anatomy & physiology P1 Flashcards

1
Q

Skeletal system function

A

protection for internal organs e.g. ribs protect heart & lungs
site of blood cell production
mineral store
provides attachment for muscles
act as levers & pivot points creating movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

bone type

A

flat bones - suitable site for muscular attachment e.g. sternum & ribcage
Long bones - act as levers for movement, sites for blood cell production e.g. Femur
irregular bones - vertebrae, protect spinal cords
short bones - patella, ease joint movement & resist compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

skeletal system - bones to know

A

learn most

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

joint def

A

an area of a body where two or mire bines articulate to create human movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

joint components

A

Ligaments - elastic connective tissue, b2b, stabilises movement
Synovial fluid - lubricating liquid, reduces friction, nourishes articular cartilage
Articular cartilage - smooth tissue covers surface of articulating bines, absorbs shock, allows for friction free movement
joint capsule - fibrous sac, w inner synovial membrane, encloses & strengthens the joint, secretes synovial fluid
bursa - fluid filled sac where tendons rub over bones. reduces friction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

synovial joint types

A
hinge
pivot
condyloid
ball & socket
saddle
gliding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

hinge joint

A
motion in one plane
flexion 
extension
knee 
elbow
ankle
limits sideways movements as bone held tightly by ligament
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

pivot joint

A
rounded bone articulates with ring shaped bone
movement in one plane
supination
pronation
radio-ulnar joint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

condyloid joint

A
flat bones allow motion in 2 planes
flexion
extension
circumduction
abduction
adduction
wrist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ball & Socket joint

A
ball shaped head articulates with a cup shaped socket
large range of movement
all 3 planes
plantar-flexion
dorsi-flexion
abduction
adduction
flexion 
extension
rotation 
hip, shoulder,
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

saddle joint

A

thumb joint

allows for all movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

gliding joint

A

intercarpal joints

bones glide over each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Plane of movement

A

the description of three dimensional movements at a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Planes

A

sagittal
frontal
transverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Sagittal plane

A
lies vertically 
divides into left & right 
flexion 
extension e.g. bicep curl
dorsi-flexion
plantar-flexion
can also occur at wrist as well as knee, ankle, elbow and hip
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

frontal plane

A
lies vertically 
divides body into anterior & posterior
abduction 
adduction
e.g. lateral raises
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

transverse plane

A
lies horizontally
divides into superior & inferior
horizontal flexion
horizontal extension
e.g. backwards swing of discus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

flexion

A

decreases joint angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

extension

A

increases joint angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

dorsi-flexion

A

toes move up (towards back) closer towards tibia

decreases joint angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

plantar-flexion

A

toes move down away from tibia

increases joint angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

rotation

A

articulating bones turn about their longitudinal axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Adduction

A

limbs move towards midline of body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Abduction

A

limbs move away from midline of body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

horizontal flexion

A

limb moves towards the midline of the body parallel to the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

horizontal extension

A

limb moves away from the midline of the body parallel to the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Muscles exert?

A

power
makes small adjustments for balance, whether our body is in rest or motion
Action requires co-ordination of skeletal muscles to contract, creating a pull force bringing two body parts closer together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Tendons

A

Attach muscles to bone

transmit the pull force created by the muscle to move the bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Origin

A

the point of muscular attachment to a stationary bone which stays relatively fixed during muscular contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Insertion

A

the point of muscular attachment to a moveable bone which gets closer to the origin during muscular contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Agonistic muscle action

A

work in pairs - co ordinated movement

diff roles which change, depending on type of movement produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Agonist

A

the muscle responsible for creating the movement

‘prime mover’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Antagonist

A

muscle that opposes the agonist

gives resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Fixator

A

stabilises one part of a body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

example of agonistic muscle pairs

A

Kicking a football, the quadriceps group is agonist - extension of knee, pulls lower leg into a straight position.
Hamstring group act as antagonist, co-ordinates movement
Fixator is the gluteus maximus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Agonistic muscle pairs - flexion (swap for extension)

A
Wrist = Wrist flexors - Agonist, Extensors - Antagonist
Elbow = Biceps Brachii - Agonist, Triceps Brachii - Antagonist
Shoulder = Anterior deltoid - Agonist, Posterior deltoid - Antagonist
Hip = illiopsoas - Agonist, Gluteus Maxmimus - Antagonist
knee = biceps femoris - Agonist, Rectus femoris - Antagonist
ankle = tibialis anterior - Agonist, Gastrocnemius & Soleus - Antagonist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Muscular system - overall

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The quadricep muscle group

A
Adductor longus
Rectus Femoris 
Vastus Intermedius 
Vastus lateralis
Vastus medialis 
inner thigh - Pectinus, iliopsoas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

the hamstring group

A

Biceps femoris
Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus
(dinosaurs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Muscle contraction types

A

Isotonic - concentric, eccentric
Isometric
muscle uses energy to create a force, creating human movement by contracting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Isotonic contraction

A

when a muscle changes length during its contraction

can be eccentric or concentric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Isometric contraction

A

when a muscle contracts but does not change length

e.g. posture being maintained, plank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Concentric contraction

A

muscle shortens producing tension
pulls two bones closer together
e.g. flexion in bicep curl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Eccentric contraction

A

muscle lengthens producing tension
resists forces
e.g. extension in bicep curl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Muscle fibre types

A

Type 1 - Slow oxidative
Type 2a - fast oxidative glycolytic
Type 2B/2X - Fast glycolytic
genes determine the mix, training can influence
can increase size of fibres through muscular training - hypertrophy = increase in number & size of myofibrils per fibre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Slow oxidative

A

type 1
store oxygen in myoglobin -> process in mitochondria.
High Myoglobin content ->Aerobic
High Mitochondria density -> more oxygen processed
Low force of contraction
Slow speed of contraction
LOW PC STORE
Endurance: Marathon, triathlon & cross-country skiing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Fast oxidative glycolytic

A

work under anaerobic intensities
large stores of PC -> rapid energy production
Moderate mitochondria density & Myoglobin content
Fast speed & high force of contraction
Moderate aerobic & anaerobic capacity
high intensity athletes 800-1500m, 200m freestyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Fast glycolytic

A
type 2x (2b)
anaerobic intensities
Large stores of PC
Low mitochondria density & myoglobin content
Fast speed & high force of contraction
Low aerobic capacity 
High anaerobic capacity 
Explosive athletes: 60-100m sprinting, javelin, Long jump
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Skeletal muscle contraction

A

contract w stimulated by an electrical impulse
motor neurones = specialised cells, transmit nerve impulses rapidly to grps of muscle fibres
MN have cell body in brain/sc with an extending axon -> connects motor end plates to a group of muscle fibres.
MN and Muscle fibres = Motor unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Motor unit

A
function - carry nerve impulses from brain and sc to muscle fibres. 
an electrochemical process - relies on an action potential to conduct nerve impulse
action potential (+ve)sends electrical charge down axon to the motor end plates.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Synaptic cleft

A

the neuromuscular junction = axons motor end plates meet the muscular fibres
The small gap between MEP & Muscular fibre = synaptic cleft
Action potential triggers release of acetylcholine - NT to help the action potential cross the gap
if enough NT is released & charge is above a threshold = muscle action potential is fired.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

All or none law

A

a motor unit recieves a stimulus -> action potential = threshold charge -> all muscle fibres in motor unit will contract at the same time w maximum force

if the action potential =/ reach threshold charge -> none of the muscle fibres will contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Heart structure

A

double pump
4 chambers: RA,RV,LA,LV -separate o2 blood & non o2 blood
thick left muscular wall - more force to contract, circulates o2 blood
right side circulates non o2 blood from body to lungs
Atrio-ventricular valves
semi-lunar valves (V & exiting blood vessels)-> prevent back flow of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Systemic Circuit

A

the circulation of blood through the aorta to the body & Vena Cava back to the heart
carries o2 blood to body
carries non o2 blood back to heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

pulmonary circuit

A

the circulation of blood through the pulmonary artery to the lungs and pulmonary vein back to the heart
carries non o2 blood to lungs
carries o2 blood back to heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does the Cardiovascular system look like?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The path of blood: left side

A

Blood is O2 @ lungs -> the left atria through pulmonary vein
O2 blood moves from LA through left AV valve into LV
Left ventricle forces blood out of heart into Aorta
Aorta carries O2 blood to muscles & organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

the path of blood through heart: right side

A

de o2 blood from organs & muscles arrive back @ Right atria through the vena cava
Blood moves from RA through Right AV valve into RV to be forced out of heart -> pulmonary artery
Pulmonary artery carries deO2blood to lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Conduction system defined

A

a set of structures in the cardiac muscle which create & transmit electrical impulse, forcing the atria & ventricles to contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Myogenic defined

A

the capacity of the heart to generate it’s own electrical impulse -> causes cardiac muscle to contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The conduction system

A

structures which pass the electrical impulse through the cardiac muscle, in a co-ordinated fashion

  1. Sino-Atrial node ‘pacemaker’- generates impulse & fires to Atria walls -> contract
  2. Atrio-ventricular node -> collects impulse and delays for 0.1 s -> allow atria to stop contracting -> releases to bundle of His
  3. Bundle of His -> in septum of heart, splits into two -> distributes impulse down each ventricle
  4. Bundle branches -> carry the impulse to base of V.
  5. Purkyne fibres -> distribute the impulse through ventricle walls causing them to contract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Diastole

A

the relaxation phase of cardiac muscle where the chambers fill with blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Systole def

A

the contraction phase of the cardiac muscle where the blood is forcibly ejected into Aorta & Pulmonary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

the cardiac cycle

A

the process of cardiac muscle contraction & the movement of blood through it’s chambers
1 complete cycle represents the sequence of events involved in a single heartbeat
at rest, 1 cycle = 0.8 seconds
two phases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Cardiac diastole

A

relaxation of the cardiac muscle

first atria then the ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Cardiac systole

A

contraction of cardiac muscle

first atria then ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Atrial and Ventricular diastole

A
  • chambers expand & draw in blood
  • pressure in atria increases -> opens AV valves
  • Blood passively enters the ventricles
  • SL valves close to prevent blood leaving heart
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Atrial systole

A

atria contact -> force blood into ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Ventricular systole

A

ventricles contract -> increase in pressure -> close AV valves to prevent backflow -> SL valves open -> blood is ejected into the aorta and pulmonary artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

how does the conduction system control the cardiac cycle?

A
  • conduction system -> creation & passing of an electrical impulse through cardiac muscle
  • forms a single heart beat, 72 times per minute @ rest
71
Q

What does a normal ECG trace look like? + the cardiac events involved

A

no electrical impulse = causes diastole,
SA node fires electrical impulse = causes atrial systole
Bundle of His splits & passes the message to ventricles = Causes ventricular systole

72
Q

Heart rate

A

represents number of cardiac cycles in one minute
number of times the heart beats per minute
AVG 70BPM
the lower - the more efficient the cardiac muscle
affected by genetics, gender and fitness

73
Q

Stroke volume

A

the volume of blood ejected from the left ventricle per beat (ventricular systole)
resting SV is approx 70ml - higher in trained athletes
depends on venous return and ventricular elasticity & contractility

74
Q

cardiac output (Q)

A

HR X SV =Q
The volume of blood ejected from the left ventricle per minute
resting Q is approx 5L/min
For athletes Q is similar to average due to cardiac hypertrophy -> Cardiac muscle more effecient

75
Q

Bradycardia

A

A resting heart rate of below 60bpm

76
Q

Venous return

A

the return of blood to the right atria through the veins

77
Q

Sub-maximal

A

low to moderate intensity of exercise within a performer’s aerobic capacity

78
Q

Maximal

A

high intensity exercise above a performers aerobic capacity that will induce fatigue

79
Q

Monitoring heart rate, cardiac output and stroke volume is good for?

A

assessing the efficiency
maximising aerobic performance
enable us to live an active, balanced and healthy lifestyle

80
Q

method to work out max heart rate

A

MAX HR = 220-AGE

81
Q

Examples of athletes with bradycardia

A

Tour de france Miguel Indurain - 28bpm
Alistair brownlee - 34bpm
Paula radcliffe - mid 40BPM

82
Q

Ventricular elasticity and contractilty

A

the degree of stretch in the cardiac muscle fibres

the greater the stretch, the greater the force of contraction which will raise the SV

83
Q

Trained values for HR,SV AND Q AT REST

A

50BPM
100ML
5L/MIN

84
Q

Untrained values for HR,SV AND Q AT REST

A

72BPM
70ML
5L/MIN

85
Q

How does the cardiac system respond to exercise and recovery?

A

exercise - demand for 02^ by muscle, role to increase o2 blood flow 2 muscles, response depends on sub-maximal and maximal

recovery - lowers heart rate, sv as less o2 is demanded to the muscles

86
Q

How does Cardiac output respond to exercise?

A

Q ^ inline with exercise intensity & plateaus during maximal exercise
In recovery, a rapid decrease of Q then followed by slower decrease to resting levels
can depend on Starling’s law

87
Q

What is starling’s law?

A

Increased venous return leads to an increased stroke volume, due to an increased stretch of the ventricle walls and force of contraction

88
Q

Untrained values @ submaximal exercise

A

130BPM
120ML
15L/Min

89
Q

Untrained values @ maximal exercise

A

220-agebpm
120ml
30L/min

90
Q

Trained values @ sub-maximal exercise

A

120bpm
200ml
20l/min

91
Q

Trained values @maximal exercise

A

220-age bpm
200ml
40l/min

92
Q

how does HR respond to exercise?

A

HR increases proportionately to the intensity of exercise until reached the maximal intensity
-Sub-maximal intensity, HR plateaus as we reach a comfortable steady state

93
Q

What does the plateau during sub-maximal steady state exercise mean?

A

it shows the supply meeting the demand for oxygen delivery and waste removal.

94
Q

What happens to the HR during waste removal?

A

An initial anticipatory rise in HR prior to the release of hormone adrenaline
A rapid increase in HR @ start to increase blood flow & oxygen delivery in line with intensity
A steady state HR throughout the sustained intensity exercise as o2 meets demand
A initial rapid decrease in HR as enter recovery & muscle pump reduces
A more gradual decrease in HR to resting levels

95
Q

How does Stroke Volume respond to exercise?

A

SV increases in proportion to intensity until a plateau is reached @40-60% of working capacity - for sub-maximal

96
Q

Stroke volume can increases because of …

A

Increased venous return -> greater volume of blood returning to the heart & filling the ventricles -> due to squeezing action of muscle pump
The starling mechanism - an increased end-diastolic volume in the ventricles -> greater stretch in V walls -> increased force of contraction

97
Q

Stroke volume reaches a plateau during sub-maximal exercise due to:

A

Increased heart rate towards maximal intensities doesn’t allow time for ventricles to completely fill with blood in the diastolic phase -> limiting the starling mechanism

98
Q

Stroke volume is maintained during early recovery as …

A

heart rate rapidly reduces & maintains blood flow and removal of waste products while lowering the stress and the workload on the cardiac muscle

99
Q

Heart rate regulation

A

the cardiac control centre is involved in increasing / decreasing the heart rate

100
Q

autonomic nervous system

A

involuntary regulates HR & determines firing rate of SA node

101
Q

the cardiac control centre (C.C.C.)

A

located in the medulla oblongata, in brain
recives information from sensory nerves
sends directions through motor nerves to change the HR
Actions increase or decrease in stimulation of the SA NODE - Can raise or lower the HR
IF increase - sypmathetic nervous system actioned -> release adrenaline

102
Q

three control mechanisms of c.c.c.

A

Neural control - chemoreceptors, baroceptors, proprietors
Intrinsic control
Hormonal control

103
Q

Neural control - control mechanisms

A

Chemoreceptors - in muscles, arota and carotid arteries, detect chemical changes (O2 AND LA)
Baroreceptors - detect changes in blood pressure, in blood vessel walls
Proprioceptors - detect changes in muscular activity, in muscles, tendons and joints

104
Q

Intrinsic control- control mechanisms

A
  • Temperature changes will affect the viscosity of blood & speed of nerve impulse transmission
  • Venous Return changes will affect the stretch in ventricle walls, force of ventricular contraction & stroke volume
105
Q

Hormonal control - control mechanisms

A

Adrenaline & Noradrenaline are released from the adrenal glands
increase force of ventricular contraction & increasing the spread of electrical activity throughout the heart

106
Q

HR regulation in response to recovery

A

chm: ^co2 & lactic acid levels
prp: decreased motor activity
brp: decreased stretch on vessel walls
IC: decreased temperature & venous return
HC: parasympathetic inhibition of adrenaline & noradrenaline
-> Parasympathetic NS decreases stimulation of SA NODE via vagus nerve to decrease HR

107
Q

HR regulation in response to exercise

A

chp; ^co2 levels and lactic acid
brp: ^ stretch on vessel walls
prp: ^motor activity
IC: ^ temperature & venous return
HC: sympathetic release pf adrenaline & noradrenaline
->sympathetic NS increases stimulation of SA node via the accelerator nerve to increase HR

108
Q

Vascular system

A

network of blood vessels
carry blood in one direction
ensures o2 & nutrients are delivered to all respiring cells for energy production & waster is removed efficiently
blood consists of 45% cells & 55% plasma -> transports nutrients & glucose, fights disease and maintains the internal stability of the body & regulate temperature

109
Q

Arteries & Arterioles

A

transport O2 blood from the heart to muscles and organs

large layer of smooth muscle

110
Q

Capillaries

A

bring blood slowly to contact with the muscle & organ cells for gaseous exchange
single layer of cells - allow gas, nutrient and waste exchange

111
Q

Veins & Venules

A

transports deo2 blood from the muscles & organs back to the heart.
Venules leaving the capillary reconnect to form veins
veins carry slow moving blood at low pressure
one way pocket valve - prevents backflow

112
Q

Venous return mechanism

A

the return of blood to the heart though the venules and veins back to the right atrium.
@Rest, blood pressure & structure will maintain venous return
@exercise, a greater demand for o2 blood requires a far greater venous return to increase SV & Q

113
Q

Mechanisms of venous return

A

Pocket valves - prevent backflow of blood
Smooth muscle - vasoconstricts to create venomotor tone -> aids in movement of blood
Gravity - blood from upper body is helped to return by gravity
Muscle pump - skeletal muscles contraction compressing the vein between them.
Respiratory pump - a pressure difference between the thoracic and abdominal cavity is created

114
Q

Blood pooling

A

the result of not enough pressure to return the majority of blood back to the heart
blood sits in the picket valves & pool
-> feelings of dizziness and light headedness.
-> feeling of heavy legs after exercise
use active recovery to avoid blood pooling

115
Q

How does the redistribution of Q work?

A

Q can rise to more than 2l/min during intense exercise, the difference is where the blood is sent to
At rest, our body serves to digest, filter & excrete and most o2 blood is around the organs
during exercise, demand from the muscles for o2 increases -> higher intensity = higher demand
Regardless of intensity our heart has it’s own coronary blood supply to maintain

116
Q

How blood flow is distributed to organs - diagram

A
117
Q

How does skeletal muscle pump work?

A
  • peripheral veins have one way valves that direct flow away from limbs & to the heart (one vein in legs &arms)
  • As surrounding muscles contract, veins compress and propels blood through open distal valves, stopping flow to muscles
  • Veins also decompress -> distal valves open and blood flows into the vein
118
Q

how does Inspiratory pump work?

A

an increase in the rate & depth of respiration -> venous return -> enhancing Q

  • affects VR through changes in the Right atrial pressure
  • increase in RA pressure = stops venous return
  • decrease in RA PRESSURE = allows for venous return
  • the pressure changes are between the pressures of the thoracic and abdominal cavities
119
Q

Why is the Vascular shunt mechanism useful?

A
  • when an increase in demand of oxygen & nutrients for the muscles for respiration is needed
  • when an increase in the speed of waste removal is needed
120
Q

What is the Vascular shunt mechanism?

A

it is the redistribution of blood during exercise

121
Q

Vasomotor control center

A

brain

controls vascular shunt mechanism

122
Q

Chemoreceptors role

A

to detect chemical changes in the blood

123
Q

Baroceptors role

A

to detect changes in blood pressure

124
Q

Proprioceptors role

A

to detect changes in muscular activity

125
Q

What are precapillary sphincters?

A

muscles at junctioins between arterioles and capillaries

can vasoconstrict and vasodilate

126
Q

What is sympathetic stimulation?

A

it controls the diameter or arterioles and precapillary sphincters

127
Q

How the vascular shunt works during exercise

A

chemoreceptos detect decrease in blood PH, Baroceptors detect increase in blood pressure and proprioceptors detect increase in muscle activity -> info sent to V.C.C. -> increases Sympathetic stimulation of arterioles &PCS towards organs to reduce diameter & blood flow -> decreases SS in arterioles & PCS towards the muscles increasing diameter and blood flow to working muscles

128
Q

How the vascular shunt mechanism works during recovery

A

Chemoreceptors detect ^ in blood PH, Barorecptors detect dec^ in blood pressure and Proprioceptors detect dec^ in muscle activity -> info sent to V.C.C. -> decreases SS of arterioles & PCS going towards organs to ^ diameter and blood flow -> ^ SS of arterioles &PCS going towards muscles and dec^ diameter and blood flow

129
Q

Respiratory system functions

A

Pulmonary ventilation
Gaseous exchange
CV system provides a link by transporting deO2blood to lungs

130
Q

The respiratory system

A

Nasal cavity & mouth -> Pharynx -> oesophagus (epiglottis - flap of skin)-> Larynx -> Trachea -> Right & Left bronchus -> Bronchioles -> Alveoli
lungs covered by intercostal muscles and diaphragm beneath creates a vacuum

131
Q

How does expiration happen?

A

intercostal muscles relax -> ribcage moves down & inwards -> diaphragm relaxes to dome shape -> volume of air in lungs to decrease -> lungs decrease in size as squeezed by ribs & diaphragm -> pressure inside lungs increases & atmospheric air pressure is lower than our lungs -> Pressure gradient pushes air out of lungs through nose and mouth

132
Q

Accessory expiratory muscles

A

Internal intercostals

Rectus abdominis

133
Q

Accessory inspiratory muscles

A

Sternocleidomastoid

pectoralis Minor

134
Q

How does inspiration happen?

A

intercostals contract & pull ribcage upwards and outwards -> diaphragm contracts into a flat shape -> increase in volume and size of lungs -> decreased the pressure inside lungs -> higher atmospheric pressure -> air sucked through nose & mouth cavitity

135
Q

How is oxygen transported by the blood?

A

it’s combined with haemoglobin in red blood cells -97% of oxygen transport
-can be dissolved in blood plasma - only 3% of oxygen transport

136
Q

Gas transport

A

O2 is transported from alveoli to cells to be in aerobic respiration
Endurance athletes are efficient at O2 Transport
1. O2 + Hb (Haemoglobin) = HbO2 (Oxyheamoglobin)
2. CO2 is removed from cells as carbonic acid -> CO2 +H20 = H2CO3

137
Q

Haemoglobin info

A

can transport up to 4 O2 molecules - if 4 bind, 100% saturated - if less than 4 = partially saturated
O2 binding occurs as a response to high Partial O2 pressure in the lungs
O2+Hb = Oxyhaemoglobin
Haemoglobin not bound to O2 -> deoxyhaemoglobin

138
Q

Breathing rate

A

the amount of times inspiration/expiration has been completed in a minute
F
Average is 12-15 per min

139
Q

Tidal volume

A

TV
the volume of air inspired or expired per breath
Average is 500ml
350ml in lungs
150ml fills airways
can change with Age, Gender, Body composition and training.

140
Q

What does a spirometer do?

A

measures lung volumes

total lung capacity is calculated by adding vital capacity and the residual volume

141
Q

Inspiratory respiratory volume

A

the maximal volume that can be inhaled from the end-inspiratory level
AVG is 300ml, no change during exercise

142
Q

Minute ventilation

A

VE
the volume of air inspired/expired per minute
FXTV = VE
AVG is 67L/min, changes to 150l/min during exercise

143
Q

Expiratory respiratory volume

A

the maximal volume of air that can be exhaled from the end-expiratory position
AVG 1250ml, no change during exercise

144
Q

Residual volume

A

lung volume that is not decreases with inspiration or expiration
1250ML, no change

145
Q

Untrained respiratory values

A

F -> 12-15b/m
TV -> 500ml
VE -> 7l/min

146
Q

Trained respiratory values

A

F -> 11-12B/MIN
TV -> 500ml
VE -> 6l/min

147
Q

breathing rate in relation to exercise

A

breathing frequency ^ with intensity
TV ^ up to 3 litres but plateaus towards max intensity - short & shallow breaths in marathons
VE increases in line with TV and F - plateau as reach a steady state,

