Antenatal Screening Flashcards

1
Q

What proportion of pregnancies in Scotland are unplanned?

A

1/3

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2
Q

How does obesity affect pregnancy?

A
  • Causes higher rate of poor outcomes including miscarriage and still birth
  • Routine measurements of fundal height to monitor fetal growth and presentation may be impossible on abdominal palpation
  • Venous thromboembolic events are more common in obese patients
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3
Q

How can alcohol affect pregnancy?

A

It is associated with fetal abnormalities causing a fetal alcohol syndrome which produces a typical facial appearance and affects learning

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4
Q

What general advice can be given to women pre-pregnancy?

A

•General health measures

  • Improve diet
  • Optimise BMI
  • Reduce alcohol consumption
  • Smoking cessation advice
  • Take folic acid - helps prevent birth defects
  • 400 mcg
  • 5mg
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5
Q

How may age affect pregnancy?

A
  • Pregnancy outcomes are poorer at both ends of the fertile population
  • Teenagers may be socially deprived with lack of support, smoke more, and not receive the antenatal care they need, often booking late
  • Older women, particularly the over 40s, are more prone to pre-existing medical conditions and develop complications of pregnancy such as gestational diabetes and hypertension
  • Chromosomal disorders increase dramatically with advancing maternal age.
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6
Q

How may parity affect pregnancy?

A
  • Pre-eclampsia is predominantly a condition of nulliparity, occurring in the first pregnancy
  • Grand multiparity (4 or more deliveries) predisposes women to postpartum haemorrhage
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7
Q

How may occupation affect pregnancy?

A
  • A patient’s occupation may expose them to situations that put either themselves or their fetus at risk
  • They may have a very busy job with inadequate rest periods or be exposed to substances such as chemicals which cause fetal anomalies
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8
Q

How may substance misuse affect pregnancy?

A
  • Substance misuse such has effects both on the mother who may not seek antenatal care or attend intermittently and on the fetus
  • Heroin, methadone and benziodiazapines are addictive to the fetus and cause a withdrawal syndrome in the baby when it is cut off from its supply at birth
  • Cocaine and crack are associated with abruption resulting in fetal death
  • Women with substance misuse are seen in a specialist multidisciplinary clinic involving obstetricians, midwives, members of the substance misuse team (psychiatrists & CPNs), social workers and health visitors.
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9
Q

What advice regarding pre-existing medical conditions can be given to women pre-pregnancy?

A

•Optimise maternal health
-Diabetes (Pregnancy is advised against when the HbA1c is significantly elevated)

•Stop/Change any unsuitable drugs
-Good examples are chronic hypertension and epilepsy (Avoid ACE-I and sodium valproate)

•Advise regarding complications associated with maternal medical problems

  • Worsening of maternal disease due to pregnancy
  • Associated fetal abnormalities

•Occasionally advise against pregnancy
-Significant cardiac disease can be associated with maternal mortality (can only advise)

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10
Q

What is the relevance of phenylketonuria in pregnancy?

A
  • Phenylketonuria is an inborn error of protein metabolism which causes an inability to metabolism essential amnio acid phenylalanine
  • This results in high levels which causes mental developmental impairment
  • It is screened for in newborn babies and amendable to treatment
  • However if a woman with PKU is pregnant she needs to restart her low phenylalanine diet to prevent high levels reaching the developing fetal brain
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11
Q

What is the relevance of low thyroxine levels in pregnancy?

A
  • The demand for thyroxine increases during pregnancy and therefore doses may need to be increased if mother has hypothyroidism
  • Normal thyroxine levels are also required for fetal brain development.
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12
Q

What is the relevance of high thyroxine levels in pregnancy?

A
  • A small number of women will be hyperthyroid entering pregnancy such as Graves disease
  • They need treatment to keep their thyroid hormone levels normal
  • Thyroid stimulating antibodies can cross the placenta to the foetus so the neonate will need to be checked as well
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13
Q

What are the risks associated with diabetes in pregnancy and how are they counteracted?

A
  • Women with type 2 diabetes who are on oral hypoglyceamic medications need to be switched to insulin
  • Diabetic patients are more at risk of pregnancy complications such as pre-eclampsia, stillbirth and macrosomic infants
  • They should be cared for in a joint diabetic obstetric antenatal clinic
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14
Q

How are renal patients affected by their condition in pregnancy?

A
  • Renal patients are more likely to develop pre-eclampsia which may be difficult to diagnose if they already have proteinuria and pre-existing hypertension
  • Pregnancy is now possible for women who previously would not have been able to have children
  • Renal transplantation restores fertility as well as renal function
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15
Q

How does epilepsy affect pregnancy?

A
  • The main concern for women with epilepsy is the effect of their anti-epileptic medication on their developing fetus
  • Sodium valproate is an effective drug but is associated with a higher rate of spina bifida in the offspring of women taking it
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16
Q

What are some maternal previous pregnancy problems and how are each of these conditions prevented?

A
  • Pre-eclampsia - recommend aspirin 150mg during pregnancy and regular BP monitoring
  • Gestational diabetes - HbA1C at booking and OGTT at 28 weeks
  • Caesarian section - consider elective caesarian (may be fine if previous breech presentation)
  • DVT or PE - consider antenatal thromboprophylaxis and 6 weeks postnatal treatment
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17
Q

What are some fetal previous pregnancy problems and how are each of these conditions prevented?

