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Didactic Year > Anatomy-Head > Flashcards

Anatomy-Head Flashcards

1
Q

What two sections is the neurocranium divided into?

A
  1. Calvaria
  2. Cranial base
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2
Q

What main two sections is the skull divided into?

A
  1. Neurocranium
  2. Facial skeleton
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3
Q

What are the three landmarks found on the frontal bone?

A
  1. Supra-orbital foramen
  2. Nasion
  3. Glabella
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4
Q

What is the main landmark found on the maxilla?

A

Infra-orbital foramen

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5
Q

What are the two landmarks found on the mandible?

A

1.Mental foramen
2. Mental protuberance

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6
Q

Facial skeleton is _______ and _________ to neurocranium

A

Inferior and anterior

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7
Q

When you cut off the calvaria, it resembles the ________ of the skull

A

“Bowl”

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8
Q

What are the seven landmarks found on the temporal bone?

A
  1. Zygomatic arch
  2. External acoustic meatus
  3. Mastoid process
  4. Styloid process
  5. Stylomastoid foramen
  6. Jugular fossa
  7. Carotid canal
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9
Q

What is the main landmark found on the zygomatic bone?

A

Zygomatic arch

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10
Q

What are the five major landmarks found on the lateral view of the skull?

A
  1. Temporal fossa
  2. Pterion
  3. Squamous suture
  4. Coronal suture
  5. Lambdoid suture
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11
Q

What are the five major landmarks found on the superior view of the skull?

A
  1. Coronal suture
  2. Sagittal suture
  3. Lambdoid suture
  4. Bregma junction
  5. Lambda junction
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12
Q

Parietal bone is ________ to the frontal bone

A

Posterior

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13
Q

Squamous suture

A

Between parietal and temporal bones

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14
Q

Coronal suture

A

Between the frontal and parietal bones

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15
Q

Lambdoid suture

A

Between the occipital and parietal bones

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16
Q

Sagittal suture

A

Between the two parietal bones, directly down the midline of the scalp

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17
Q

What are the two suture junctions?

A
  1. Bregma
  2. Lambda
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18
Q

Mastoid process, styloid process, and EAM are all landmarks of the _________ bone

A

Temporal

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19
Q

Temporal fossa

A

Depression/hollow located right above zygomatic arch

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20
Q

Bergman junction

A

Junction where the sagittal suture meets the coronal suture

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21
Q

Lambda junction

A

Junction where the sagittal suture meets the lambdoid suture

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22
Q

Pterion

A

Junction between temporal, parietal, frontal, and sphenoid bones
Wall behind pterion is very thin, susceptible to trauma

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23
Q

______ is the keystone of the skull

A

Sphenoid

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24
Q

What are the two landmarks found on the occipital bone?

A
  1. Foramen magnum
  2. External occipital protuberance
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25
Q

Why is the pterion clinically important?

A

It is the thinnest region of the skull and has the middle meningeal artery running deep to it
Trauma to the pterion could rupture the artery and lead to an epidural hematoma

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26
Q

Is the maxilla anterior or posterior to the palatine? (Make up the hard palate)

A

Anterior

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27
Q

________ is the foramen where the spinal cord and brainstem pass through

A

Foramen magnum (FM)

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28
Q

Name of the prominent bump on the back of the occipital bone?

A

External occipital protuberance (EOP)

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29
Q

What are the three fossae of the internal cranial base?

A
  1. Anterior fossa
  2. Middle fossa
  3. Posterior fossa
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30
Q

What are the two landmarks of the anterior fossa?

A
  1. Cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone
  2. Lesser wing of the sphenoid bone
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31
Q

The cribriform plate (CP) is considered the roof of the nose and contains what nerve?

A

CN 1 (Helps with translation of smell)

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32
Q

What are the 7 landmarks of the middle fossa?

A
  1. Greater wing of the sphenoid bone
  2. Sella turcica
  3. Foramen lacerum
  4. Superior orbital fissure
  5. Foremen rotundum
  6. Foramen ovale
  7. Foramen spinosum
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33
Q

What cranial nerve passes through the optic canal?

A

CN2

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34
Q

What 4 cranial nerves passes through the superior orbital fissure?

A

CN 3,4,6 (plugs into extraocular muscles) and V1 of CN 5 (makes its way to the forehead)

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35
Q

What cranial nerve passes through the foramen rotundum?

A

V2 of CN 5 (supplies sensation to maxilla, mid part of face)

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36
Q

What cranial nerve passes through the foramen ovale

A

V3 of CN 5

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37
Q

What vessel passes through the foremen spinosum?

A

Middle meningeal artery

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38
Q

What sits within the sella turcica? (Located medially in the skull)

A

Pituitary gland

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39
Q

What is unique about the foramen lacerum?

A

Not a true foramen
Has a cartilage plate on the floor that provides support for the carotid artery

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40
Q

What are the 4 landmarks of the posterior fossa?

A
  1. Internal acoustic meatus
  2. Jugular foramen
  3. Hypoglossal canal
  4. Foramen magnum
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41
Q

What two cranial nerves pass through the internal acoustic meatus?

A

CN 7 and CN 8

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42
Q

What 3 cranial nerves pass through the jugular foramen?

A
  1. CN 9
  2. CN 10
  3. CN 11

+IJV

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43
Q

What cranial nerve passes through the hypoglossal canal?

A

CN 12 (hypoglossal nerve)

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44
Q

Stylomastoid foramen has what cranial nerve pass through?

A

CN 7 (facial nerve)

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45
Q

Jugular fossa is at the junction between the _____ and _______ bones

A

Occipital and temporal

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46
Q

What are the 4 major arteries that supply the head?

A
  1. Common carotid
  2. External carotid
  3. Internal carotid
  4. Vertebral artery
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47
Q

Carotid canal is located anterior or posterior to the jugular foramen?

A

Anterior

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48
Q

Carotid canal contains what major artery?

A

Internal carotid

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49
Q

_______ divides the anterior and middle fossa

A

Lesser wing

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50
Q

What fissure is directly posterior to the greater wing?

A

Superior orbital fissure

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51
Q

Although rare, what are a few reasons you would use a brain CT for?

A
  • trauma
  • skeletal surveys (bone pathology)
  • Exclude or include presence of metal prior to an MRI
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52
Q

When looking at a skull CT, you are looking for general ______ and _________

A

Consistency and density

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53
Q

What are the two sinuses to identify in a skull CT view?

A

Maxillary and frontal

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54
Q

Superior thyroid artery pathway

A

Branches off the ECA and descends to thyroid gland in the neck

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55
Q

Facial artery pathway

A

Branches off the ECA and ascends across the mandible to the orbit

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56
Q

Maxillary artery pathway

A

Branches off the ECA and travels in the pterygopalatine fossa and ascends to the orbit

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57
Q

Superficial temporal artery pathway

A

Branches off the ECA and travels across the temporal fossa to the orbit

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58
Q

What three branches of the ECA converge in the orbit?

A
  1. Superficial temporal artery
  2. Maxillary artery
  3. Facial artery

*forms anastomosis with the ophthalmic artery (comes off Circle of Willis)

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59
Q

What are the 4 landmarks you can view on the skull CT view?

A

Cortex of skull
Sella turcica
Frontal sinus
Maxillary sinus

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60
Q

What does an abnormal cortex look like on a skull CT view?

A

-“Lumpy/bump” consistency
- Cortex line contains diffuse irregularities
- Density shows inconsistencies
- Example in class showed Paget’s disease of bone

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61
Q

4 branches of the ECA in ascending order

A

Superior thyroid
Facial
Maxillary
Superficial temporal

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62
Q

Clinical importance of connection/pathway between ECA (anastomosis) and internal skull?

A

-Mother nature’s way of compensating if there is an occlusion of blood supply to the brain (occlusion of ICA)
- “Plan B” to compensate (backup circulation for the brain)

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63
Q

Giant cell arteritis (temporal arteritis) is associated with _____________

A

It is inflammation of the superficial temporal artery Associated with Polymyalgia rheumatica
-severe headache in skull

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64
Q

How does the ICA travel to the Circle of Willis?

A
  • travels through carotid canal
  • turns horizontal to travel in temporal bone
  • reaches across foramen lacerum and turns “vertical” to ascend into Circle of Willis
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65
Q

Vertebral artery travels to Circle of Willis?

A
  • Enters skull via foramen magnum
  • Right and left VA merge to form basilar artery
  • Ascends anterior to brainstem
  • Enters posteriorly into Circle of Willis
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66
Q

Circle of Willis acts like a ________ of blood supply to the skull

A

Rotary

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67
Q

What two vessels supply the circle of willis?

A
  1. ICA
  2. Basilar artery (from vertebral arteries)
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68
Q

What five vessels does the circle of willis consist of?

A
  1. Anterior cerebral artery
  2. Anterior communicating artery
  3. Middle cerebral artery
  4. Posterior cerebral artery
  5. Posterior communicating artery
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69
Q

Clinical application of circle of willis

A

If one form of blood flow is slowed down, the flow of blood through the circle of willis can help compensate for this weakness

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70
Q

Middle meningeal artery is a branch of the ________ artery

A

Maxillary

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71
Q

The middle meningeal artery enters the skull through the _________ branches out to supply ________ region

A

-foramen spinosum
-lateral skull/pterion

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72
Q

What are the 4 major veins that drain the head and neck?

A
  1. External jugular vein
  2. Internal jugular ven
  3. Vertebral vein
  4. Brachiocephalic vein
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73
Q

IJV is located in the carotid sheath and descends _________ to the SCM

A

Deep

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74
Q

IJV drains _________ and is located in the _______ foramen

A

-Internal skull and some veins of the face
-Jugular

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75
Q

IJV drains into the _______ and sends blood back to the heart via the ________

A

-Brachiocephalic vein
-SVC

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76
Q

EJV is located _______ to the SCM

A

Superficial

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77
Q

EJV drains the veins of the _______ and drains into the __________ which sends blood to the Brachiocephalic vein

A

-Face and scalp
-Subclavian vein

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78
Q

Ventricular system of brain

A

A network of cavities inside the brain / spinal cord that produces and circulates CSF

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79
Q

Cerebral spinal fluid (CSF)

A

Acts as the interstitial fluid of the CNS and serves as a fluid barrier to physically protect the CNS

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80
Q

Pathway of CSF

A
  1. Produced by the choroid plexuses
  2. Flows through ventricle system ( R and L lateral ventricles —> 3rd ventricle —> 4th ventricle—> spinal cord
  3. Exits into the Subarachnoid space —> arachnoid granulation
  4. Returns to circulation by flowing into the dural sinuses and into the internal jugular vein
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81
Q

What are the three meningeal layers?

A
  1. Dura
  2. Arachnoid
  3. Pia
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82
Q

Outermost layer of the meninges, split into two layers (periosteal and meningeal)

A

Dura

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83
Q

Middle layer of the meninges, contains CSF

A

Arachnoid

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84
Q

Deepest layer of the meninges, follows contour of the brain

A

Pia

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85
Q

5 lobes of the brain we should identify

A

Parietal
Frontal
Occipital
Temporal
Insular

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86
Q

Brainstem contains what 3 parts

A

Midbrain, pons, medulla

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87
Q

Midbrain is ______ to the pons and medulla

A

Superior

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88
Q

The medulla connects to the _______

A

Spinal cord

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89
Q

Choroid plexus

A

Specialized cells within each ventricle
-produces CSF

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90
Q

What are the two layers of the dura?

A
  1. Periosteal layer - outer layer, merges with the skull
  2. Meningeal layer - inner layer, helps form dural folds
91
Q

What is unique about the dura layer when observing cadaver?

A

Meningeal arteries are visible
Cannot see the sulci/gyri of brain

92
Q

Small connective tissue posts between pia and arachnoid layer are termed ________

A

Arachnoid trabeculae

93
Q

What is unique about the arachnoid layer when observing a cadaver?

A

Cerebral blood vessels are visible
*appears as a glossy surface overlying the sulci/gyri

94
Q

Pia layer follows the ______ of the brain

A

Sulci

95
Q

In a cadaver, how can you tell it is the pia layer?

A

You can see complete contour of sulci and gyri
Blood vessels not visible

96
Q

Dural folds

A

Folded meningeal (inner) layer of the dura, creates subdivisions of the skull

97
Q

What are the 3 subdivisions of dural folds?

A

Falx cerebri
Falx cerebelli
Tentorium cerebellum

98
Q

Falx cerebri

A

Double layer of meningeal dura present in the longitudinal fissure that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres

99
Q

Tentorium cerebelli

A

Acts as floor subdivider, lays flat, crescent shape
Divides cerebellum from the rest of the brain

100
Q

Falx cerebelli

A

Divides left and right cerebellum
Continuation of Falx cerebri
Lies inferior to Tentorium cerebelli

101
Q

Cerebral hematoma

A

Blood vessel rupture, blood accumulates in meningeal spaces and forms a hematoma

102
Q

What are the three cerebral spaces?