148
Q

the respiratory control centre

A

location: medulla oblongata
controls breathing
^ concentration of CO2 in blood -> RCC to ^ respiratory rate
divides into inspiratory centre & exhibitory centre - control muscles used for inspiration + expiration
IC - controls intercostal nerve and phrenic nerve

149
Q

Regulation of respiration at rest

A

stimulation of intercostal nerve & phrenic nerve -> chest capacity ^ in volume -> non stimulation 2 seconds later -> passive expiration
Breathing is deep and slow

150
Q

Regulation of respiration during exercise

A

changes detected by chemoreceptors, baroreceptors and proprioceptors.
Chemoreceptors - detects change in Blood PH, acidity increases as a result of increase in plasma concentration of CO2 and LA production
Baroreceptors - detect increases in blood pressure
Proprioceptors - detect change in muscular activity, movement in muscles & joints

151
Q

Inspiration during regulating respiration

A

Chemoreceptors, Baroreceptors and Proprioceptors detect changes and inform the IC -> stimulates phrenic nerve + intercostal nerves to contract w more force -> Sternocleidomastoid and Pectoralis minor increase depth and rate of inspiration

152
Q

Expiration during regulating respiration

A

stimulation occurs and abdominal muscles are recruited with the internal intercostals.
Stretch receptors form the EC when lung inflation increases and the lungs are excessively stretched
breathing is shallow and fast

153
Q

Partial pressure

A

the amount of pressure contributed by a gas within a mixture of gases

154
Q

Sites of Gaseous exchange

A

Alveolar capillaries - (external) pressure gradient of 60mmHG -> diffusion of O2 to HB
Muscular site - internal, O2 moves from blood capillary (PO2 = 46mmHg) to muscle capillary (PO2 = 40mmHg)
if PO2 is high, HB will readily bind with O2
Higher partial pressures help saturate Hb with O2

155
Q

Gaseous exchange during exercise

A

-^ the volume of O2 and CO2 present
O2 diffusion gradient increases from 100mmHg -> 5mmHg
CO2 diffusion gradient increases from 80mmHg -> 40mmHg
A higher po2 - more readily HB binds with O2 - happens when PO2 is more than 100mmHg due to HbO2 dissociation curve

156
Q

Principles of Diffusion

A

A gas will always move from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure

Atmospheric air - Nittrogen 79%, O2 21% and CO2 0.03%

157
Q

Partial pressure of gas

A

Pressure is measured in millimetres of mercury - mmHg

atmospheric air pressure is 760mmHg

158
Q

Oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve

A

the relationship between partial pressure of oxygen and saturation of oxyhaemoglobin

159
Q

what does the binding of O2 to Hb depend on?

A

the partial pressure of O2 in blood

Affinity between Hb and O2

160
Q

What is the Bohr Shift?

A

the movement of the dissociation curve to the right

161
Q

What is the Bohr Shift a result of?

A

An increase in blood acidity
Increase in partial pressure of O2
Increase in temperature

162
Q

In areas of high partial pressure, O2 is …. to haemoglobin

A

readily bound

163
Q

In areas of low partial pressure, O2 is … from Hb as the surrounding environment has a ….. for it’s presence

A
  1. released

2. Higher demand

164
Q

What is the agonist when flexion occurs at the hip?

A

iliopsoas

165
Q

What is the agonist during extension at the hip?

A

gluteus maximus

166
Q

what is the predominant muscle fibre type used by a discus thrower to achieve max distance?

A

Fast glycolytic

Type 2A

167
Q

WHAT ARE THE MUSCLES ARE THE SHOULDER JOINT?

A
deltoid 
latissimus dorsi
pectoralis major
trapezius 
teres minor
168
Q

What are the muscles at the elbow joint?

A

biceps brachii

triceps brachii

169
Q

What are the muscles at the wrist?

A

wrist flexors

wrist extensors

170
Q

What are the muscles at the hip joint?

A

iliopsoas
gluteus maximus, medius and minimus
adductor longus, brevis and magnus

171
Q

What are the muscles of the quadriceps group?

A

rectus femoris
vastus lateralis
vastus intermedius
vastus medialis

172
Q

what are the muscles of the hamstring group?

A

biceps femoris
semi-membranosus
semi -tendinosus

173
Q

what are the muscles at the ankle?

A

tibialis anterior
soleus
gastrocnemius