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Chiro Essentials Anatomy > Anatomy > Flashcards

Anatomy Flashcards

Brief anatomy review

1
Q

Anatomical position?

A

Body facing forward, limbs extended, palms facing forward

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2
Q

Simple squamous epithelium line?

A

Lymphatic and blood vessels, pleura and peritoneum

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3
Q

Stratified squamous epithelium line?

A

Skin, esophagus, lower half of the anal canal

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4
Q

Cuboidal epithelia line?

A

Bowman’s capsule, convoluted tubules of the kidney, thyroid follicles.

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5
Q

Simple columnar epithelium line?

A

GI tract

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6
Q

Stratified columnar epithelium line?

A

Uterine tube

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7
Q

Pseudostratified columnar epithelia line?

A

Respiratory tract

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8
Q

Transitional epithelium line?

A

Ureter, urinary bladder, most of the urethra

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9
Q

How many embryo layers in the second week?

A

2 (bilaminar)

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10
Q

How many layers in the 3rd week of gestation?

A

3 (trilaminar)

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11
Q

Endoderm lies on the inside and gives rise to?

A

epithelium in the respiratory, GI and bladder (except trigone)

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12
Q

Ectoderm lies outside and gives rise to?

A

Epidermis (hair and melanocytes), retina, lens, CNS, PNS, pia and arachnoid mater, adrenal medulla

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13
Q

Mesoderm in the middle gives rise to?

A

Bones and muscles of trunk and extremities, cardiovascular system, spleen, kidney, ureter, and trigone of bladder, cartilage and muscle of respiratory system, adrenal cortex, thyroid glands, dermis of skin and dura mater of spinal cord

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14
Q

Suboccipital Triangle boundaries?

A

rectus capitis poster major, obliquus capitis superior, obliquus capitis inferior

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15
Q

Roof of suboccipital triangle?

A

deep fascia covered by semispinalis capitis

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16
Q

Floor of suboccipital triangle?

A

Posterior arch of C1 and posterior atlanto-occipital membrance

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17
Q

Contents of suboccipital triangle?

A

3rd part of vertebral artery, suboccipital N (dorsal ramus C1), suboccipital veins

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18
Q

What innervates all of the muscles forming the boundaries of the suboccipital triangle?

A

Dorsal Ramus of C1

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19
Q

Anterior cervical triangle boundaries?

A

anterior midline, inferior ramus of mandible and anterior border of SCM

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20
Q

Anterior cervical triangle roof?

A

skin, superficial fascia, investing layer of deep cervical fascia

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21
Q

Anterior cervical triangle contents?

A

carotid, submandibular, submental and muscular triangles

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22
Q

Carotid triangle boundaries?

A

SCM, posterior belly of digastric and superior belly of omohyoid

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23
Q

Roof of carotid triangle?

A

skin, subcutaneous fascia and investing layer of deep cervical fascia

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24
Q

Contents of the carotid triangle?

A

CN XI/XII, carotid sheath, containing common carotid artery, internal carotid artery, internal jugular V and CN X; lying anterior to the carotid sheath are lymph nodes and ansa cervicalis

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25
Q

Submandiblar (Digastric) triangle boundaries?

A

posterior and anterior bellies of digastric and inferior ramus of mandible

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26
Q

Roof of Submandiblar (Digastric) triangle

A

skin, superficial fascia

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27
Q

Floor of Submandiblar (Digastric) triangle

A

mylohyoid, hyoglossus and part of middle constrictor

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28
Q

Contents of Submandiblar (Digastric) triangle

A

submandibular gland, nodes, facial vein and artery, hypoglossal and mylohyoid N

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29
Q

Submental (Suprahyoid) triangle boundaries?

A

anterior bellies of both digastric and hyoid bone

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30
Q

Submental (Suprahyoid) triangle roof?

A

skin, subcutaneous fascia

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31
Q

Submental (Suprahyoid) triangle floor?

A

Mylohyoid muscles

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32
Q

Submental (Suprahyoid) triangle contents?

A

submental lymph nodes, submental veins

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33
Q

Muscular triangle boundaries?

A

SCM, superior belly omohyoid and anterior midline of neck

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34
Q

Muscular triangle roof?

A

Skin and superficial fascia

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35
Q

Muscular triangle contents?

A

sternohyoid, sternothyroid, thyrohyoid muscles, thyroid, trachea, larynx

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36
Q

Posterior cervical triangle boundaries?

A

SCM, trapezius, middle third of clavicle

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37
Q

Posterior cervical triangle roof?

A

skin superficial fascia, platysma, investing layer of deep cervical fascia

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38
Q

Posterior cervical triangle floor?

A

splenius capitis, levator scapulae, posterior scalene, middle and anterior scalene

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39
Q

Posterior cervical triangle contents?

A

subclavian artery, suprascapular, transverse cervical, occipital arteries, subclavian and external jugular veins (6 vessels), great auricular, lesser occipital, supraclavicular, transverse cervical nerves, trunks of the brachial plexus, CN XI (7 N)

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40
Q

Posterior cervical triangle subdivided by inferior belly of omohyoid into?

A

occipital and supraclavicular triangles

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41
Q

Triangle of Auscultation boundaries?

A

trapezius, latissimus dorsi, medial border of scapula

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42
Q

Triangle of Auscultation roof?

A

skin and superficial fascia

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43
Q

Triangle of Auscultation floor?

A

rhomboid major

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44
Q

Triangle of Auscultation contents

A

none

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45
Q

Lumbar triangle of petit boundaries?

A

latissimus dorsi, external oblique, and iliac crest

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46
Q

Lumbar triangle of petit roof?

A

skin and superficial fascia

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47
Q

Lumbar triangle of petit floor?

A

transversus abdominis

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48
Q

Lumbar triangle of petit contents?

A

none

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49
Q

Inguinal triangle of Hesselbach boundaries?

A

Rectus abdominis, inferior epigastric vessels and inguinal ligament

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50
Q

Inguinal ligament is the infolding of the lower end of the aponeurosis of external oblique and extends from the?

A

Anterior superior iliac spine to the pubic tubercle

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51
Q

Inguinal triangle of Hesselbach Roof?

A

skin and external oblique aponeurosis

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52
Q

Inguinal triangle of Hesselbach floor?

A

transversalis fascia

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53
Q

Direct hernias pass thorugh which anatomical triangle?

A

Inguinal triangle of Hesselbach

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54
Q

Femoral Triangle of Scarpa boundaries?

A

inguinal ligament, medial borders of sartorius and adductor longus

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55
Q

Femoral Triangle of Scarpa roof?

A

skin, superficial fascia and fascia lata

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56
Q

Femoral Triangle of Scarpa floor?

A

iliopsoas, pectineus, adductor longus

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57
Q

Femoral Triangle of Scarpa contents?

A

femoral N/A/V and femoral canal

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58
Q

What is in the femoral sheath?

A

femoral N/A/V

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59
Q

What forms the femoral sheath?