A
  • Intrauterine growth restriction – recommend aspirin 150mg during pregnancy and serial ultrasound scans
  • Preterm birth – consider transvaginal cervical length scans or cervical suture
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18
Q

What is the point of antenatal care?

A
  • Reduces fetal and maternal mortality
  • Aims to identify problems during pregnancy
  • Address concerns and prepare for parenthood
19
Q

What do you feel for in antenatal abdominal palpation?

A
  • Assess symphyseal fundal height (SFH)
  • Estimate size of baby
  • Estimate liquor volume
  • If fetal lie is abnormal - implications for delivery
20
Q

If the baby is lying in breech position, after how many weeks is it normal to offer an external cephalic version (ECV)?

A

36 weeks - if not, usually elective caesarian

21
Q

Why is antenatal screening important?

A

•Allows conditions to be detected early in a symptomless population to be treated for mother/baby

22
Q

When is screening for infection carried out?

A

First trimester

23
Q

What are all pregnant women screened for?

A

•Rubella - to prevent congenital rubella syndrome
•Hep B - If infected can provide passive and active immunisation for baby
•Syphilis - easily treated with penicillin, can cause intrauterine growth restriction
•HIV - maternal treatment and careful planning reduces vertical transmission
(also MSSU for UTI)

24
Q

When is screening for anaemia and isoimmunisation performed?

A

1st trimester and at 28 weeks

25
Q

Why is iron deficiency anaemia screened for in pregnancy?

A
  • It is common in pregnancy

* Additional iron iron is required to make extra maternal red blood cells for developing fetes and placenta

26
Q

What is isoimmunisation?

A

Development of autoantibodies against blood groups

27
Q

What is the most common isoimmunisation?

A

Rhesus disease

28
Q

What is Rhesus disease?

A
  • Anti-D antibodies
  • Sensitisation happens when a woman with RhD negative blood is exposed to RhD positive blood, usually during a previous pregnancy with an RhD positive baby
  • If sensitisation occurs, the next time the woman is exposed to RhD positive blood, her body produces antibodies immediately
  • If she’s pregnant with an RhD positive baby, the antibodies can cross the placenta, causing rhesus disease in the unborn baby
29
Q

How is Rhesus disease treated?

A

By providing the RhD negative mother with passive immunisation to destroy foetal RBCs in the maternal circulation before the maternal immune system has the opportunity to be activated and produce its own antibodies

30
Q

What is the purpose of the first ultrasound scan?

A
  • Ensure pregnancy viable
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Identify abnormalities incompatible with life
  • Offer and carry out Down’s syndrome screening
  • Ideally performed between 11 and 14 weeks gestation
31
Q

How are chromosomal abnormalities screened for?

A
  • Multiple screening tests are available
  • Women and their partners must be aware prior to any screening taking place that tests for foetal abnormality only provide a risk of their baby being affected.
  • Further testing will be offered to definitively tell if a baby is affected
  • Embarking on prenatal screening may sometimes result in parents having to make a difficult decision regarding termination of pregnancy
32
Q

How is down syndrome screened for?

A
  • Carried out at 10-14 weeks gestation
  • Uses maternal risk factors, serum beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (beta-hCG) and pregnancy associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A) and fetal nuchal translucency (NT) measurement - Detects 60% fetuses with T21 for a false positive rate of 5%
  • invasive testing to check placenta chromosomes - Detects 85-90% fetuses with T21 for a false positive rate of 5%
33
Q

What are maternal risk factors associated with down syndrome?

A
  • Maternal age as the incidence of Downs increases with advancing maternal age
  • Family history which may indicate a balances translocation in some members of a family
34
Q

When is nuchal translucency checked?

A

When crown-rump length is 45-84mm

35
Q

Why might it not be possible to measure nuchal translucency?

A

Foetal position or maternal BMI

36
Q

What is the alternative option for NT?

A

2nd trimester biochemical screening

37
Q

What is 2nd trimester biochemical screening?

A
  • hCG, unconjugated oestrodiol, alpha-fetoprotein, inhibin-A
  • 14+2 – 20+0 weeks gestation
  • If Alpha-fetoprotein >2.0 MoM, can raise concerns about fetal abnormality (eg spinabifida or exomphalos
38
Q

What happens with a high risk result after 2nd trimester biochemical screening?

A
•Further testing is offered if risk is >1 in 150
•Options:
-CVS
-Amniocentesis
-Non-invasive Prenatal testing
39
Q

What is CVS and when is it carried out?

A
  • Chorionic villus sampling
  • Between 10-14 weeks
  • 1-2% risk of miscarriage
40
Q

What is amniocentesis and when is it carried out?

A
  • Sampling of amniotic fluid
  • 15 weeks onwards
  • ~1% risk of miscarriage
41
Q

What is the procedure for non-invasive prenatal testing?

A
  • Maternal blood taken
  • Can detect fetal cell free DNA
  • Can look for chromosomal trisomies
  • Not currently offered on NHS but parents can have test privately
  • If high risk, still recommended to have invasive testing to confirm
42
Q

What is the purpose of 2nd trimester ultrasound?

A
  • To detect foetal abnormality e.g. neural tube defects

* Soft markers for chromosomal abnormalities

43
Q

What is 2nd trimester ultrasound poor for detecting?

A
  • Chromosomal abnormalities
  • 50% of fetuses with T21 will have a normal detailed USS
  • 17% of fetuses with T18 will have a normal detailed USS
  • 9% of fetuses with T13 will have a normal detailed USS
44
Q

What is exomphalos?

A

The weakness of a baby’s abdominal wall where the umbilical cord joins it