Anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

Factors that lead to difficult mask ventilation

A

age >55
obese
sleep apnea/snores
facial hair
mallampati III/IV
Facial deformity
no teeth

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2
Q

LEMON evaluation of difficult airway

A

L: look: obesity, poor dentition, facial abnormalities, beard
E: 3-3-2 rule
M: mallampati
O: obstruction: stridor, foreign body, masses
N: neck mobility

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3
Q

What is the 332 rule

A

3- patients own fingers can be placed between incisors
3- fingers along the floor of the mandible between the mentum and hyoid bone.
3- 2 fingers in the superior laryngeal notch (thyroid mouth distnce)

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4
Q

a thyromental distance (distance of lower manidble in the midline from the mentum to the thyroid notch) that is under ___ cm is associated with difficult intubation

A

<6 cm.

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5
Q

Cormack-Lehane score

A

1: all the laryngeal structures seen (entire cords)
2: only the posterior cords and artenoids
3: larynx is concealed, only the epiglottis
4: neither glottis nor epiglottis.

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6
Q

ASA classification

A

ASA1: healthy, fit patient
ASA 2: a patient with mild systemic disease (ex/ Controlled T2DM)
ASA3: a patient with severe systemic disease that limits activity (ex/ stable CAD, COPD)
ASA4: a patient with incapacitating disease that is a constant threat to life (unstable CAD, renal failure)
ASA5: a moribund patient not expected to survive 24hours without surgery (ruptured AAA)
ASA6: declared brain dead, a patient whose organs are being removed for donation purses

E* for emergency operations to any ASA class.

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7
Q

TF you should take your diabetic meds the day of your surgery

A

false. Do not take anti-hyperglycemic agents on the morning of the surgery, especially since you likely would have fasted. Can consider adjusting insulin.

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8
Q

Meds to stop the day of surgery

A
  • antihyperglycemics
  • ACE and ARBs
  • warfarin (consider bridging with heparin), anti-platelet agents (clopidogrel)
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9
Q

Beta 1 vs Beta 2 location and function

A

Beta 1: mainly in the heart and kidneys. Targeted activation of the beta-1 receptor increases heart rate, renin release, and lipolysis.
Beta 2: located in the smooth muscle (bronchi) to DILATE them.

Non-selective beta blockers like carvedilol or labetalol may be dangerous in people with respiratory conditions– they will be unresponsive to beta 2 agonists such as salbutamol if they are on a a non-selective beta blocker to regulate blood pressure.

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10
Q

STOPBANG criteria for OSA

A

Snores
Tired
Observed Apnea
Pressure (high)
BMI
Age >50
Neck circumference
Gender: male

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11
Q

If you put the ET tube too far down, it can cause a ___-sided endobronchial intubation, which is associated with Left sided ___ and right sided___ ___.

A

If you put the ET tube too far down, it can cause a RIGHT-sided endobronchial intubation, which is associated with Left sided ATELECTASIS and right sided TENSION PNEUMOTHORAX.

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12
Q

gold standard for making sure the ET tube is in the airway

A

capnography assessment.

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13
Q

reversible causes of PEA arrest (5Hs and 5Ts)

A

H; hypothermia, hypovolemia, hypokalemia, hypoxia, hydrogen ions (acidosis)

T: tamponade, thrombosis pulmonary, thrombosis coronary, tension pneumo, toxins (overdose/poisonings)

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14
Q

Maintenance fluid requirements

A

4-3-2 rule: 4 for first 10, 2 for next 10, and 1 for every kg after to calculate fluid requirement ml/H

OR
May add 40 to adults who weigh above 20 kg for ml/Hr dosing: ex// adult weighs 50kg– 90ml/hr is her maintenance.

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15
Q

Calculating acceptable blood loss; how much blood volume (ml) can they lose before you need to transfuse? Consider transfusion threshold to be when Hb is 70.

the man is 70kg, his Hb is 150.

A

adult male= 70ml/kg
female= 60ml/kg
child=80ml/kg blood vol.

This guy is 70kg. –> 70kg x 70ml/kg = 4900 ml of blood.
[(Hbi- Hbf)- EBV]/Hbi
= [(150-70)-4900]/150
= 2613. Therefore, you need to start transfusing at around 2.6L of blood loss.

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16
Q

how does sevo affect ICP

A

increases ICP

17
Q

how does acute alcohol intoxication affect MAC? how does chronic alcohol abuse affect MAC?

A

acute= decrease MAC at its baseline
chronic = increase MAC at its baseline– will need more substances to get someone off to sleep.

18
Q

what happens with pseudocholinesterase deficiency?

A

means that SCh cannot be broken down and a person may be paralyzed for longer. Psuedocholinesterase deficiency can be due to liver disease, inherited, malnutrition, hypothyroidism.

19
Q

MOA of SCH

A

Sch is non-competitive. It mimics ACh and binds to Ach, cause prolonged depolarization and temporary paralysis ssecondary to blocked Ach receptors by Sch.

20
Q

intubating dose of Sch

A

1-1.5mg/kg

21
Q

Contraindications to use of SCh as a paralyzing agent

A

Anything that can cause hyperkalemia
- 3rd degree burns 24hours-6 months after injury
traumatic paralysis of neuromuscular disease (DMD)
- severe intra-abdominal infections
-severe closed head injury (can cause high ICP_
- upper motor neuron lesion.

  • anything that can cause hyperkalemic response.
22
Q

What is neostigmine and when can you use it.

A

It is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor and thus a REVERSAL agent of ROCURONIUM (competitive inhibitor). Neostigmine allows ACh to build up in the space and override the rocuronium. It can only be used when there has been some recovery of blockade (ie/ train of four muscle repsonse to stimulation)

23
Q

t/f neostigmine can be used as a reversal agent of SCh

A

false. can only reverse the effect of non-depolarizing agents (ie/roc)

24
Q

use of atropine when paralyzing someone

A

anticholinergic agents like atropine or glycopyrrolate are simultaneously administered to minimize muscarinic effect of reversal agents (bradycardia, salivation)

25
Q

What do you combine neostigmine (anticholinesterase inhibitor) with when trying to reverse a neuromuscular blockade?

A

combine with glycopyrolate to minimize muscarinic-cholinergic effect of reversal agents (bradycardia, salivation)

26
Q

treatment of laryngospasm

A
  • this usually happens in semi-conscious patients. best to extubate a patient when deeply under anesthesia or when fully awake.
    treatment: suction, remove oral airway/LMA, apply sustained positive pressure (CPAP) with +/- low dose prop or low-dose SCh, reintubate if hypoxia develops.
27
Q

classic presentation of dural puncture headache

A

onset 6h-3d after dural puncture
post dural component is present (worse when sitting)
occipital or frontal localization +/- tinnitus, diplopia.

28
Q

contraindications to spinal/epidural anesthesia

A
  • patient refusal or lack of equipment
  • allergy to local
  • infection at puncture site
  • bleeding disorder
  • raised ICP
  • sepsis/bacteremia
  • severe hypovolemia
  • cardiac issues –> severe mitral/aortic stenosis
  • lack of IV access.
  • pre-existing neurologic disease is a relative contraindication.
29
Q

Timeline of Local Anesthetic Systemic Toxicity

A
  1. tongue numbness/metallic taste
  2. light headedness/disorientation
  3. sensory abnormalities
  4. muscle twitching
  5. unconsciousness
  6. Convulsions
  7. Coma
  8. Respiratory arrest
  9. Cardiovascular collapse.
30
Q

treatment of systemic toxicity

A

100% O2, manage ABCs
Diazepam or other anticonvulsant to prevent potential onset of seizures
manage arrhythmias
Intralipid* 20% to bind local anesthetic in circulation.

31
Q

in peds, cardiac output is dependent on ___. Why

A

dependent on Heart rate, not stroke volume, because of low heart wall compliance; therefore, bradycardia severely compromises CO

32
Q

Pathophysiology of malignant hyperthermia

A

hypermetabolic disorder of skeletal muscle. Due to an uncontrolled increase in intracellular Ca2+ (because of an anomaly of the ryanodine receptor that regulates Ca2+ channel in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle). Autosomal dominant inhertance. Triggered by all inhalation agents except NO, and depolarizing muscle relaxants including SCh.

33
Q

signs of malignant hyperthermia

A

rise in CO2
increase in minute ventilation (trying to remove the CO2)
tachycardia
rigidity, trismus
hyperthermia
complications: coma, DIC, rhabdomyolysis, myoglobunuric renal railure, ARDs, hyperkalemia)

34
Q

treatment of malignant hyperthermia (Some Hot Dude Better Get Iced Fluids Fast)

A

Stop all triggering agents, 100% O2
Hyperventilate
Dantrolene 2.5mg/kg
Bicarb (offset acidemia)
Glucose and insulin (deal with the hyperkalemia via shift)
IV fluids, cool patient to 38
Fluid output, consider furosemide (if swellign)
Fast heart; be prepared to treat VT