A

Fascia of trasversalis and iliacus

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60
Q

Femoral A/V/N lies outside of femoral sheath?

A

N

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61
Q

Boundaries of the Thoracic Outlet (Superior Thoracic aperture)?

A

T1 Vertebra (posterior), 1st rib (lateral), manubrium of sternum (anterior)

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62
Q

Thoracic Outlet (Superior Thoracic aperture) roof?

A

suprapleural membrane (Sibson’s fascia) - tip of TP C7 to inner aspect 1st rib

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63
Q

Thoracic Outlet (Superior Thoracic aperture) contents?

A

trachea, esophagus, thoracic duct, brachiocephalic trunk, L common carotid, L subclavian A, R/L brachiocephalic V, R/L CN X, phrenic N, R/L symp trunks, T1 of brachial plexus and sternohyoid, sternothyroid and longus coli

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64
Q

Axilla boundaries?

A

pec major and minor (anterior), subscap, teres major, lat dorsi (post), upper 4 ribs and serratus anterior (medial), bicipital groove of th humerus (lateral)

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65
Q

Axillary roof?

A

clavicle (anterior), 1st rib (medial), scapula (posterior)

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66
Q

Axillary floor?

A

skin, superficial fascia

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67
Q

Axillary contents?

A

axillary A and br, axillary V and tributaries, cords of brachial plexus and 6 groups of lymph nodes (anterior (pectoral), posterior (subscapular), infraclavicular, central, apical, lateral) aka APICAL

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68
Q

Quadrangular space boundaries?

A

teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head triceps (medial), humerus (lateral)

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69
Q

Quadrangular space contents?

A

axillary N, posterior circumflex humeral A/V

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70
Q

Quadrangular space roof?

A

none

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71
Q

Quadrangular space floor?

A

none

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72
Q

Triangular Space boundaries?

A

teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of triceps (lateral)

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73
Q

Triangular Space contents ?

A

circumflex scapular branch of subscapular artery

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74
Q

Triangular Space roof?

A

none

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75
Q

Triangular Space floor?

A

none

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76
Q

Cubital Fossa boundaries?

A

pronator teres (medial), brachioradialis (lateral), btw humeral epicondyles (superior)

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77
Q

Cubital Fossa roof?

A

skin, superficial fascia w/median cubital V, deep fascia and bicipital aponeurosis

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78
Q

Cubital Fossa floor?

A

brachialis (medial), supinator (lateral)

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79
Q

Cubital Fossa contents lat to med?

A

radian N, biceps tendon, brachial A (radio-ulnar), median N

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80
Q

Anatomical Snuffbox boundaries?

A

abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis (anterior) tendon of extensor pollicis longus (posterior)

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81
Q

Anatomical Snuffbox roof?

A

skin, superficial fascia w/cephalic V and superficial branch of radial N

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82
Q

Anatomical Snuffbox floor?

A

styloid process of radius, scaphoid, trapezium, base of 1st metacarpal

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83
Q

Anatomical Snuffbox content?

A

radial A and tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis

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84
Q

Carpal Tunnel roof?

A

flexor retinaculum 1” fibrous square attached to STOP bones (scaphoid, trapezium, os hamate, pisiform)

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85
Q

Carpal Tunnel floor?

A

trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate

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86
Q

Carpal Tunnel contents?

A

median N, Tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus and flexor pollicis longus

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87
Q

What N passes over the carpal tunnel?

A

superficial palmar br of Median N

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88
Q

Guyon’s Canal/Ulnar Tunnel floor?

A

flexor retinaculum

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89
Q

Guyon’s Canal/Ulnar Tunnel roof?

A

pisohamate ligament

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90
Q

Guyon’s Canal/Ulnar Tunnel medial border?

A

pisiform

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91
Q

Guyon’s Canal/Ulnar Tunnel lateral border?

A

hamate

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92
Q

Guyon’s Canal/Ulnar Tunnel contents?

A

ulnar N/A

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93
Q

Inguinal Canal (of 2’s) boundaries?

A

ext ob aponeurosis and internal oblique (ant)

conjoint tendon and transversalis fascia (post)

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94
Q

Inguinal Canal (of 2’s) roof?

A

arching fibers of int ob and transversus abdominis

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95
Q

Inguinal Canal (of 2’s) floor?

A

inguinal ligament and lacunar ligament medially

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96
Q

Inguinal Canal (of 2’s) extent?

A

btw deep (btw ASIS and pubic tubercle) and superficial (med to pubic tubercle and above pubic crest) inguinal rings

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97
Q

Femoral Canal boundaries?

A 
lacunar ligament (medial)
inguinal ligament (ant)
femoral vein (lateral)
pectineus and pectineal ligament (post)
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98
Q

Femoral Canal roof?

A

CT

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99
Q

Femoral Canal contents?

A

lymph node (cloquet/rosenmuller), lymphatics, CT

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100
Q

Adductor/Subsartorial/Hunter’s canal boundaries?

A

Antlat: vastus medialis
Andmed: sartorius
Postlat: adductor longus/magnus

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101
Q

Adductor/Subsartorial/Hunter’s canal contents?

A

femoral A/V, saphenous N, N to vastus medialis

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102
Q

Popliteal Fossa boundaries?

A

Suplat: biceps femoris
Supmed: semitendinosis, semimembranosus
Inflat: lat head gastroc
Infmed: med head gastroc

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103
Q

Popliteal Fossa roof:

A

skin, superficial fascia w/short saphenous V and deep fascia

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104
Q

Popliteal Fossa floor?

A

lower end of femur, post knee jt, popliteus, fascia

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105
Q

Popliteal Fossa contents?

A

tibial N, popliteal V/A, common peroneal (fibular) N, nodes, fat, A deepest, tibial N most superficial and V btw N and A

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106
Q

Tarsal Tunnel location?

A

behind medial malleolus under the flexor retinaculum

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107
Q

Tarsal Tunnel contents:

A 
Tom, Dick ANd Harry
Tibialis Posterior tendon
Flexor Digitorum Longus Tendon
post tib A, V and N
Flexor Hallucis longus tendon
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108
Q

The heart develops in which embryonic layer in which region at which week?

A

Mesoderm
Cephalic region
3rd week

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109
Q

What tissue forms the R/L endocardial tubes?

A

angioblastic tissue

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110
Q

The R + L endocardial tubes form the?

A

primitive heart tube

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111
Q

the primitive heart tube folds on itself and develops three dilations which are?

A

atrial
Ventricular
bulbus cordis

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112
Q

The proximal end of the heart tube is formed by?

A

Sinus venosus

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113
Q

The distal end of the heart tube is formed by?

A

Truncus Arteriosus

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114
Q

In the 5th week the atrial dilation is divided by?

A

Septum Primum

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115
Q

What is the hole in the upper part of the septum primum?

A

Ostium secundum

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116
Q

Another septum appears R of the septum primum and is called?

