Anti-HTN Flashcards

1
Q

What are 3 main strategies for decreasing HTN?

A
  1. Decrease TPR
  2. Decrease CO
  3. Decrease body fluid volume
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2
Q

Decreasing BP may result in homeostatic regulation which involves what potentially unwanted side effects?

A

Reflex tachycardia and edema

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3
Q

Which category of anti-HTN drugs do not result in reflex tachycardia and edema? What side effect will they get instead?

A

Autonomic drugs since they are already working on dampening the sympathetic response. They are more likely to exhibit orthostatic hypotension.

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4
Q

What are clonidine and methyldopa?

A

Alpha 2 agonists

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5
Q

What do alpha 2 agonists do?

A

Decrease in sympathetic outflow –> less NE released –> less activation of alpha 1 and beta 1 –> decreased TPR and decreased HR

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6
Q

What do we use clonidine and methyldopa for?

A

BOTH - mild to moderate hypertension
Just clonidine - opiate withdrawal
Just methyldopa - hypertensive management in pregnancy

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7
Q

Why do we see hemolytic anemia as a potential side effect with methyldopa?

A

Methyldopa binds strongly to plasma proteins (one of the reasons we like to use it as anti-HTN for pregnancy) but that also means it sticks around in the blood increasing the chance of hypersensitivity reaction that leads to hemolytic anemia

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8
Q

What side effects are shared by clonidine and methyldopa?

A

CNS depression and edema

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9
Q

What class of drugs decrease the antihypertensive effects of alpha 2 agonists and why?

A

TCA’s because they work to increase the levels of NE (by inhibiting reuptake) and this is the opposite of alpha 2 agonists trying to decrease NE levels

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10
Q

What does reserpine do?

A

Destroys vesicles - lowers NE, dopamine, and serotonin in CNS (can have side effect of severe depression)

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11
Q

What are 2 side effects of reserpine besides depression?

A
  1. Edema (from upregulating RAA axis from the decrease in blood pressure)
  2. GI secretions (upregulated parasympathetic since we’re blocking sympathetic)
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12
Q

Describe the drug interaction between guanethidine and TCA’s.

A

TCA’s block reuptake and action of guanethidine since guanethidine accumulates in nerve ending via reuptake

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13
Q

What does guanethidine do?

A

Binds to vesicles and inhibits release of NE

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14
Q

What are prazosin, doxazosin, terazosin (“-zosin” drugs)?

A

Alpha 1 blockers

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15
Q

How do alpha 1 blockers lower BP?

A

Decrease arteriolar and venous resistance

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16
Q

What are side effects of alpha 1 blocker?

A

Reflex tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension, urinary incontinence

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17
Q

What do we use alpha 1 blockers for besides lowering BP?

18
Q

What is the main mechanism by which beta blockers decrease hypertension?

A

Decrease renin

19
Q

What are 4 side effects of beta blockers being used as anti-HTN?

A
  1. Cardiac depression
  2. Fatigue
  3. Sexual dysfunction
  4. Increase LDLs and TGs
20
Q

When are beta blockers contraindicated?

A
  1. Asthmatics
  2. Vasospastic disorders
  3. Diabetes (can mask hypoglycemic events)
21
Q

What are 2 antihypertensives that work through NO?

A
  1. Hydralazine

2. Nitroprusside

22
Q

What does it mean that hydralazine is a selective dilator?

A

Works primarily on arteriolar side

23
Q

What is a major side effect of hydralazine and why?

A

SLE-like syndrome because it is highly protein bound (used to treat HTN in pregnant women)

24
Q

Is nitroprusside a selective or nonselective dilator?

A

Nonselective - works on both arterioles and venules

25
What is nitroprusside the drug of choice for?
Hypertensive emergencies in the hospital; given IV
26
Why can you not use nitroprusside for more than 24-36 hours?
Cyanide toxicity (think PRUSSIDE)
27
How can you decrease the cyanide toxicity of nitroprusside?
Coadminister with nitrites and thiosulfate
28
What are minoxidil and diazoxide?
AntiHTN drugs that open ATP-dependent K channels causing hyperpolarization of smooth muscle causing arteriolar vasodilation
29
What can minoxidil be used for other than hypertension?
Baldness (minoxidil is rogaine)
30
Where are the K channels located that minoxidil and diazoxide act on?
Arterioles or the pancreas (causes decreased insulin release by the beta cells which is why hyperglycemia is a side effect of these drugs)
31
Which calcium channel blockers are often used as anti-hypertensives?
Dihydropyridines (e.g. nifedipine) - block the L type Ca channels in the heart and blood vessels; acts strongly on the ones in the blood vessels leading to vasodilation
32
Name 2 drugs that give you gingival hyperplasia?
1. Nifedipine | 2. Phenytoin
33
What is aliskiren?
Renin inhibitor
34
What side effect is present with ACE inhibitors but not with aliskiren?
With ACE inhibitors you get cough because you inhibit the inactivation of bradykinin. This doesn't happen with aliskiren so no cough.
35
What is losartan?
Angiotensin 1 receptor blocker (ARB)
36
What do we use ACE inhibitors for?
1. Moderate to mild HTN 2. Protective against diabetic nephropathy 3. CHF
37
Why are ACE inhibitors contraindicated in the case of renal artery stenosis?
Because you need the effect of renin to get angiotensin II to preferentially constrict the efferent arteriole leading to increased GFR; if you block this with ACE inhibitor then you could cause renal failure
38
Patient with HTN with comorbidities of diabetes and/or heart failure - which antiHTN do we want to use?
ACEI's and ARB's
39
Patient with HTN and cardiac comorbidity (angina, heart failure, post MI) - which antiHTN do we want to use?
Beta blockers
40
Patient with HTN and comorbidities of BPH and dyslipidemia - which antiHTN do we want to use?
Alpha blockers