A
  1. Epidural space
  2. Subdural space
  3. Subarachnoid space
103
Q

Epidural space

A

Between dural layer and bone

104
Q

Subdural space

A

Between arachnoid and dura layers

105
Q

Subarachnoid space

A

Layer between arachnoid and pia, CSF stays here

106
Q

Epidural hematoma

A

Rupture of meningeal arteries
Blood pools in the epidural space, between the dura and the skull
*does not cross suture lines

107
Q

Subdural hematoma

A

Rupture of bridging veins
Blood pools in the subdural space between the dura and arachnoid layer
Crosses suture lines
*high mortality rate (60-80%)

108
Q

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Rupture of cerebral arteries/veins
Bleeds into the CSF in the subarachnoid space, between the arachnoid and pia layer
*often due to saccular (“berry”) aneurysms located around circle of willis
**”worse headache I’ve ever felt”

109
Q

What nerve innervates all facial muscles?

A

CN 7
*Motor function

110
Q

CN 7 pathway

A

Enters skull through the Stylomastoid foramen and divides into 5 branches as it passes through the parotid gland

111
Q

Action of facial muscles

A

Responsible for facial expression

112
Q

Bell’s Palsy

A

Transient paralysis of facial muscles due to impairment of CN7
*unilateral 99% of the time
Etiology unknown
Impairment varies from person to person
Eye and corner of mouth most visibly affected

113
Q

What nerve provides sensory innervation of the face?

A

CN 5 - three branches

114
Q

V1 of CN 5

A

Provides sensation to orbital/frontal region

115
Q

V2 of CN 5

A

Provides sensation to maxillary region

116
Q

V3 of CN 5

A

Provides sensation to mandibular region

117
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia

A

Severe facial pain due to irritation of sensory fibers of CN 5
*often due to infringement from adjacent blood vessels
** most common in V2 distribution, followed by V3, then V1
- surgery involves trying to separate CN5 from the pressuring vessel

118
Q

What seven bones form the orbit?

A
  1. Frontal
  2. Maxilla
  3. Zygomatic
  4. Sphenoid
  5. Ethmoid
  6. Lacrimal
  7. Palatine
119
Q

What are the three openings of the orbit?

A
  1. Superior orbital fissure
  2. Optic canal
  3. Inferior orbital fissure
120
Q

What cranial nerve passes through the inferior orbital fissure?

A

V2 of CN 5

121
Q

Occipitofrontalis muscle location

A

Front of forehead and back of skull
Connective tissue connects the two locations

122
Q

The opening in the iris, through which light enters the eye

A

Pupil

123
Q

Iris

A

Colored part of the eye
Contractile ring that lays on the anterior surface of lens, controls light entering the eye

124
Q

Sclera

A

White of the eye
Attachment site for extraocular muscles

125
Q

Conjunctiva

A

Clear thin layer over the eyeball and eyelids

126
Q

Cornea

A

Clear area in front of the pupil and iris

127
Q

Palpebral fissure

A

Space between eyelids

128
Q

What are the three portions of the conjunctiva?

A
  1. Palpebral conjunctiva
  2. Bulbar conjunctiva
  3. Inferior conjunctival sac
129
Q

Palpebral conjunctiva

A

Membrane that lines the eyelids

130
Q

Bulbar conjunctiva

A

Membrane that covers the eyeball

131
Q

Inferior conjunctival sac

A

Space between the palpebral and the bulbar conjunctiva

132
Q

Subconjunctival hemorrhage

A

Blood accumulates behind the conjunctiva, between the conjunctiva and the sclera
*Usually self limiting and relatively harmless

133
Q

Meibomian gland

A

AKA tarsal gland
Sebaceous gland in the eyelids that secretes lipid fluid that line along conjunctiva surfaces to lubricate the eye
-works in synergy with tears

134
Q

Levator palpebral superioris (location, action, and innervation)

A

Location: extraocular, located inside orbit above eyeball
Action: Elevate and retract eyelid
Innervation: CN3

135
Q

Superior tarsal muscle (location, action, and innervation)

A

Location: smooth muscle located in the eyelid
Action: raising the eyelid
Innervation: sympathetic innervation

136
Q

Ptosis

A

Damage to either the levator palpebral superioris or the tarsal muscle or the nerves they are innervated by, causes drooping of the eyelid

137
Q

What are the six lacrimal structures?

A
  1. Lacrimal gland
  2. Lacrimal lake - located in medial angle
  3. Lacrimal punctum - small raised opening
  4. Lacrimal canaliculi - connects punctum to sac
  5. Lacrimal sac
  6. Nasolacrimal duct
138
Q

What is the function of the lacrimal structures?

A

Produces tears that flow from the eye and into nasal cavity

139
Q

Lacrimal gland

A

Located in the orbit above the eyeball, produces tears

140
Q

Where does the nasolacrimal duct drain into?

A

The inferior nasal meatus

141
Q

What are the 3 layers of the eyeball?

A
  1. Outer (fibrous) layer
  2. Middle (vascular) layer
  3. Inner layer
142
Q

What are the two structures that are found in the outer (fibrous) layer of the eyeball?

A
  1. Sclera
  2. Cornea
143
Q

Corneal reflex

A

Cornea is highly sensitive to touch
*innervated by V1 of CN 5

144
Q

What are the 3 structures that are found in the middle (vascular) layer of the eyeball?

A
  1. Choroid
  2. Iris
  3. Ciliary body
145
Q

Choroid

A

Dense vascular bed in the eye
*responsible for “red eye” in pictures

146
Q

What are the two sections of the ciliary body

A

Muscular and vascular sections

147
Q

Muscular section of the ciliary body

A

Suspensory ligaments attach from muscle to lens which holds lens in place and allows accommodation (lens thickens)

148
Q

Vascular section of the ciliary body

A

Highly vascular structure that produces aqueous humor, which flows from posterior chamber to anterior chamber and then drains into scleral venous sinuses
Helps maintain right pressures in the eyeball

149
Q

Suprachoroidal hemorrhage

A

Blood pools in the suprachoroidal space due to rupture of short or long ciliary arteries
*rare, but can be a serious threat to vision - if blood accumulates behind retina it can lead to detachment or retinal damage
-Caused by trauma or surgeries
-Can lead to complete vision loss

150
Q

What are the 4 structures of the retina that are found in the inner layer of the eyeball?

A
  1. Optic disc
  2. Optic cup
  3. Macula
  4. Fovea centralis
151
Q

Optic disc

A

Where sensory axons and blood vessels of CN 2 enter eyeball
*blind spot, no photoreceptors

152
Q

Optic cup

A

The “pit” in the center of the optic disc
*”no” nerve fibers
Dent caused by entering blood vessels

153
Q

Macula

A

Functional center of the retina, region for visual acuity

154
Q

Fovea centralis

A

Located in the middle of Macula
Region of “greatest” visual acuity

155
Q

Cup to disc ratio (C/D ratio)

A

Ratio of the width of the physiologic cup to the width of the optic disc
Average 1:3

*larger than 1:3 is threshold to consider pathology

156
Q

Glaucoma

A

Increased intraocular pressure due to a buildup of aqueous humor (mismatch occurs between aqueous humor secretion from ciliary body and drainage from venous sinus), results in damage to the retina and optic nerve

Pressure presses on cup, increasing C/D ratio

C/D ratio > 6:10 (0.6)
* can lead to blindness

157
Q

Light pathway

A
  1. Through cornea
  2. Across aqueous humor
  3. Through lens
  4. Across vitreous humor
  5. To rods and cones of retina
  6. Optic nerve
  7. Brain
158
Q

Vitreous humor

A

Jellylike substance found behind the lens in the posterior cavity of the eye that maintains its shape

159
Q

Cataracts

A

Opacities accumulate in the lens, refracting light in many different directions, instead of tapering towards the retina
Makes it hard to focus images
Once a clinical threshold is reached, a new lens is inserted to replace old lens

160
Q

What are the 6 extraocular muscles?

A
  1. Superior rectus
  2. Medial rectus
  3. Lateral rectus
  4. Inferior rectus
  5. Superior oblique
  6. Inferior oblique
161
Q

Superior rectus (action and innervation)

A

Elevate eye in abduction
Innervation: CN3 (oculomotor nerve)

162
Q

Medial rectus (action and innervation)

A

Adduct eye

Innervation: CN3 (oculomotor nerve)

163
Q

Lateral rectus (action and innervation)

A

Abduct eye
Innervation: CN6 (abducens nerve)

164
Q

Inferior rectus (action and innervation)

A

Depresses eye in abduction
Innervation: CN3 (oculomotor nerve)

165
Q

Superior oblique (action and innervation)

A

Depresses eye in adduction
Innervation: CN4 (trochlear nerve)

166
Q

Inferior oblique (action and innervation)

A

Elevates eye in adduction
Innervation: CN3 (oculomotor nerve)

167
Q

Ocular H-test

A

Assesses CN 3, 4, 6
Keep head still and follow finger
Observe if eyes can move in all directions
Ask if they experience any “double vision”

168
Q

What vessels supply the eye?

A
  1. Ophthalmic artery
  2. Central retinal artery
  3. Posterior short and long ciliary arteries
169
Q

Ophthalmic artery

A

Branches off the ICA to supply the structures in the orbit and the eye itself

170
Q

Central retinal artery

A

Branches off the ophthalmic artery to travel with CN 2 and supply the retina

171
Q

Posterior short and long ciliary arteries

A

Small branches from the ophthalmic artery that penetrate the sclera to supply the choroid capillaries
*rupture causes suprachoroidal hemorrhage

172
Q

What are the 7 bones that form the nose?

A
  1. Nasal
  2. Sphenoid
  3. Ethmoid
  4. Inferior nasal concha
  5. Vomer
  6. Maxilla
  7. Palatine
173
Q

What two bones form the roof of the nasal cavity?

A
  1. Nasal
  2. Ethmoid
174
Q

What two bones form the lateral walls of the nasal cavity?

A
  1. Ethmoid (superior and middle nasal concha)
  2. Inferior nasal concha
175
Q

What 2 bones form the floor of the nasal cavity?

A

Maxilla and palatine

176
Q

What bone forms the posterior/superior wall of the nasal cavity?

A

Sphenoid

177
Q

What 2 bones form the septum of the nasal cavity?

A

Ethmoid and vomer

178
Q

What are the 3 nasal meatuses and what are their function?

A

Superior, middle, inferior
Contain openings for paranasal sinuses
*inferior to each nasal conchae (turbinate)

179
Q

What are the 4 nasal sinuses?

A
  1. Frontal
  2. Ethmoidal
  3. Sphenoidal
  4. Maxillary
180
Q

Frontal sinus

A

Located in the frontal bone and opens into the middle nasal meatus

181
Q

Ethmoidal sinus

A

Located in the ethmoid cells and opens into the superior and middle nasal meatuses

182
Q

Maxillary sinus

A

Located in the maxilla and opens into the middle nasal meatus
*largest part of paranasal sinus
**most common to become infected

183
Q

What makes up the “roof” of the mouth?

A

Hard palate - anterior 5/6 of palate
Soft palate - posterior 1/6 of palate

184
Q

What are the 3 muscles of the soft palate?

A
  1. Palatopharyngeal muscle
  2. Palatoglossus muscle
  3. Musculus uvulae
185
Q

Palatopharyngeal muscle

A

Posterior wall of pharynx to midline of soft palate

186
Q

Palatoglossus muscle

A

Roof of tongue to midline of soft palate

187
Q

Musculus uvulae

A

Forms midline of soft palate
Made up of smooth muscle

188
Q

Palatine tonsils

A

Located between palatopharyngeal and palatoglossus arches
Check to see if enlarged

189
Q

Innervation of the soft palate (sensory and motor)

A

Sensory: V2 of CN 5
Motor: CN10

190
Q

Innervation of the pharynx (sensory and motor)

A

Sensory: CN 9
Motor: CN 10
*gag reflex test

191
Q

What are the three portions of the tongue?

A
  1. Root (posterior 1/3) - attaches to hyoid and mandible
  2. Body (anterior 2/3) *taste buds found in body
  3. Apex (tip of tongue)
192
Q

What 3 landmarks can be found on the inferior surface of the tongue?

A
  1. Frenulum
  2. Openings of submandibular ducts (Wharton’s ducts)
  3. Openings from sublingual glands
193
Q

Submandibular gland

A

Opens into mouth through submandibular ducts on the sides of the frenulum

194
Q

Parotid gland

A

Located anterior/inferior to the external acoustic meatus
Parotid (Stensen’s) duct penetrates the buccinator and opens into mouth near upper 2nd molar
CN 7 travels through the parotid gland

195
Q

What are the 5 structures of the temporomandibular joint?

A
  1. Condylar process
  2. Articular disc
  3. Mandibular fossa
  4. Articular tubercle
  5. Joint capsule
196
Q

TMJ movements

A

Rotation - initial movement, 1 finger width apart
Translation - mouth opens wide, translated forward, sliding over articulated tubercle, 3 finger widths

197
Q

What 3 muscles close the mouth? What are they anchored to?

A
  1. Temporalis - anchors at coronoid process
  2. Masseter - anchors on angle of mandible
  3. Medial pterygoid - sphenoid process to mandible
198
Q

What muscle opens the mouth?

A

Lateral pterygoid: when mouth opens, pulls articular disk forward
Anchors from sphenoid processes to condylar process and articular disc

199
Q

What nerve innervates the TMJ muscles?

A

CN 5 trigeminal

200
Q

What are the 3 main structures of the external ear?

A
  1. Auricle
  2. External acoustic meatus
  3. Tympanic membrane
201
Q

What are the 2 landmarks of the tympanic membrane?

A

Cone of light and umbo

202
Q

What are the 3 main structures of the middle ear?

A

Tympanic cavity
Auditory ossicles
Muscles

203
Q

2 muscles of middle ear

A

Stapedius
Tensor tympani

204
Q

Auditory ossicles and what are they attached to?

A

Malleus - attached to tympanic membrane
Incus - attached to malleus and stapes
Stapes - attached to stapedius muscle and round window

205
Q

Pharyngotympanic tube

A

AKA Eustachian or auditory tube
Connects the middle ear (tympanic cavity) with the nasopharynx
Allows for equalization of pressures

206
Q

What are the 4 main structures of the inner ear?

A
  1. Bony labyrinth
  2. Cochlea (auditory role)
  3. Vestibule of bony labyrinth
  4. Semicircular canals
207
Q

Bony labyrinth

A

Cavities within petrous portion of temporal bone
Contains all other structures of the inner ear (cochlea, vestibule of bony labyrinth, and semicircular canals)

208
Q

Orbicularis occuli

A

-Palpebral portion (eyelid) - responsible for gently closing the eye
-Orbital portion - Muscle belly that wraps around eye, responsible for squeezing eyes shut

209
Q

Orbicularis oris

A

Wraps around mouth

210
Q

CN 7 divides into 5 branches as it passes through the ______ to innervate all facial muscles

A

Parotid gland

211
Q

How do you clinically test sensory innervation of face (CN5)?

A

Use a piece of cotton and lightly tap above both eyes, along checks, along jaws, both right and left side
While performing task, ask patient if he/she can feel cotton on the face, if it’s the same both sides

212
Q

Herpes zoster

A

-dormant varicella-zoster virus in sensory nerve root
-trigger activates the virus which causes inflammation and rashes on the skin
-Generally, occurs in face, trunk, or lower extremities
-Can affect V1, V2, V3 of CN 5

213
Q

Medial canthus/angles and lateral canthus angles

A

Corners of eye

214
Q

Conjunctivitis

A

Conjunctiva becomes inflamed, known as pink eye, sclera becomes red

215
Q

Corneal reflex neuro exam is not performed routinely unless for comprehensive neuro exam in a ________ patient

A

Comatose

216
Q

Sphenoidal sinus is located in the body of the ______ and opens into the ______ nasal cavity

A

Sphenoid
Superior/posterior

217
Q

How will a damaged uvula deviate from a normal uvula during “ahhh” test?

A

Damaged uvula will lean towards the strong side, away from damaged side

218
Q

The root of the tongue is made up of what type of tissue?

A

Lymphatic

219
Q

The palatoglossus is innervated by _______ while the other tongue muscles are innervated by ________

A

CN 10
CN 12

220
Q

Clinical exam “stick tongue out” assesses what nerve?

A

CN 12

221
Q

How does the tongue deviate from normal during pathology?

A

Tongue leans toward the damaged/weak side, away from strong side

222
Q

3 salivary glands

A

Submandibular, sublingual, parotid

223
Q

TMJ dysfunction

A

Associated with mechanics of the articular disc
Patients complain of jaw pain, stiffness, clicking etc.

224
Q

The _______ muscle protects the bones from moving too much due to a large sound wave, plays a stabilizing role.

A

Tensor tympanic

Didactic Year (24 decks)

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