A

septum secundum

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117
Q

The septum secundum is incomplete inferiorly and remaining as the?

A

Limbus of the fossa ovalis

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118
Q

In the 7th-8th weeks the truncus arteriosus is divided into two separate tubes. What are they?

A

Aortic and pulmonic

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119
Q

The ductus arteriosus allows oxygenated blood to be shunted from ________ to _____

A

L pulm A

arch of the aorta

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120
Q

MC congenital heart disease?

A

Ventricular septal defect

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121
Q

Most common atrial septum defect?

A

Ostium secundum defect

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122
Q

MC congenital cyanotic heart disease?

A

Fallot’s tetralogy

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123
Q

What are fallot’s tetralogy?

A

pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, R ventricular hypertrophy, dextroposition of the aorta

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124
Q

Acyanotic congenital heart diesease are?

A

Atrial Septal defect, ventricular septal defect, persistent ductus arteriosus (all L-R shunts)

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125
Q

Surface markings of the heart?

A

3rd R costal cartilage 1 finger’s breadth from sternal edge
6th R costal cartilage 1 finger’s breadth from sternal edge
2nd L costal cartilage 1 finger’s breadth from sternal edge
5th L intercostal space 7-9cm from midsternal line

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126
Q

Cardiac chambers

A

R heart border = R atrium
Inf heart border = RV
L heart border made of LV and L auricle of L atrium

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127
Q

R atrium origins?

A

sinus venosus and true atrium

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128
Q

True atrium has the rough part which has ?

A

Pectinate muscles

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129
Q

Smooth and rough part of R atrium are separated by ?

A

Crista terminalis

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130
Q

The openings for the SVC and IVC are in which chamber of the heart?

A

R atrium

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131
Q

What is the depression on the interatrial septum called?

A

fossa ovale

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132
Q

Above the opening of the tricuspid valve lies the orifice of?

A

Coronary Sinus

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133
Q

How much venous blood drains into the heart via the coronary sinus?

A

60-70%

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134
Q

L atrium has how many pulmonary V carrying O2 blood from lungs?

A

4

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135
Q

T/F The L Atrium has both rough and smooth parts reflecting its dual embryological origins

A

True

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136
Q

R Ventricle has large fleshy structures known as?

A

trabeculae carnae and papillary muscles and septomarginal branch (moderator band)

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137
Q

The infundibulum is in which heart chamber?

A

R ventricle

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138
Q

The infundibulum in the right ventricle is the opening to the?

A

pulmonary valves

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139
Q

The LV and RV are spearated by the?

A

interventricular septum

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140
Q

What is the distinguishing feature of the LV?

A

thick muscular wall (3x that of RV) w/trabeculae carnae

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141
Q

Tricuspid with anterior, posterior, septal leaflets allows flow from?

A

RA to RV

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142
Q

Pulmonary with anterior, right, and left posterior semilunar valves allows flow from?

A

RV to pulmonary trunk

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143
Q

Mitral with anterior and posterior leaflets allows flow from?

A

LA to LV

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144
Q

Aortic with posterior, R/L anterior semilunar valves allow flow from?

A

LV to ascending aorta

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145
Q

The valve leaflets are attached to papillary muscles by fibrous chords called the?

A

Chorda tendinae

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146
Q

Coronary blood supply is from the?

A

R and L coronary arteries

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147
Q

The R coronary A originates from the?

A

R aortic coronary sinus

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148
Q

The R coronary A runs btw the right auricle and pulmonary trunk in the?

A

anterior atrioventricular sulcus

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149
Q

The R coronary A gives rise to?

A

sinu-atrial, R marginal, post interventricular, atrioventricular arteries

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150
Q

The R Coronary A supplies?

A

R atrium and ventricle, 30% L atrium, SA node (55%), AV node (85%), post 1/3 of interventricular septum

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151
Q

L coronary A originates from the?

A

L aortic coronary sinus

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152
Q

The L Coronary A runs between the?

A

left auricle and pulmonary trunk

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153
Q

The L Coronary A branches into?

A

Circumflex, anterior interventricular (L ant descending), L margina

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154
Q

The L Coronary A supplies?

A

LV, 70% LA, ant 2/3 interventricular septum

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155
Q

The coronary sinus drains how much of the venous blood of the heart?

A

60-70%

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156
Q

The coronary sinus drains the heart via which veins?

A

Great cardiac, small cardiac, middle cardiac, oblique cardiac

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157
Q

The great cardiac vein accompanies the?

A

L ant descending A

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158
Q

the small cardiac vein accompanies the?

A

R marginal A

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159
Q

the middle cardiac vein accompanies the?

A

Posterior interventricular A

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160
Q

The anterior cardiac V opens into the?

A

Right atrium

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161
Q

Where is the sino-atrial node located?

A

Upper R atrium near opening of SVC

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162
Q

The AV node is located in?

A

R atrium in posteriorinferior part (Triangle of Koch - septal leaflet of tricuspid valve, opening of coronary sinus, tendon of Todaro)

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163
Q

The Bundle of His is lacated in the?

A

membranous part of the interventricular septum

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164
Q

Right and L bundle branches are located in?

A

Muscular part of interventricular septum

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165
Q

Bundle branches of the heart end as the subendocardial _______ _____

A

Purkinje fibers

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166
Q

The SA node is innervated by?

A

Cardiac plexuses w/sympathetic fibers from T1-5 sympathetic ganglia and parasympathetic fibers from CN X

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167
Q

Superficial part of cardiac plexuses receive fibers from?

A

superior cervical sympathetic ganglion, inferior cardiac br of the Vagus

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168
Q

Deep cardiac plexuses receive fibers from the?

A

superior, middle, inferior cervical sympathetic ganglia, superior and inferior cardiac br of the Vagus and br from the recurrent laryngeal N from the vagus

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169
Q

Branches of the Thoracic aorta ascending aorta

A

R and L coronary A

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170
Q

Branches of the Thoracic aorta from the arch of aorta

A

brachiocephalic trunk, L common carotid, L subclavian

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171
Q

Branches of the Thoracic Aorta from the descending part

A

3-11th posterior intercostals, 3 bronchial branches, 4-5 esophageal br

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172
Q

The 4 paired visceral arteries of the abdominal aorta?

A

inferior phrenic, middle adrenal, renal, gonadal

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173
Q

4 paired parietal br off the abdominal aorta?

A

1st - 4th lumbar arteries

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174
Q

4 unpaired visceral br off of ab aorta?

A

celiac trunk (T12), superior mesenteric A (L1), inf mesenteric A (L3), median sacral A (L4)

175
Q

Aorta ends at L4 bifurcating into?

A

common iliac A which divide into internal and external iliac arteries

176
Q

What are the branches of the anterior division of the internal iliac artery?

A

Superior vesical, inferior vesical, middle rectal, obturator, inferior gluteal, internal pudendal, uterine and vaginal arteries in females

177
Q

What are the branches of the posterior division of the internal iliac artery?

A

Iliolumbar, lateral sacral, superior gluteal

178
Q

What are the three branches of the external iliac artery?

A

Cremasteric, inferior epigastric, deep circumflex artery

179
Q

The external iliac artery continues as _ _ beyond the inguinal ligament

A

femoral artery

180
Q

What are the branches of the femoral artery?

A

Superficial external pudendal, deep external pudendal, superficial circumflex iliac, deep femoral (w/medial and lateral circumflex br)

181
Q

Where can the femoral artery be palpated?

A

midway between the ASIS and pubic symphysis

182
Q

When the femoral artery passes through the adductor canal it becomes the?

A

Popliteal A

183
Q

Popliteal branches include?

A

medial and lateral superior, middle, medial and lateral inferior genicular arteries

184
Q

The poplital arteries bifurcate into the ______ and _____ _____ arteries in the lower part of the popliteal fossa

A

posterior and anterior tibial

185
Q

The posterior tibial artery leaves the popliteal fossa enters the posterior compartment of the leg and passes behind the medial malleolus to divide into?

A

medial and lateral plantar arteries

186
Q

Branches of the posterior tibial artery?

A

posterior medial malleolar, muscular, peroneal or fibular, nutrient to tibia

187
Q

The anterior tibial artery leaves the popliteal fossa and passes above the interosseous membrane between the tibia and fibula it enters the anterior leg compartment where it branches into?

A

recurrent genicular, anterior medial, lateral malleolar

188
Q

The anterior tibial artery continues in the foot as the?

A

Dorsal pedis artery

189
Q

the dorsal pedis gives off the arcuate artery which supplies?

A

The dorsum of the foot

190
Q

The dorsal pedis passes through the space btw the 1st and 2nd toes to join the lateral plantar br of the posterior tibial A to form the?

A

Plantar arch

191
Q

L subclavian comes off of the?

A

arch of the aorta

192
Q

R subclavian comess off of the?

A

brachiocephalic trunk

193
Q

The subclavian arteriess pass over the 1st rib and behind which muscle?

A

anterior scalene

194
Q

Branches of the subclavian artery?

A

internal thoracic, vertebral, thryocervical trunk, costocervical trunk, dorsal scapular

195
Q

Brnaches of the thyrocervical trunk?

A

suprascapular, inferior thyroid, transverse cervical

196
Q

Branches of the costocervical trunk?

A

superior intercostal A supplies 1st and 2nd intercostal space, deep cervical

197
Q

beond the outer border of the 1st rib the subclavian artery becomes?

A

Axillary artery

198
Q

Which muscle divides the axillary artery into parts?

A

Pectoralis minor

199
Q

The 1st part of the axillary artery proximal to pectoralis minor becomes the?

A

Superior thoracic artery

200
Q

The 2nd part of the axillary artery beneath pectoralis minor becomes the?

A

thoraco-acromial and lateral thoracic arteries

201
Q

the third part of the axillary artery distal to pectoralis minor becomes the?

A

subscapular, posterior and anterior circumflex humeral circumflex

202
Q

The axillary artery becomes the brachial artery beyond the lower border of which muscle?

A

Teres Major

203
Q

The branches of the brachial artery are?

A

profunda brachial (acc radial N), nutrient, muscular, superior and inferior ulnar collateral artereis

204
Q

The brachial artery terminates in the cubital fossa at the level of the neck of radius and bifurcates into?

A

radial and ulnar arteries

205
Q

Branches of the radial artery?

A

Radial recurrent, carpal, muscular, superficial Palmar arteries (RCMP)

206
Q

Branches of the ulnar artery?

A

anterior and posterior ulnar collateral, common interosseous, muscular, anterior and posterior carpal, deep palmar

207
Q

Anterior and posterior ulnar collateral anastomose with whcih branches of the brachial artery?

A

superior and inferior ulnar collateral branches

208
Q

The superficial palmar arch is the continuation of?

A

The Ulnar artery

209
Q

THe superficial palmar arch lies between the?

A

Palmar aponeurosis and digital flexor tendons

210
Q

The superficial palmar arch is completed by which branch of the radial artery?

A

superficial palmar branch

211
Q

The deep palmar arch is the continuation of which artery?

A

Radial

212
Q

The deep palmar arch lies between the?

A

Palmar interossei and deep digital flexor tendons

213
Q

T/F the deep palmar arch lies distal to the superficial palmar arch?

A

False - proximal

214
Q

The common palmar digital arteries are derived from the arches and supply?

A

The fingers

215
Q

The axillary N accompanies what in the quadrangular space?

A

posterior circumflex artery

216
Q

The brachial artery is accompanied by which nerve in the arm?

A

median

217
Q

the superior ulnar collateral artery accompanies what behind the medial epicondyle?

A

Ulnar N

218
Q

The ulnar artery is accompanied by what structure in the forearm?

A

Ulnar N

219
Q

The anterior interosseous N is accompanied by what structure in the forearm?

A

Anterior interosseous artery

220
Q

The superficial radial N is accompanied by what structure in the middle of the forearm?

A

radial artery

221
Q

The posterior interosseous N accompanies the posterior interosseous branch of the radial N where?

A

middle of forearm

222
Q

The femoral N is accompanied by what structure in the upper thigh?

A

Femoral artery

223
Q

The saphenous N accompanies what structure in the mid thigh?

A

Femoral A

224
Q

The popliteal artery accompanies which N in the popliteal fossa?

A

Tibial N

225
Q

The posterior tibial N accompanies what structure in the posterior leg compartment?

A

posterior tibial artery?

226
Q

The anterior tibial artery accompanies the what in the anterior leg compartment?

A

deep peroneal N

227
Q

The anterior part of the pituitary gland comes from what embryologic origin?

A

Rathke’s pouch (stomodeal ectoderm)

228
Q

The posterior part of the pituitary gland comes from what embryological origin?

A

Down growth of hypothalamus (neuroectoderm)

229
Q

What feature of the sphenoid bone does the pituitary gland lie?

A

Sella turcica

230
Q

The pituitary gland is covered by a fold of dura called?

A

Diaphragm sellae

231
Q

The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland from rathke’s pouch produces which hormones?

A

FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH, prolactin, GH

232
Q

T/F the hormones from the anterior lobe of te pituitary gland are influenced by releasing factors from the hypothalamus except prolactin

A

True! Prolactin is influenced by prolactin inhibiting factor aka Dopamine

233
Q

The posterior lobe stores which hormones and where are they from?

A

Oxytocin - paraventricular nuclei of hypothalamus

ADH - supraoptic nuclei of hypothalamus

234
Q

The pituitary gland is supplied by which arteries?

A

superior and inferior hypophyseal arteries (from internal carotid)

235
Q

The thyroid gland comes from which embryological origin?

A

mesoderm from foramen cecum of the tongue

236
Q

The thyroid gland is in which anatomical triangle?

A

anterior cervical triangle under SCM and infrahyoid

237
Q

The thryoid is enclosed in a true fibrous capsule and outer false capsule from what?

A

pretracheal layer of deep cervical fascia

238
Q

The isthmus of the thyroid lies over which tracheal rings?

A

2 - 4

239
Q

The thyroid gland is supplied by which arteries?

A

Superior thyroid - from external carotid
Inferior thyroid - from thyrocervical trunk
Thyroidea ima in 3-10% population

240
Q

The superior thyroid vein accompanies what structure?

A

superior thyroid artery

241
Q

The middle thyroid vein accompanies what structure?

A

The inferior thyroid artery

242
Q

The inferior thyroid vein accompanies what structure?

A

Trick Q! It travels alone

243
Q

The cricothryoid muscle is innervated by?

A

external laryngeal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve

244
Q

Action of cricothyroid?

A

tenses the vocal cords

245
Q

The recurrent laryngeal N supplies what?

A

Intrinsic laryngeal muscles except cricothyroid (ext laryngeal)

246
Q

The thyroid gland is composed of follicles lined by what type of cell?

A

cuboidal

247
Q

The follicles in the thyroid gland secrete what substance?

A

Thyroxine

248
Q

What cells in the thyroid gland are found between follicles?

A

Parafollicular cells

249
Q

Parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland secrete what substance?

A

calcitonin

250
Q

The superior pair of parathyroid glands are derived from waht embryolgical origin?

A

mesoderm in 4th pharyngeal pouch

251
Q

The inferior pair of parathyroid glands are derived from waht embryolgical origin?

A

3rd pharyngeal pouch

252
Q

Parathyroid glands are supplied by what artery?

A

inferior thyroid

253
Q

The parathyroid glands consist of what cell type?

A

Chief cells and oxyphils

254
Q

The chief cells of the parathyroid gland secrete what?

A

PTH

255
Q

T/F the pancreas is both an endocrine and exocrine gland

A

True

256
Q

What are the embryological origins of the pancreas?

A

ventral and dorsal endodermal buds from foregut

257
Q

Endocrine secretions from the islets of Langerhans beta cell (75%)

A

insulin

258
Q

Endocrine secretions from the islets of Langerhans alpha cell (20%)

A

glucagon

259
Q

Endocrine secretions from the islets of Langerhans delta cell (5%)

A

somatostatin

260
Q

Islets of langerhans are in between the pancreatc

A

acini

261
Q

pancreas weighs?

A

90 g

262
Q

Pancreas has a large _____ small ______ process a short ____, a wide _____ and a long _____

A

head, uncinate, neck, body, tail

263
Q

Pancreas lies in the bed of the _____ w/head in C-shaped curve of ______, body draped across the ____, _____, _____ _____ and its tail end lies n the hilum of the ______

A

stomach, duodenum, IVC, aorta, left kidney, spleen

264
Q

Main pancreatic duct (of Wirsung) carries exocrine juices from what parts of the pancreas?

A

tail, body, neck

265
Q

Main pancreatic duct joins w/____ ____ ___ to open nto the ampulla of Vater in man duodenal papilla

A

common bile duct

266
Q

opening of main duct is guarded by a

A

smooth muscle sphincter (of Oddi)

267
Q

Accessory pancreatic duct (of santorini) drains what part of the pancreas and opens ~2cm above main duodenal papilla via minor duodenal papilla

A

head

268
Q

Head of pancreas is derived from which pancreatic bud?

A

ventral

269
Q

Uncinate, neck, body and tail of pancreas is derived from which pancreatic bud?

A

dorsal

270
Q

Blood supply to the pancreas? (3)

A

Superior pancreaticoduodenal A (gastroduodenal A of celiac trunk)
Inferior pancreaticoduodenal A (sup mesenteric A)
Great pancreatic A (from splenic A)

271
Q

Adrenal gland cortex is derived from what embryo origin?

A

mesoderm

272
Q

Adrenal gland medulla is derived from what embryo origin?

A

neural crest cells

273
Q

The L adrenal gland is what shape and is it smaller or larger?

A

semilunar and LARGER

274
Q

The R adrenal gland is what shape and is it smaller or larger?

A

triangular and smaller

275
Q

Adrenal gland cortex zona glomerulosa secretes?

A

mineralcorticoids - aldosterone (under renin) - Salt

276
Q

Adrenal gland cortex zona Fasciculata secretes?

A

glucocorticoids (under ATCH) - sweet

277
Q

Adrenal gland cortex zona reticularis secretes?

A

sex hormones (from pregnenolone) - sex

278
Q

Adrenal medulla secretes what under sympathetic control?

A

Norepinephrine

279
Q

Adrenal medulla innervated by what fibers which pass through celiac ganglion?

A

preganglionic sympathetic fibers

280
Q

Blood supply to the adrenal glands? (3 A)

A

Sup adrenal A (from inf phrenic, br of ab aorta)
Middle adrenal A from ab aorta
Inf adrenal A from renal A

281
Q

Left adrenal vein drains into?

A

L renal V

282
Q

Right adrenal vein drains into?

A

IVC

283
Q

Foregut supplied by celiac trunk gives rise to what GI anatomy?

A

esophagus, stomach, prox 1/2 of duodenum (up to major duodenal papilla), liver, GB, pancreas

284
Q

Midgut supplied by sup mesenteric A gives rise to what GI anatomy?

A

distal 1/2 of duodenum, SI, prox 1/2 LI up to prox 2/3 of transverse colon

285
Q

Hindgut supplied by inf mesenteric A gives rise to what GI anatomy?

A

Distal 1/3 transverse colon to prox 1/2 of anal canal

286
Q

Meckel’s diverticulum occurs in _% of pop, is _” long, located _ ft prox to ileocecal junction, may contain _ types of ectopic tissue (gastric, pancreatic), found _X MC in males

A

2, 2, 2, 2, 2

287
Q

How many quadrants of the abdomen and what are they?

A

2 upper - R/L

2 lower - R/L

288
Q

Epigastric region of the abdomen contains?

A

stomach, duodenum, pancreas

289
Q

R hypochondrium region of the abdomen contains?

A

liver and GB

290
Q

L hypochondrium region of the abdomen contains?

A

spleen

291
Q

Umbilical region of the abdomen contains?

A

SI

292
Q

R/L flanks region of the abdomen contains?

A

kidneys (R/L)

293
Q

R iliac fossa region of the abdomen contains?

A

appendix, R ovary, R uterine tube, cecum

294
Q

L iliac fossa region of the abdomen contains?

A

L ovary, uterine tube, and sigmoid colon

295
Q

Hypogastric/suprapubic region of the abdomen contains?

A

bladder and uterus

296
Q

T7 innervates what dermatome level?

A

Xiphoid level

297
Q

T10 innervates what dermatome level?

A

umbilical level

298
Q

L1 innervates what dermatome level?

A

inguinal region

299
Q

The anterior ab wall has 6 layers what are they?

A

Skin, subcutaneous tissue, muscle layer, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat pad, parietal peritoneum

300
Q

Subcutaneous layer of ant ab wall is divided into 2 layers what are they and where do they go?

A

1) fatty layer (camper): cont w/fatty subcutaneous layer of the rest of the body
2) membranous layer (scarpa) in lower ab from one finger below inguinal lig (attached to fascia lata of thigh), ext medial and inf to continue w/Colles fascia in scrotum and Buck’s fascia around the penis attached to base of urogenital diaphragm

301
Q

Muscle layer of the ant ab wall lateral to linea semilunaris contains which three muscles?

A

ext and int oblique, transverse abdominis

302
Q

Muscle layer of the ant ab wall medial to linea semilunaris contains which three muscles?

A

anterior layer of rectus sheath, rectus ab, post layer of rectus sheath

303
Q

Ant ab wall is innervated by what nerves?

A

T7-11 intercostal N, T12 subcostal N, L1 iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal N

304
Q

Rectus sheath above the arcuate line has two layers what are they and what are they made of?

A

1) Anterior layer: ext ob aponeurosis, ant layer of int oblique aponeurosis
2) Posterior layer: post layer of int ob aponeurosis and TA aponeurosis

305
Q

Rectus sheath below the arcuate line has two layers what are they and what are they made of?

A

1) anterior layer: aponeurosis of ext ob, int ob, TA

2) posterior layer: deficient covered only by transversalis fascia

306
Q

Where is the arcuate line that divides the rectus sheath?

A

Posterior to rectus muscle midway btw umbilicus and symphysis

307
Q

Contents of the rectus sheath?

A

RA, pyramidalis (absent 15% pop), sup/inf epigastric A/V below the RA

308
Q

Peritoneum is the _____ lining of the ab cav?

A

inner

309
Q

Parietal layer of the peritoneum is or isn’t sensitive to pain and is innervated by which nerves?

A

Is! lower intercostal and subcostal N

310
Q

Visceral layer of the peritoneum is or isn’t sensitive to pain?

A

Nope! but sensitive to distension

311
Q

Ab cav is divided into to compartments what are they?

A

greater and lesser sacs

312
Q

Lesser ac of ab cav lives behind what organ and opens into what via the epiploeic foramen of Winslow?

A

stomach, greater sac

313
Q

Retroperitoneal structures (AC, DC, PARK AID)

A

Ascending colon, descending colon, pancreas, adrenals, rectum (lower 2/3), kidneys, aorta, IVC, duodenum (2-4th parts)

314
Q

Stomach is lined with what type of epithelial cell?

A

Columnar

315
Q

The stomach is covered by 3 layers of smooth muscle what are they?

A

outer long, inner circ, innermost ob

316
Q

Stomach has 2 notches what are they?

A

cardiac and angular

317
Q

Stomach has 2 omenta attached what are they?

A

greater and lesser

318
Q

Stomach is guarded by 2 sphincters what are they?

A

lower esophageal and pyloric

319
Q

Stomach has chief cells which product?

A

pepsinogen

320
Q

Stomach has parietal (oxyntic) cells which produce?

A

Hydrochloric acid and IF

321
Q

Blood supply to the stomach? (5 A)

A

L gastric from celiac trunk
R gastric from common hepatic/proper hepatic A
L gastro-epiploic A and short gastric from splenic
R gastro-epiploic (gastro-duodenal br of common hepatic A)

322
Q

Duodenum is a __” _-shaped tube surrounding head of pancreas

A

10, C

323
Q

4 parts of duodenum and length?

A

1st (2” long) sup part
2nd (3”) descending part
3rd (4”) horizontal part
4th (1”) ascending part

324
Q

Upper 1/2 (above major duodenal papilla) supplied by what BV?

A

sup pancreatico-duodenal A from gastro-duodenal br of common hepatic A from celiac trunk

325
Q

Upper 1/2 (below major duodenal papilla) supplied by what BV?

A

Inf pancreatico-duodenal a 1st br of sup mesenteric A

326
Q

Common bile duct of biliary tree opens into what part of the duodenum?

A

2nd part (descending part) 2” long

327
Q

Super mesenteric V and A pass over what part of duodenum?

A

3rd part (horizontal ) (4”)

328
Q

4th part of duodenum (ascending) is cont w/jejunum @ the?

A

duodeno-jejunal jxn

329
Q

Duodeno-jejunal jxn fixed and held in place by what ligament and is attached to what part of the diaphragm?

A

suspensory ligament of Treitz

Right crus

330
Q

1st “ of 1st part (sup part) of duodenum is _____peritoneal?

A

intraperitoneal

331
Q

2-4th parts of duodenum are ____peritoneal?

A

retroperitoneal

332
Q

R and left hepatic ducts of the biliary tree combine to form?

A

common hepatic duct

333
Q

Cystic duct of GB joins w/common hepatic duct to form?

A

common bile duct

334
Q

The triangle btw the cystic duct, common hepatic duct and liver is known as _______’s Triangle and contains what artery?

A

Callot’s, cystic A

335
Q

common bile duct travel in the free edge of the lesser omentum with what two blood vessels?

A

Proper hepatic A and portal V?

336
Q

Common bile duct passes through the head of pancreas and is joined by the main pancreatic duct to open into what part of duodenum?

A

2nd part (descending 3”)

337
Q

The gallbladder is a __cc bile-containing sac below the liver?

A

50

338
Q

Gallbladder lies in a fossa in the liver between what lobes?

A

right and quadrate lobes

339
Q

Parts of the gallbladder? (4)

A

fundus, body, neck, cystic duct (w/spiral valve of Heister)

340
Q

Jejunum is the proximal part of the SI and is_” long in the upper ____ part of the ab and is thicker, _____ and more vascular

A

8, left, wider

341
Q

The distal part of the SI is the ileum which is __” long in the lower _____ part of the abdomen and is thinner, narrower and ____ vascular

A

12, right, less

342
Q

Mesentery of jejunum has large translucent windows with few large vascular _______ and fewer _____ ____

A

arcades, vasa recta

343
Q

Mesentery of the ileum has small opaque windows, numerous smaller _______ an numerous short ____ ____

A

arcades, vasa recta

344
Q

The ileum has numeous lymphoid aggregated called?

A

Peyer’s patches (GALT: gut associated lymphoid tissue)

345
Q

superior mesenteric A supplies all what parts of the intestines?

A

SI, LI up to prox 2/3 of transverse colon

346
Q

Small vs large intestine characteristics

A

LI: haustra, teniae coli, appendices epiploica, lager diameter
SI: none of that

347
Q

Colon parts and lengths?

A 
Cecum 3"
ascending 5"
transverse 20"
descending 10"
simoid 15"
348
Q

where is the appendix and what is it suspended by?

A

4” outpouch from posmed cecum where teniae coli meet and suspended by mesoappendix

349
Q

65% of the time the appendix is behind the?

A

cecum

350
Q

30% of the time the appendix is in the?

A

pelvis

351
Q

5% of the time the appendix is either _____-ileal or ____-ileal?

A

retro/pre

352
Q

The appendix is supplied by what A?

A

appendicular A (br of ileocecal br of the SMA)

353
Q

Where is the base of the appendix located?

A

McBurey’s Point 2/3 along a line from umbilicus to ASIS

354
Q

Large intestine is derived from what embryological tissues?

A

Midgut and hindgut

355
Q

Large intestine is supplied by what A?

A

Superior and inferior mesenteric

356
Q

At the junction between the proximal two thirds nd distal third transverse colon there is a __________ area due to the end of the mid gut and beginning of hind gut

A

watershed

357
Q

What is a watershed area?

A

Blood supply may be compromised during hypovolemic shock

358
Q

Lymphatics of the colon drain first to _______ then to _______ to _________ to ___-_____ nodes close to the aorta

A

pericolic, paracolic, mesenteric, para-aortic

359
Q

The sigmoid colon continues as the?

A

Rectum

360
Q

The rectum is _” long and lies in the curve of the ______

A

5, sacrum

361
Q

How many curves in the rectum?

A

3 - 2 L, 1 R

362
Q

Lower part of rectum dilated and is called the?

A

ampulla

363
Q

Upper 1/3 of rectum is covered by pelvic ________ on ant and lat sides

A

peritoneum

364
Q

Middle 1/3 of rectum is covered by peritoneum only on the ________ aspect

A

anterior

365
Q

Lower 1/3 of rectum has no peritoneum and is considered _____peritoneal

A

retro

366
Q

Rectum is supplied by what A?

A

superior rectal br of inf mesenteric A

367
Q

Rectum is derived from what embryological origin?

A

Hindgut

368
Q

Rectum drains into which lymphatic nodes?

A

inf mesenteric

369
Q

Rectum continues as the anal canal once it passes through the?

A

pelvic diaphragm

370
Q

Anal canal is _” long and derived from what embryological origins? The junction between the origins is called the?

A

1.5”, endoderm and ectoderm, pectineal line

371
Q

What longitudinal folds are in the anal mucosa above the pectineal line?

A

Columns of Morgagni

372
Q

Columns of Morgagni are connected inferiorly by mucosal fold called the?

A

Valves of Ball

373
Q

Anorectal junction is pulled anteriorly by what muscle?

A

puborectalis part of levator ani

374
Q

The internal circular sphincter of the anal canal is made up of?

A

smooth muscle

375
Q

The external sphincter of the anal canal is composed of what three parts?

A

Deep, superficial, and submucosal and is made up of skeletal muscle

376
Q

The external sphincter of the anal canal is supplied by what nerve?

A

Inf rectal br of the pudendal N

377
Q

Pectinate line upper half is derived from what embryological origin and is it sensitive to pain?

A

Endoderm (hindgut) nope

378
Q

Blood supply to the upper half of the pectinate line is from?

A

Inf mesenteric A

379
Q

Lymphatics from upper half of pectinate line drain into?

A

inf mesenteric nodes

380
Q

Lower half of pectineal line is deived from what embryological origin and is it sensitive to pain?

A

ectoderm and yes

381
Q

Blood supply to lower 1/2 of pectineal line is the?

A

inf rectal br of internal pudendal A which is a br of ant division of int iliac A

382
Q

Lymphatics of the lower 1/2 of the pectineal line drain into a lateral group of which nodes in the groin?

A

superficial inguinal

383
Q

Intra-cartilaginous ossification occurs in which bones?

A

All long bones except the clavicle

384
Q

Intra-membranous ossification occurs in which bones?

A

Clavicle, flat skull bones, axial skeleton

385
Q

T/F The clavicle is the last bone to begin ossification and the last to completely ossify

A

F The clavicle is the FIRST bone to begin ossification and the last to completely ossify

386
Q

Fibrous classifications of bone with example?

A

Synostosis (suture)
Syndesmosis (interosseous membrane in inf talofibular joint)
Gomophosis (tooth and tooth socket in gum)

387
Q

Cartilaginous classifications of bone with example?

A

Synchondrosis (1o): growing ends of long bones

Symphysis (2o): IVD, pubic symphysis, manubriosternal jt

388
Q

Types of synovial joints? (6)

A

planar/gliding - zygapophyseal, AC
ginglymus/hinge - humero-ulnar
trochoid/pivot - medial atlanto-axial, prox radio-ulnar
condylar/ellipsoid - MCP
Sellar/saddle - 1st MCP
Spheroidal/ball and socket - hip/shoulder

389
Q

All midline joints are 2o cartilaginous joints EXCEPT?

A

atlantodental - trochoid synovial and interparietal which is fibrous sutural

390
Q

The articular surfaces of all synovial joints are covered by? Except which? What are those covered by?

A

hyaline cartilage
Temporomandibular, sternoclavicular, AC joints
Fibrocartilage

391
Q

Synovial membrane lines what two surfaces?

A

Interior of fibrous joint capsule and non-articular surfaces of nearby bones

392
Q

The synovium is made of which cells derived from the mesoderm?

A

Plump cells

393
Q

Type A synoviocytes are what type of cell?

A

Macrophages

394
Q

Type B synoviocytes secrete what fluid and what is it made up of?

A

Synovial fluid made up of hyaluronic acid and glycoproteins

395
Q

Hilton’s law regarding innervation of joints?

A

The nerve which innervates a muscle that acts on a joint, will supply the joint and an area of skin over the joint

396
Q

Bone is made up of?

A

Central Haversian canals, concentric lamella, bone matrix

397
Q

T/F Central Haversian canals are vascular

A

True

398
Q

Central Haversian canals are connected by?

A

Volkmann’s canals

399
Q

Concentric lamellae surrounding Haversian canals are made of?

A

Lacunae with osteocytes

400
Q

Lacunae in concentric lamellae are connected by what containing what for what purpose?

A

Canaliculi
Thin cytoplasmic strands
communication of osteocytes

401
Q

Bone matrix is calcified intracellular material comprised of?

A

Osteoblasts which build bone and become osteocytes

Osteoclasts reabsorb and remodel bone

402
Q

The cartilage outer layer is called? And has what two structures?

A

Perichondrium

Chondroblasts and blood vessels

403
Q

Cartilage is 95% what and 5% what?

A

ECM of glycosaminoglycans and proteoglycans

Chondrocytes in lacunae

404
Q

T/F Cartilage not in the outer layer has no BV or nerves

A

True

405
Q

Cartilage types?

A

Hyaline: most abundant, T2 fibers cover joint
Elastic: Type 2 fibers, elastin, in larynx
Fibrocartilage: dense Type 1 collagen fibers in intra-articular discs

406
Q 
Smooth muscle
Striated?
Shape?
Nucleus?
Voluntary or involuntary?
A

No striation
Spindle shape
Central nucleus
Involuntary

407
Q

Skeletal muscle
Striated?
Nucleus?
Voluntary or involuntary?

A

X striations
Elongated nucleus
Voluntary

408
Q 
Cardiac muscle
Striated?
Shape?
Nucleus?
Voluntary or involuntary?
A

X striations
branches w/intercalated discs
Central nucleus
Involuntary

409
Q

Endomysium surrounds what?

A

individual muscle fibers

410
Q

Perimysium surrounds what?

A

Fascicle (bundle) of fibers

411
Q

Epimysium surrounds what?

A

several bundles/fascicles

412
Q

Examples of fusiform muscles?

A

Biceps brachii, gastrocnemus

413
Q

Examples of parallel muscles?

A

RA, sartorius

414
Q

Examples of unipennate muscles?

A

palmar interossei

415
Q

Examples of bipennate muscles?

A

Rectus femoris, dorsal interossei

416
Q

Examples of multipennate muscles?

A

Deltoid

417
Q

Examples of circular muscles?

A

Orbicularis Oris, anal sphincter

418
Q 
TMJ
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
A

Atypical synovial
Compound hinge and gliding joint
Condyle of mandible, mandibular fossa, articular eminence of temportal bone
Elevation (temporalis, masseter, medial pterygoid) and depression (mylohyoid, digastric, lateral pterygoid) (hinge) in lower compartment and protraction (lateral pterygoid, ant temporalis, superficial masseter) and retraction (post temporalis, deep masseter) (gliding) upper compartment
Auriculotemporal, deep temporal, masseteric br of CN V3

419
Q 
GH Joint
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
A 
Synovial
Ball and Socket
Glenoid Fossa and head of humerus
Flexion (pec major, ant delt), Ext (lats, teres major, post delt), int rtn (subscap, ec major, teres ajor, lats, ant delt), Ext rtn (post delt, infraspin, teres minor), adduction (pec major, teres major/minor, lats, subscap, coracobrachialis), abuction (supraspin 0-15, delts 15-90)
Axillary and suprascapular N
420
Q 
Sternoclavicular Joint
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
A

synovial w/intra-articular disc
saddle but behaves like ball and socket
manubrium of sternum and medial head of clavicle
elevation (SCM, trap), depression (pec minor, trap), protraction (pec minor), retraction (trap), circumduction (combo of above)
Medial br of supraclavicular N C3 and N to subclavius

421
Q 
Elbow joint
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
A

Synovial
Hinge/ginglymus
lower humerus, head of radius, trochlea of ulna
Flexion (biceps brachii, brachilis, brachioradialis), extension (triceps, anconeus)
Innervation: radial and musculocutaneous

422
Q 
Radio-ulnar Joints
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
A 
synovial
Pivot/trochoid
Proximal: head of radius, notch of ulna
Distal: head of ulna and distal end of radius
Supination: biceps brachii and supinator
Pronation: pronator teres and quadratus
Median, ulnar, radial N
423
Q 
Wrist Joint
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
A 
Synovial
Condyloid (ellipsoid)
Distal radius, scaphoid, lunate
Flexion (flex carpi radialis/ulnaris, finger flexors), Extension (extensor radialis longus/brevis, extensor ulnaris, finger extensors), adduction/ulnar deviation (flexor/extensor carpi ulnaris), abduction/radial deviation (flexor/extensor carpi radialis
Radial, median, ulnar N
424
Q 
1st MCP Jt
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
A 
Synovial
Saddle/sellar
Trapezium and 1st metacarpal
Flexion: FPL/B, extension: EPL/B, Abduction: ab pol L/B Adduction: add pol, opposition: opponens pol
Radial and median N
425
Q 
MCP Joints
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
A

Synovial
Condyloid/ellipsoid
Head of met and base of prox phalanx
Flexion: flexor digitorum superficialis/profundus lumbricals
Extension: ext digitorum Adduction: palmar interossei
Abduction: dorsal interossei Circumduction: combo
Median, ulnar, radial N

426
Q 
IP Joint
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
A

Synovial
Hinge/ginglymus
Proximal and middle, middle and distal phalanges
Flexion flexor digitorum superficialis/profundus
Extension: extensor digitorum, lumbricals, interossei
Median, ulnar, radial N

427
Q 
Hip Joint
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
A

Synovial
Ball and socket/spheroidal
Acetabulum of os coxae and head of femur
Flexion: iliopsoas, rec fem, sartorius
Ext: glut max, semimem/ten, hamstring part adductor magnus Abduction: glut med, min, TFL
Add: add long, brevis, adductor part magnus, gracilis, pectineus, lower glut max
Int rtn: glute med/max Ext rtn: glut max, psoas, piriformis, gemelli, obturators, quad fem
Circumduction: combo of above
Femoral, obturator, N to quad fem

428
Q

Ligaments of hip joint
One intra-articular ligament called what from transverse acetabular lig and rim of nearby acetabular notch to fovea centralis of femur and contains what A in children?
3 extra-articular ligaments where they attach and what they prevent?

A

Round ligament of the head of the femur
Central foveolar A
Iliofemoral from AIIS to root of femoral neck prevents hyperextension
Pubofemoral from sup pubic ramus to lower capsule prevents hyper-abduction
Ischiofemoral from ischium to post capsule prevents hyperextension

429
Q 
Knee Joint
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
A 
Synovial
modified hinge/ginglymus
Lower femur and upper tibia
Flexion: biceps femoris, semitendinosus/membranosus, gastroc, sartorius, gracilis
Ext: quad fem
Med rtn: poplitues
Ext rtn of flexed knee: biceps fem
Femoral, tibial, common peroneal
430
Q

Intra-articular ligaments of the knee? Origins/Insertions and preventions

A

Ant cruciate lig: ant intercondylar ridge to post med lateral condyle of femur prevents ant movement of tibia on femur
Post cruciate lig: post intercondylar ridge to ant lat medial condyle of femur, prevents post movement of tibia on femur

431
Q

Extra-articular ligaments of knee? Origins, insertions, preventions

A

MCL: thick femur to tibia and med meniscus prevents abduction
LCL: thin femur to fibular head prevents adduction

432
Q

Intra-articular discs of the knee? Attachments

A

Medial meniscus: semilunar fibrocart disc MCL to intercondylar ridge
Lateral meniscus: circular intercondylar ridge

433
Q 
Tib/Fib Joint
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
A

Sup synovial, inf fibrous
Sup planar, inf syndesmosis
Sup: head of fibular and upper tibia, inf: dista fib/tib
Deep peroneal N

434
Q 
Ankle Joint
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
A

Synovial
Hinge/ginglymus
Lower tibia, fibula, talus
Dorsiflexion (ext): gastroc, soleus, plantaris, tib post
Plantar flexion (flex): tib ant, EHL, ext dig longus
Tibial and deep peroneal N

Chiro Essentials Anatomy (6 decks)

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