

MOA of quinine:

A

Interfere with the parasite ability to break down and digest hemoglobin

52
Q

Side effects of quinine:

A

Cinchonism (tinnitus)
Blackwater fever
Cardiotoxicity

53
Q

Guinidine-like (antiarrhythmic) malaria drugs:

A

Quinine
Chloroquine
Mefloquine

54
Q

Blood schizonticides:

A

Quinine
Mefloquine (against. p. falciparum and vivax)
Halofantrine
Atovaquone

55
Q

Used in chloroquine resistant malaria:

A

Atovaquone
Antifols
Mefloquine
Quinine

56
Q

Drugs increasing quinine blood concentrations:

A

Cimetidine (also chloroquine)
Sodium bicarbonate
Digoxin

57
Q

Drugs decreasing quinine blood levels or bioavailability:

A

Antacids

Rifamycins

58
Q

MOA of chloroquinine:

A

Prevents hemoglobin breakdown, leading to toxic heme buildup

59
Q

Malarial drugs with metabolite activity:

A

Chloroquine (modesethylchloroquine)
Halofantrine (n-desbutyl halofantrine)
Antifols (cycloguanil)

60
Q

Malarial drugs not recommended as prophylaxis:

A

Quinine
Halofantrine
Atovaquine

61
Q

Malarial drugs useful in pregnancy:

A

Chloroguanide

Mefloquine (2nd and 3rd trimesters only)

62
Q

Drugs interfering with chloroquine absorption:

A

Magnesium trisilicate

Kaopectate

63
Q

These two anti-malarial drugs in combination may fatally increase the QT interval:

A

Halofantrine

Mefloquine

64
Q

These two anti malarial drugs in combination increase the risk of convulsion

A

Mefloquine

Chloroquine

65
Q

This drug combined with quinine or other beta blockers may cause:

A

Mefloquine; ECG abnormalities and cardiac arrest

66
Q

Anti malarials excreted through feces:

A

Mefloquine (also bile)

Halofantrine

67
Q

MOA of mefloquine:

A

Raising intravesicular pH within parasite vesicles

68
Q

Most frequent adverse effects of Mefloquine:

A

GI effects
Dizziness
Loss of balance
Neurological and psychiatric effects

69
Q

Most well tolerated anti-malarials:

A

Antifols (Chloroguanide and Pyrimethamine)

Halofantrine

70
Q

Co-administration of this drug with warfarin may potentiate warfarin:

A

Chloroguanide

71
Q

Antimalarials CI in pregnancy:

A 
Primaquine
Fansidar
Tetracycline
Quinhaosu
Halofantrine
72
Q

Antimalarials CI in infants and children:

A

Primaquine
Fansidar
Mefloquine

73
Q

Drug used in congenital and neonatal malaria:

A

Chloroquine

74
Q

2 drugs that should be avoided during malaria infection:

A

Corticosteroids (esp. cerebral malaria)

Paracetamol (prolongs parasitic clearance)

75
Q

p. vivax and p. ovale should be treated with:

A

Primaquine

76
Q

1st line therapy for p. falciparum:

A

Quinine and Quinidine

77
Q

Most serious toxic effects of cycloserine:

A

Peripheral neuropathy
CNS dysfunction
Depression
Psychosis

78
Q

Co-administration of capreomycin and aminoglycosides may increase the risk of:

A

Respiratory paralysis

Renal dysfunction

79
Q

TB grouping in patient management:

A

A - Failure to convert (despite 4-6 mos.)
B - Previous Relapse (after 2 standard, 1 MDR)
C - Multi Drug Resistant (4 or more)
D - High relapse risk (destroyed lung)

Pharmacology (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions