Anatomy Flashcards
Brief anatomy review
1
Q
Anatomical position?
A
Body facing forward, limbs extended, palms facing forward
2
Q
Simple squamous epithelium line?
A
Lymphatic and blood vessels, pleura and peritoneum
3
Q
Stratified squamous epithelium line?
A
Skin, esophagus, lower half of the anal canal
4
Q
Cuboidal epithelia line?
A
Bowman’s capsule, convoluted tubules of the kidney, thyroid follicles.
5
Q
Simple columnar epithelium line?
A
GI tract
6
Q
Stratified columnar epithelium line?
A
Uterine tube
7
Q
Pseudostratified columnar epithelia line?
A
Respiratory tract
8
Q
Transitional epithelium line?
A
Ureter, urinary bladder, most of the urethra
9
Q
How many embryo layers in the second week?
A
2 (bilaminar)
10
Q
How many layers in the 3rd week of gestation?
A
3 (trilaminar)
11
Q
Endoderm lies on the inside and gives rise to?
A
epithelium in the respiratory, GI and bladder (except trigone)
12
Q
Ectoderm lies outside and gives rise to?
A
Epidermis (hair and melanocytes), retina, lens, CNS, PNS, pia and arachnoid mater, adrenal medulla
13
Q
Mesoderm in the middle gives rise to?
A
Bones and muscles of trunk and extremities, cardiovascular system, spleen, kidney, ureter, and trigone of bladder, cartilage and muscle of respiratory system, adrenal cortex, thyroid glands, dermis of skin and dura mater of spinal cord
14
Q
Suboccipital Triangle boundaries?
A
rectus capitis poster major, obliquus capitis superior, obliquus capitis inferior
15
Q
Roof of suboccipital triangle?
A
deep fascia covered by semispinalis capitis
16
Q
Floor of suboccipital triangle?
A
Posterior arch of C1 and posterior atlanto-occipital membrance
17
Q
Contents of suboccipital triangle?
A
3rd part of vertebral artery, suboccipital N (dorsal ramus C1), suboccipital veins
18
Q
What innervates all of the muscles forming the boundaries of the suboccipital triangle?
A
Dorsal Ramus of C1
19
Q
Anterior cervical triangle boundaries?
A
anterior midline, inferior ramus of mandible and anterior border of SCM
20
Q
Anterior cervical triangle roof?
A
skin, superficial fascia, investing layer of deep cervical fascia
21
Q
Anterior cervical triangle contents?
A
carotid, submandibular, submental and muscular triangles
22
Q
Carotid triangle boundaries?
A
SCM, posterior belly of digastric and superior belly of omohyoid
23
Q
Roof of carotid triangle?
A
skin, subcutaneous fascia and investing layer of deep cervical fascia
24
Q
Contents of the carotid triangle?
A
CN XI/XII, carotid sheath, containing common carotid artery, internal carotid artery, internal jugular V and CN X; lying anterior to the carotid sheath are lymph nodes and ansa cervicalis
25
Submandiblar (Digastric) triangle boundaries?
posterior and anterior bellies of digastric and inferior ramus of mandible
26
Roof of Submandiblar (Digastric) triangle
skin, superficial fascia
27
Floor of Submandiblar (Digastric) triangle
mylohyoid, hyoglossus and part of middle constrictor
28
Contents of Submandiblar (Digastric) triangle
submandibular gland, nodes, facial vein and artery, hypoglossal and mylohyoid N
29
Submental (Suprahyoid) triangle boundaries?
anterior bellies of both digastric and hyoid bone
30
Submental (Suprahyoid) triangle roof?
skin, subcutaneous fascia
31
Submental (Suprahyoid) triangle floor?
Mylohyoid muscles
32
Submental (Suprahyoid) triangle contents?
submental lymph nodes, submental veins
33
Muscular triangle boundaries?
SCM, superior belly omohyoid and anterior midline of neck
34
Muscular triangle roof?
Skin and superficial fascia
35
Muscular triangle contents?
sternohyoid, sternothyroid, thyrohyoid muscles, thyroid, trachea, larynx
36
Posterior cervical triangle boundaries?
SCM, trapezius, middle third of clavicle
37
Posterior cervical triangle roof?
skin superficial fascia, platysma, investing layer of deep cervical fascia
38
Posterior cervical triangle floor?
splenius capitis, levator scapulae, posterior scalene, middle and anterior scalene
39
Posterior cervical triangle contents?
subclavian artery, suprascapular, transverse cervical, occipital arteries, subclavian and external jugular veins (6 vessels), great auricular, lesser occipital, supraclavicular, transverse cervical nerves, trunks of the brachial plexus, CN XI (7 N)
40
Posterior cervical triangle subdivided by inferior belly of omohyoid into?
occipital and supraclavicular triangles
41
Triangle of Auscultation boundaries?
trapezius, latissimus dorsi, medial border of scapula
42
Triangle of Auscultation roof?
skin and superficial fascia
43
Triangle of Auscultation floor?
rhomboid major
44
Triangle of Auscultation contents
none
45
Lumbar triangle of petit boundaries?
latissimus dorsi, external oblique, and iliac crest
46
Lumbar triangle of petit roof?
skin and superficial fascia
47
Lumbar triangle of petit floor?
transversus abdominis
48
Lumbar triangle of petit contents?
none
49
Inguinal triangle of Hesselbach boundaries?
Rectus abdominis, inferior epigastric vessels and inguinal ligament
50
Inguinal ligament is the infolding of the lower end of the aponeurosis of external oblique and extends from the?
Anterior superior iliac spine to the pubic tubercle
51
Inguinal triangle of Hesselbach Roof?
skin and external oblique aponeurosis
52
Inguinal triangle of Hesselbach floor?
transversalis fascia
53
Direct hernias pass thorugh which anatomical triangle?
Inguinal triangle of Hesselbach
54
Femoral Triangle of Scarpa boundaries?
inguinal ligament, medial borders of sartorius and adductor longus
55
Femoral Triangle of Scarpa roof?
skin, superficial fascia and fascia lata
56
Femoral Triangle of Scarpa floor?
iliopsoas, pectineus, adductor longus
57
Femoral Triangle of Scarpa contents?
femoral N/A/V and femoral canal
58
What is in the femoral sheath?
femoral N/A/V
59
What forms the femoral sheath?
Fascia of trasversalis and iliacus
60
Femoral A/V/N lies outside of femoral sheath?
N
61
Boundaries of the Thoracic Outlet (Superior Thoracic aperture)?
T1 Vertebra (posterior), 1st rib (lateral), manubrium of sternum (anterior)
62
Thoracic Outlet (Superior Thoracic aperture) roof?
suprapleural membrane (Sibson's fascia) - tip of TP C7 to inner aspect 1st rib
63
Thoracic Outlet (Superior Thoracic aperture) contents?
trachea, esophagus, thoracic duct, brachiocephalic trunk, L common carotid, L subclavian A, R/L brachiocephalic V, R/L CN X, phrenic N, R/L symp trunks, T1 of brachial plexus and sternohyoid, sternothyroid and longus coli
64
Axilla boundaries?
pec major and minor (anterior), subscap, teres major, lat dorsi (post), upper 4 ribs and serratus anterior (medial), bicipital groove of th humerus (lateral)
65
Axillary roof?
clavicle (anterior), 1st rib (medial), scapula (posterior)
66
Axillary floor?
skin, superficial fascia
67
Axillary contents?
axillary A and br, axillary V and tributaries, cords of brachial plexus and 6 groups of lymph nodes (anterior (pectoral), posterior (subscapular), infraclavicular, central, apical, lateral) aka APICAL
68
Quadrangular space boundaries?
teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head triceps (medial), humerus (lateral)
69
Quadrangular space contents?
axillary N, posterior circumflex humeral A/V
70
Quadrangular space roof?
none
71
Quadrangular space floor?
none
72
Triangular Space boundaries?
teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of triceps (lateral)
73
Triangular Space contents ?
circumflex scapular branch of subscapular artery
74
Triangular Space roof?
none
75
Triangular Space floor?
none
76
Cubital Fossa boundaries?
pronator teres (medial), brachioradialis (lateral), btw humeral epicondyles (superior)
77
Cubital Fossa roof?
skin, superficial fascia w/median cubital V, deep fascia and bicipital aponeurosis
78
Cubital Fossa floor?
brachialis (medial), supinator (lateral)
79
Cubital Fossa contents lat to med?
radian N, biceps tendon, brachial A (radio-ulnar), median N
80
Anatomical Snuffbox boundaries?
abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis (anterior) tendon of extensor pollicis longus (posterior)
81
Anatomical Snuffbox roof?
skin, superficial fascia w/cephalic V and superficial branch of radial N
82
Anatomical Snuffbox floor?
styloid process of radius, scaphoid, trapezium, base of 1st metacarpal
83
Anatomical Snuffbox content?
radial A and tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis
84
Carpal Tunnel roof?
flexor retinaculum 1" fibrous square attached to STOP bones (scaphoid, trapezium, os hamate, pisiform)
85
Carpal Tunnel floor?
trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate
86
Carpal Tunnel contents?
median N, Tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus and flexor pollicis longus
87
What N passes over the carpal tunnel?
superficial palmar br of Median N
88
Guyon's Canal/Ulnar Tunnel floor?
flexor retinaculum
89
Guyon's Canal/Ulnar Tunnel roof?
pisohamate ligament
90
Guyon's Canal/Ulnar Tunnel medial border?
pisiform
91
Guyon's Canal/Ulnar Tunnel lateral border?
hamate
92
Guyon's Canal/Ulnar Tunnel contents?
ulnar N/A
93
Inguinal Canal (of 2's) boundaries?
ext ob aponeurosis and internal oblique (ant)
| conjoint tendon and transversalis fascia (post)
94
Inguinal Canal (of 2's) roof?
arching fibers of int ob and transversus abdominis
95
Inguinal Canal (of 2's) floor?
inguinal ligament and lacunar ligament medially
96
Inguinal Canal (of 2's) extent?
btw deep (btw ASIS and pubic tubercle) and superficial (med to pubic tubercle and above pubic crest) inguinal rings
97
Femoral Canal boundaries?
```
lacunar ligament (medial)
inguinal ligament (ant)
femoral vein (lateral)
pectineus and pectineal ligament (post)
```
98
Femoral Canal roof?
CT
99
Femoral Canal contents?
lymph node (cloquet/rosenmuller), lymphatics, CT
100
Adductor/Subsartorial/Hunter's canal boundaries?
Antlat: vastus medialis
Andmed: sartorius
Postlat: adductor longus/magnus
101
Adductor/Subsartorial/Hunter's canal contents?
femoral A/V, saphenous N, N to vastus medialis
102
Popliteal Fossa boundaries?
Suplat: biceps femoris
Supmed: semitendinosis, semimembranosus
Inflat: lat head gastroc
Infmed: med head gastroc
103
Popliteal Fossa roof:
skin, superficial fascia w/short saphenous V and deep fascia
104
Popliteal Fossa floor?
lower end of femur, post knee jt, popliteus, fascia
105
Popliteal Fossa contents?
tibial N, popliteal V/A, common peroneal (fibular) N, nodes, fat, A deepest, tibial N most superficial and V btw N and A
106
Tarsal Tunnel location?
behind medial malleolus under the flexor retinaculum
107
Tarsal Tunnel contents:
```
Tom, Dick ANd Harry
Tibialis Posterior tendon
Flexor Digitorum Longus Tendon
post tib A, V and N
Flexor Hallucis longus tendon
```
108
The heart develops in which embryonic layer in which region at which week?
Mesoderm
Cephalic region
3rd week
109
What tissue forms the R/L endocardial tubes?
angioblastic tissue
110
The R + L endocardial tubes form the?
primitive heart tube
111
the primitive heart tube folds on itself and develops three dilations which are?
atrial
Ventricular
bulbus cordis
112
The proximal end of the heart tube is formed by?
Sinus venosus
113
The distal end of the heart tube is formed by?
Truncus Arteriosus
114
In the 5th week the atrial dilation is divided by?
Septum Primum
115
What is the hole in the upper part of the septum primum?
Ostium secundum
116
Another septum appears R of the septum primum and is called?
septum secundum
117
The septum secundum is incomplete inferiorly and remaining as the?
Limbus of the fossa ovalis
118
In the 7th-8th weeks the truncus arteriosus is divided into two separate tubes. What are they?
Aortic and pulmonic
119
The ductus arteriosus allows oxygenated blood to be shunted from ________ to _____
L pulm A
| arch of the aorta
120
MC congenital heart disease?
Ventricular septal defect
121
Most common atrial septum defect?
Ostium secundum defect
122
MC congenital cyanotic heart disease?
Fallot's tetralogy
123
What are fallot's tetralogy?
pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, R ventricular hypertrophy, dextroposition of the aorta
124
Acyanotic congenital heart diesease are?
Atrial Septal defect, ventricular septal defect, persistent ductus arteriosus (all L-R shunts)
125
Surface markings of the heart?
3rd R costal cartilage 1 finger's breadth from sternal edge
6th R costal cartilage 1 finger's breadth from sternal edge
2nd L costal cartilage 1 finger's breadth from sternal edge
5th L intercostal space 7-9cm from midsternal line
126
Cardiac chambers
R heart border = R atrium
Inf heart border = RV
L heart border made of LV and L auricle of L atrium
127
R atrium origins?
sinus venosus and true atrium
128
True atrium has the rough part which has ?
Pectinate muscles
129
Smooth and rough part of R atrium are separated by ?
Crista terminalis
130
The openings for the SVC and IVC are in which chamber of the heart?
R atrium
131
What is the depression on the interatrial septum called?
fossa ovale
132
Above the opening of the tricuspid valve lies the orifice of?
Coronary Sinus
133
How much venous blood drains into the heart via the coronary sinus?
60-70%
134
L atrium has how many pulmonary V carrying O2 blood from lungs?
4
135
T/F The L Atrium has both rough and smooth parts reflecting its dual embryological origins
True
136
R Ventricle has large fleshy structures known as?
trabeculae carnae and papillary muscles and septomarginal branch (moderator band)
137
The infundibulum is in which heart chamber?
R ventricle
138
The infundibulum in the right ventricle is the opening to the?
pulmonary valves
139
The LV and RV are spearated by the?
interventricular septum
140
What is the distinguishing feature of the LV?
thick muscular wall (3x that of RV) w/trabeculae carnae
141
Tricuspid with anterior, posterior, septal leaflets allows flow from?
RA to RV
142
Pulmonary with anterior, right, and left posterior semilunar valves allows flow from?
RV to pulmonary trunk
143
Mitral with anterior and posterior leaflets allows flow from?
LA to LV
144
Aortic with posterior, R/L anterior semilunar valves allow flow from?
LV to ascending aorta
145
The valve leaflets are attached to papillary muscles by fibrous chords called the?
Chorda tendinae
146
Coronary blood supply is from the?
R and L coronary arteries
147
The R coronary A originates from the?
R aortic coronary sinus
148
The R coronary A runs btw the right auricle and pulmonary trunk in the?
anterior atrioventricular sulcus
149
The R coronary A gives rise to?
sinu-atrial, R marginal, post interventricular, atrioventricular arteries
150
The R Coronary A supplies?
R atrium and ventricle, 30% L atrium, SA node (55%), AV node (85%), post 1/3 of interventricular septum
151
L coronary A originates from the?
L aortic coronary sinus
152
The L Coronary A runs between the?
left auricle and pulmonary trunk
153
The L Coronary A branches into?
Circumflex, anterior interventricular (L ant descending), L margina
154
The L Coronary A supplies?
LV, 70% LA, ant 2/3 interventricular septum
155
The coronary sinus drains how much of the venous blood of the heart?
60-70%
156
The coronary sinus drains the heart via which veins?
Great cardiac, small cardiac, middle cardiac, oblique cardiac
157
The great cardiac vein accompanies the?
L ant descending A
158
the small cardiac vein accompanies the?
R marginal A
159
the middle cardiac vein accompanies the?
Posterior interventricular A
160
The anterior cardiac V opens into the?
Right atrium
161
Where is the sino-atrial node located?
Upper R atrium near opening of SVC
162
The AV node is located in?
R atrium in posteriorinferior part (Triangle of Koch - septal leaflet of tricuspid valve, opening of coronary sinus, tendon of Todaro)
163
The Bundle of His is lacated in the?
membranous part of the interventricular septum
164
Right and L bundle branches are located in?
Muscular part of interventricular septum
165
Bundle branches of the heart end as the subendocardial _______ _____
Purkinje fibers
166
The SA node is innervated by?
Cardiac plexuses w/sympathetic fibers from T1-5 sympathetic ganglia and parasympathetic fibers from CN X
167
Superficial part of cardiac plexuses receive fibers from?
superior cervical sympathetic ganglion, inferior cardiac br of the Vagus
168
Deep cardiac plexuses receive fibers from the?
superior, middle, inferior cervical sympathetic ganglia, superior and inferior cardiac br of the Vagus and br from the recurrent laryngeal N from the vagus
169
Branches of the Thoracic aorta ascending aorta
R and L coronary A
170
Branches of the Thoracic aorta from the arch of aorta
brachiocephalic trunk, L common carotid, L subclavian
171
Branches of the Thoracic Aorta from the descending part
3-11th posterior intercostals, 3 bronchial branches, 4-5 esophageal br
172
The 4 paired visceral arteries of the abdominal aorta?
inferior phrenic, middle adrenal, renal, gonadal
173
4 paired parietal br off the abdominal aorta?
1st - 4th lumbar arteries
174
4 unpaired visceral br off of ab aorta?
celiac trunk (T12), superior mesenteric A (L1), inf mesenteric A (L3), median sacral A (L4)
175
Aorta ends at L4 bifurcating into?
common iliac A which divide into internal and external iliac arteries
176
What are the branches of the anterior division of the internal iliac artery?
Superior vesical, inferior vesical, middle rectal, obturator, inferior gluteal, internal pudendal, uterine and vaginal arteries in females
177
What are the branches of the posterior division of the internal iliac artery?
Iliolumbar, lateral sacral, superior gluteal
178
What are the three branches of the external iliac artery?
Cremasteric, inferior epigastric, deep circumflex artery
179
The external iliac artery continues as _ _ beyond the inguinal ligament
femoral artery
180
What are the branches of the femoral artery?
Superficial external pudendal, deep external pudendal, superficial circumflex iliac, deep femoral (w/medial and lateral circumflex br)
181
Where can the femoral artery be palpated?
midway between the ASIS and pubic symphysis
182
When the femoral artery passes through the adductor canal it becomes the?
Popliteal A
183
Popliteal branches include?
medial and lateral superior, middle, medial and lateral inferior genicular arteries
184
The poplital arteries bifurcate into the ______ and _____ _____ arteries in the lower part of the popliteal fossa
posterior and anterior tibial
185
The posterior tibial artery leaves the popliteal fossa enters the posterior compartment of the leg and passes behind the medial malleolus to divide into?
medial and lateral plantar arteries
186
Branches of the posterior tibial artery?
posterior medial malleolar, muscular, peroneal or fibular, nutrient to tibia
187
The anterior tibial artery leaves the popliteal fossa and passes above the interosseous membrane between the tibia and fibula it enters the anterior leg compartment where it branches into?
recurrent genicular, anterior medial, lateral malleolar
188
The anterior tibial artery continues in the foot as the?
Dorsal pedis artery
189
the dorsal pedis gives off the arcuate artery which supplies?
The dorsum of the foot
190
The dorsal pedis passes through the space btw the 1st and 2nd toes to join the lateral plantar br of the posterior tibial A to form the?
Plantar arch
191
L subclavian comes off of the?
arch of the aorta
192
R subclavian comess off of the?
brachiocephalic trunk
193
The subclavian arteriess pass over the 1st rib and behind which muscle?
anterior scalene
194
Branches of the subclavian artery?
internal thoracic, vertebral, thryocervical trunk, costocervical trunk, dorsal scapular
195
Brnaches of the thyrocervical trunk?
suprascapular, inferior thyroid, transverse cervical
196
Branches of the costocervical trunk?
superior intercostal A supplies 1st and 2nd intercostal space, deep cervical
197
beond the outer border of the 1st rib the subclavian artery becomes?
Axillary artery
198
Which muscle divides the axillary artery into parts?
Pectoralis minor
199
The 1st part of the axillary artery proximal to pectoralis minor becomes the?
Superior thoracic artery
200
The 2nd part of the axillary artery beneath pectoralis minor becomes the?
thoraco-acromial and lateral thoracic arteries
201
the third part of the axillary artery distal to pectoralis minor becomes the?
subscapular, posterior and anterior circumflex humeral circumflex
202
The axillary artery becomes the brachial artery beyond the lower border of which muscle?
Teres Major
203
The branches of the brachial artery are?
profunda brachial (acc radial N), nutrient, muscular, superior and inferior ulnar collateral artereis
204
The brachial artery terminates in the cubital fossa at the level of the neck of radius and bifurcates into?
radial and ulnar arteries
205
Branches of the radial artery?
Radial recurrent, carpal, muscular, superficial Palmar arteries (RCMP)
206
Branches of the ulnar artery?
anterior and posterior ulnar collateral, common interosseous, muscular, anterior and posterior carpal, deep palmar
207
Anterior and posterior ulnar collateral anastomose with whcih branches of the brachial artery?
superior and inferior ulnar collateral branches
208
The superficial palmar arch is the continuation of?
The Ulnar artery
209
THe superficial palmar arch lies between the?
Palmar aponeurosis and digital flexor tendons
210
The superficial palmar arch is completed by which branch of the radial artery?
superficial palmar branch
211
The deep palmar arch is the continuation of which artery?
Radial
212
The deep palmar arch lies between the?
Palmar interossei and deep digital flexor tendons
213
T/F the deep palmar arch lies distal to the superficial palmar arch?
False - proximal
214
The common palmar digital arteries are derived from the arches and supply?
The fingers
215
The axillary N accompanies what in the quadrangular space?
posterior circumflex artery
216
The brachial artery is accompanied by which nerve in the arm?
median
217
the superior ulnar collateral artery accompanies what behind the medial epicondyle?
Ulnar N
218
The ulnar artery is accompanied by what structure in the forearm?
Ulnar N
219
The anterior interosseous N is accompanied by what structure in the forearm?
Anterior interosseous artery
220
The superficial radial N is accompanied by what structure in the middle of the forearm?
radial artery
221
The posterior interosseous N accompanies the posterior interosseous branch of the radial N where?
middle of forearm
222
The femoral N is accompanied by what structure in the upper thigh?
Femoral artery
223
The saphenous N accompanies what structure in the mid thigh?
Femoral A
224
The popliteal artery accompanies which N in the popliteal fossa?
Tibial N
225
The posterior tibial N accompanies what structure in the posterior leg compartment?
posterior tibial artery?
226
The anterior tibial artery accompanies the what in the anterior leg compartment?
deep peroneal N
227
The anterior part of the pituitary gland comes from what embryologic origin?
Rathke's pouch (stomodeal ectoderm)
228
The posterior part of the pituitary gland comes from what embryological origin?
Down growth of hypothalamus (neuroectoderm)
229
What feature of the sphenoid bone does the pituitary gland lie?
Sella turcica
230
The pituitary gland is covered by a fold of dura called?
Diaphragm sellae
231
The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland from rathke's pouch produces which hormones?
FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH, prolactin, GH
232
T/F the hormones from the anterior lobe of te pituitary gland are influenced by releasing factors from the hypothalamus except prolactin
True! Prolactin is influenced by prolactin inhibiting factor aka Dopamine
233
The posterior lobe stores which hormones and where are they from?
Oxytocin - paraventricular nuclei of hypothalamus
| ADH - supraoptic nuclei of hypothalamus
234
The pituitary gland is supplied by which arteries?
superior and inferior hypophyseal arteries (from internal carotid)
235
The thyroid gland comes from which embryological origin?
mesoderm from foramen cecum of the tongue
236
The thyroid gland is in which anatomical triangle?
anterior cervical triangle under SCM and infrahyoid
237
The thryoid is enclosed in a true fibrous capsule and outer false capsule from what?
pretracheal layer of deep cervical fascia
238
The isthmus of the thyroid lies over which tracheal rings?
2 - 4
239
The thyroid gland is supplied by which arteries?
Superior thyroid - from external carotid
Inferior thyroid - from thyrocervical trunk
Thyroidea ima in 3-10% population
240
The superior thyroid vein accompanies what structure?
superior thyroid artery
241
The middle thyroid vein accompanies what structure?
The inferior thyroid artery
242
The inferior thyroid vein accompanies what structure?
Trick Q! It travels alone
243
The cricothryoid muscle is innervated by?
external laryngeal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
244
Action of cricothyroid?
tenses the vocal cords
245
The recurrent laryngeal N supplies what?
Intrinsic laryngeal muscles except cricothyroid (ext laryngeal)
246
The thyroid gland is composed of follicles lined by what type of cell?
cuboidal
247
The follicles in the thyroid gland secrete what substance?
Thyroxine
248
What cells in the thyroid gland are found between follicles?
Parafollicular cells
249
Parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland secrete what substance?
calcitonin
250
The superior pair of parathyroid glands are derived from waht embryolgical origin?
mesoderm in 4th pharyngeal pouch
251
The inferior pair of parathyroid glands are derived from waht embryolgical origin?
3rd pharyngeal pouch
252
Parathyroid glands are supplied by what artery?
inferior thyroid
253
The parathyroid glands consist of what cell type?
Chief cells and oxyphils
254
The chief cells of the parathyroid gland secrete what?
PTH
255
T/F the pancreas is both an endocrine and exocrine gland
True
256
What are the embryological origins of the pancreas?
ventral and dorsal endodermal buds from foregut
257
Endocrine secretions from the islets of Langerhans beta cell (75%)
insulin
258
Endocrine secretions from the islets of Langerhans alpha cell (20%)
glucagon
259
Endocrine secretions from the islets of Langerhans delta cell (5%)
somatostatin
260
Islets of langerhans are in between the pancreatc
acini
261
pancreas weighs?
90 g
262
Pancreas has a large _____ small ______ process a short ____, a wide _____ and a long _____
head, uncinate, neck, body, tail
263
Pancreas lies in the bed of the _____ w/head in C-shaped curve of ______, body draped across the ____, _____, _____ _____ and its tail end lies n the hilum of the ______
stomach, duodenum, IVC, aorta, left kidney, spleen
264
Main pancreatic duct (of Wirsung) carries exocrine juices from what parts of the pancreas?
tail, body, neck
265
Main pancreatic duct joins w/____ ____ ___ to open nto the ampulla of Vater in man duodenal papilla
common bile duct
266
opening of main duct is guarded by a
smooth muscle sphincter (of Oddi)
267
Accessory pancreatic duct (of santorini) drains what part of the pancreas and opens ~2cm above main duodenal papilla via minor duodenal papilla
head
268
Head of pancreas is derived from which pancreatic bud?
ventral
269
Uncinate, neck, body and tail of pancreas is derived from which pancreatic bud?
dorsal
270
Blood supply to the pancreas? (3)
Superior pancreaticoduodenal A (gastroduodenal A of celiac trunk)
Inferior pancreaticoduodenal A (sup mesenteric A)
Great pancreatic A (from splenic A)
271
Adrenal gland cortex is derived from what embryo origin?
mesoderm
272
Adrenal gland medulla is derived from what embryo origin?
neural crest cells
273
The L adrenal gland is what shape and is it smaller or larger?
semilunar and LARGER
274
The R adrenal gland is what shape and is it smaller or larger?
triangular and smaller
275
Adrenal gland cortex zona glomerulosa secretes?
mineralcorticoids - aldosterone (under renin) - Salt
276
Adrenal gland cortex zona Fasciculata secretes?
glucocorticoids (under ATCH) - sweet
277
Adrenal gland cortex zona reticularis secretes?
sex hormones (from pregnenolone) - sex
278
Adrenal medulla secretes what under sympathetic control?
Norepinephrine
279
Adrenal medulla innervated by what fibers which pass through celiac ganglion?
preganglionic sympathetic fibers
280
Blood supply to the adrenal glands? (3 A)
Sup adrenal A (from inf phrenic, br of ab aorta)
Middle adrenal A from ab aorta
Inf adrenal A from renal A
281
Left adrenal vein drains into?
L renal V
282
Right adrenal vein drains into?
IVC
283
Foregut supplied by celiac trunk gives rise to what GI anatomy?
esophagus, stomach, prox 1/2 of duodenum (up to major duodenal papilla), liver, GB, pancreas
284
Midgut supplied by sup mesenteric A gives rise to what GI anatomy?
distal 1/2 of duodenum, SI, prox 1/2 LI up to prox 2/3 of transverse colon
285
Hindgut supplied by inf mesenteric A gives rise to what GI anatomy?
Distal 1/3 transverse colon to prox 1/2 of anal canal
286
Meckel's diverticulum occurs in _% of pop, is _" long, located _ ft prox to ileocecal junction, may contain _ types of ectopic tissue (gastric, pancreatic), found _X MC in males
2, 2, 2, 2, 2
287
How many quadrants of the abdomen and what are they?
2 upper - R/L
| 2 lower - R/L
288
Epigastric region of the abdomen contains?
stomach, duodenum, pancreas
289
R hypochondrium region of the abdomen contains?
liver and GB
290
L hypochondrium region of the abdomen contains?
spleen
291
Umbilical region of the abdomen contains?
SI
292
R/L flanks region of the abdomen contains?
kidneys (R/L)
293
R iliac fossa region of the abdomen contains?
appendix, R ovary, R uterine tube, cecum
294
L iliac fossa region of the abdomen contains?
L ovary, uterine tube, and sigmoid colon
295
Hypogastric/suprapubic region of the abdomen contains?
bladder and uterus
296
T7 innervates what dermatome level?
Xiphoid level
297
T10 innervates what dermatome level?
umbilical level
298
L1 innervates what dermatome level?
inguinal region
299
The anterior ab wall has 6 layers what are they?
Skin, subcutaneous tissue, muscle layer, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat pad, parietal peritoneum
300
Subcutaneous layer of ant ab wall is divided into 2 layers what are they and where do they go?
1) fatty layer (camper): cont w/fatty subcutaneous layer of the rest of the body
2) membranous layer (scarpa) in lower ab from one finger below inguinal lig (attached to fascia lata of thigh), ext medial and inf to continue w/Colles fascia in scrotum and Buck's fascia around the penis attached to base of urogenital diaphragm
301
Muscle layer of the ant ab wall lateral to linea semilunaris contains which three muscles?
ext and int oblique, transverse abdominis
302
Muscle layer of the ant ab wall medial to linea semilunaris contains which three muscles?
anterior layer of rectus sheath, rectus ab, post layer of rectus sheath
303
Ant ab wall is innervated by what nerves?
T7-11 intercostal N, T12 subcostal N, L1 iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal N
304
Rectus sheath above the arcuate line has two layers what are they and what are they made of?
1) Anterior layer: ext ob aponeurosis, ant layer of int oblique aponeurosis
2) Posterior layer: post layer of int ob aponeurosis and TA aponeurosis
305
Rectus sheath below the arcuate line has two layers what are they and what are they made of?
1) anterior layer: aponeurosis of ext ob, int ob, TA
| 2) posterior layer: deficient covered only by transversalis fascia
306
Where is the arcuate line that divides the rectus sheath?
Posterior to rectus muscle midway btw umbilicus and symphysis
307
Contents of the rectus sheath?
RA, pyramidalis (absent 15% pop), sup/inf epigastric A/V below the RA
308
Peritoneum is the _____ lining of the ab cav?
inner
309
Parietal layer of the peritoneum is or isn't sensitive to pain and is innervated by which nerves?
Is! lower intercostal and subcostal N
310
Visceral layer of the peritoneum is or isn't sensitive to pain?
Nope! but sensitive to distension
311
Ab cav is divided into to compartments what are they?
greater and lesser sacs
312
Lesser ac of ab cav lives behind what organ and opens into what via the epiploeic foramen of Winslow?
stomach, greater sac
313
Retroperitoneal structures (AC, DC, PARK AID)
Ascending colon, descending colon, pancreas, adrenals, rectum (lower 2/3), kidneys, aorta, IVC, duodenum (2-4th parts)
314
Stomach is lined with what type of epithelial cell?
Columnar
315
The stomach is covered by 3 layers of smooth muscle what are they?
outer long, inner circ, innermost ob
316
Stomach has 2 notches what are they?
cardiac and angular
317
Stomach has 2 omenta attached what are they?
greater and lesser
318
Stomach is guarded by 2 sphincters what are they?
lower esophageal and pyloric
319
Stomach has chief cells which product?
pepsinogen
320
Stomach has parietal (oxyntic) cells which produce?
Hydrochloric acid and IF
321
Blood supply to the stomach? (5 A)
L gastric from celiac trunk
R gastric from common hepatic/proper hepatic A
L gastro-epiploic A and short gastric from splenic
R gastro-epiploic (gastro-duodenal br of common hepatic A)
322
Duodenum is a __" _-shaped tube surrounding head of pancreas
10, C
323
4 parts of duodenum and length?
1st (2" long) sup part
2nd (3") descending part
3rd (4") horizontal part
4th (1") ascending part
324
Upper 1/2 (above major duodenal papilla) supplied by what BV?
sup pancreatico-duodenal A from gastro-duodenal br of common hepatic A from celiac trunk
325
Upper 1/2 (below major duodenal papilla) supplied by what BV?
Inf pancreatico-duodenal a 1st br of sup mesenteric A
326
Common bile duct of biliary tree opens into what part of the duodenum?
2nd part (descending part) 2" long
327
Super mesenteric V and A pass over what part of duodenum?
3rd part (horizontal ) (4")
328
4th part of duodenum (ascending) is cont w/jejunum @ the?
duodeno-jejunal jxn
329
Duodeno-jejunal jxn fixed and held in place by what ligament and is attached to what part of the diaphragm?
suspensory ligament of Treitz
| Right crus
330
1st " of 1st part (sup part) of duodenum is _____peritoneal?
intraperitoneal
331
2-4th parts of duodenum are ____peritoneal?
retroperitoneal
332
R and left hepatic ducts of the biliary tree combine to form?
common hepatic duct
333
Cystic duct of GB joins w/common hepatic duct to form?
common bile duct
334
The triangle btw the cystic duct, common hepatic duct and liver is known as _______'s Triangle and contains what artery?
Callot's, cystic A
335
common bile duct travel in the free edge of the lesser omentum with what two blood vessels?
Proper hepatic A and portal V?
336
Common bile duct passes through the head of pancreas and is joined by the main pancreatic duct to open into what part of duodenum?
2nd part (descending 3")
337
The gallbladder is a __cc bile-containing sac below the liver?
50
338
Gallbladder lies in a fossa in the liver between what lobes?
right and quadrate lobes
339
Parts of the gallbladder? (4)
fundus, body, neck, cystic duct (w/spiral valve of Heister)
340
Jejunum is the proximal part of the SI and is_" long in the upper ____ part of the ab and is thicker, _____ and more vascular
8, left, wider
341
The distal part of the SI is the ileum which is __" long in the lower _____ part of the abdomen and is thinner, narrower and ____ vascular
12, right, less
342
Mesentery of jejunum has large translucent windows with few large vascular _______ and fewer _____ ____
arcades, vasa recta
343
Mesentery of the ileum has small opaque windows, numerous smaller _______ an numerous short ____ ____
arcades, vasa recta
344
The ileum has numeous lymphoid aggregated called?
Peyer's patches (GALT: gut associated lymphoid tissue)
345
superior mesenteric A supplies all what parts of the intestines?
SI, LI up to prox 2/3 of transverse colon
346
Small vs large intestine characteristics
LI: haustra, teniae coli, appendices epiploica, lager diameter
SI: none of that
347
Colon parts and lengths?
```
Cecum 3"
ascending 5"
transverse 20"
descending 10"
simoid 15"
```
348
where is the appendix and what is it suspended by?
4" outpouch from posmed cecum where teniae coli meet and suspended by mesoappendix
349
65% of the time the appendix is behind the?
cecum
350
30% of the time the appendix is in the?
pelvis
351
5% of the time the appendix is either _____-ileal or ____-ileal?
retro/pre
352
The appendix is supplied by what A?
appendicular A (br of ileocecal br of the SMA)
353
Where is the base of the appendix located?
McBurey's Point 2/3 along a line from umbilicus to ASIS
354
Large intestine is derived from what embryological tissues?
Midgut and hindgut
355
Large intestine is supplied by what A?
Superior and inferior mesenteric
356
At the junction between the proximal two thirds nd distal third transverse colon there is a __________ area due to the end of the mid gut and beginning of hind gut
watershed
357
What is a watershed area?
Blood supply may be compromised during hypovolemic shock
358
Lymphatics of the colon drain first to _______ then to _______ to _________ to ___-_____ nodes close to the aorta
pericolic, paracolic, mesenteric, para-aortic
359
The sigmoid colon continues as the?
Rectum
360
The rectum is _" long and lies in the curve of the ______
5, sacrum
361
How many curves in the rectum?
3 - 2 L, 1 R
362
Lower part of rectum dilated and is called the?
ampulla
363
Upper 1/3 of rectum is covered by pelvic ________ on ant and lat sides
peritoneum
364
Middle 1/3 of rectum is covered by peritoneum only on the ________ aspect
anterior
365
Lower 1/3 of rectum has no peritoneum and is considered _____peritoneal
retro
366
Rectum is supplied by what A?
superior rectal br of inf mesenteric A
367
Rectum is derived from what embryological origin?
Hindgut
368
Rectum drains into which lymphatic nodes?
inf mesenteric
369
Rectum continues as the anal canal once it passes through the?
pelvic diaphragm
370
Anal canal is _" long and derived from what embryological origins? The junction between the origins is called the?
1.5", endoderm and ectoderm, pectineal line
371
What longitudinal folds are in the anal mucosa above the pectineal line?
Columns of Morgagni
372
Columns of Morgagni are connected inferiorly by mucosal fold called the?
Valves of Ball
373
Anorectal junction is pulled anteriorly by what muscle?
puborectalis part of levator ani
374
The internal circular sphincter of the anal canal is made up of?
smooth muscle
375
The external sphincter of the anal canal is composed of what three parts?
Deep, superficial, and submucosal and is made up of skeletal muscle
376
The external sphincter of the anal canal is supplied by what nerve?
Inf rectal br of the pudendal N
377
Pectinate line upper half is derived from what embryological origin and is it sensitive to pain?
Endoderm (hindgut) nope
378
Blood supply to the upper half of the pectinate line is from?
Inf mesenteric A
379
Lymphatics from upper half of pectinate line drain into?
inf mesenteric nodes
380
Lower half of pectineal line is deived from what embryological origin and is it sensitive to pain?
ectoderm and yes
381
Blood supply to lower 1/2 of pectineal line is the?
inf rectal br of internal pudendal A which is a br of ant division of int iliac A
382
Lymphatics of the lower 1/2 of the pectineal line drain into a lateral group of which nodes in the groin?
superficial inguinal
383
Intra-cartilaginous ossification occurs in which bones?
All long bones except the clavicle
384
Intra-membranous ossification occurs in which bones?
Clavicle, flat skull bones, axial skeleton
385
T/F The clavicle is the last bone to begin ossification and the last to completely ossify
F The clavicle is the FIRST bone to begin ossification and the last to completely ossify
386
Fibrous classifications of bone with example?
Synostosis (suture)
Syndesmosis (interosseous membrane in inf talofibular joint)
Gomophosis (tooth and tooth socket in gum)
387
Cartilaginous classifications of bone with example?
Synchondrosis (1o): growing ends of long bones
| Symphysis (2o): IVD, pubic symphysis, manubriosternal jt
388
Types of synovial joints? (6)
planar/gliding - zygapophyseal, AC
ginglymus/hinge - humero-ulnar
trochoid/pivot - medial atlanto-axial, prox radio-ulnar
condylar/ellipsoid - MCP
Sellar/saddle - 1st MCP
Spheroidal/ball and socket - hip/shoulder
389
All midline joints are 2o cartilaginous joints EXCEPT?
atlantodental - trochoid synovial and interparietal which is fibrous sutural
390
The articular surfaces of all synovial joints are covered by? Except which? What are those covered by?
hyaline cartilage
Temporomandibular, sternoclavicular, AC joints
Fibrocartilage
391
Synovial membrane lines what two surfaces?
Interior of fibrous joint capsule and non-articular surfaces of nearby bones
392
The synovium is made of which cells derived from the mesoderm?
Plump cells
393
Type A synoviocytes are what type of cell?
Macrophages
394
Type B synoviocytes secrete what fluid and what is it made up of?
Synovial fluid made up of hyaluronic acid and glycoproteins
395
Hilton's law regarding innervation of joints?
The nerve which innervates a muscle that acts on a joint, will supply the joint and an area of skin over the joint
396
Bone is made up of?
Central Haversian canals, concentric lamella, bone matrix
397
T/F Central Haversian canals are vascular
True
398
Central Haversian canals are connected by?
Volkmann's canals
399
Concentric lamellae surrounding Haversian canals are made of?
Lacunae with osteocytes
400
Lacunae in concentric lamellae are connected by what containing what for what purpose?
Canaliculi
Thin cytoplasmic strands
communication of osteocytes
401
Bone matrix is calcified intracellular material comprised of?
Osteoblasts which build bone and become osteocytes
| Osteoclasts reabsorb and remodel bone
402
The cartilage outer layer is called? And has what two structures?
Perichondrium
| Chondroblasts and blood vessels
403
Cartilage is 95% what and 5% what?
ECM of glycosaminoglycans and proteoglycans
| Chondrocytes in lacunae
404
T/F Cartilage not in the outer layer has no BV or nerves
True
405
Cartilage types?
Hyaline: most abundant, T2 fibers cover joint
Elastic: Type 2 fibers, elastin, in larynx
Fibrocartilage: dense Type 1 collagen fibers in intra-articular discs
406
```
Smooth muscle
Striated?
Shape?
Nucleus?
Voluntary or involuntary?
```
No striation
Spindle shape
Central nucleus
Involuntary
407
Skeletal muscle
Striated?
Nucleus?
Voluntary or involuntary?
X striations
Elongated nucleus
Voluntary
408
```
Cardiac muscle
Striated?
Shape?
Nucleus?
Voluntary or involuntary?
```
X striations
branches w/intercalated discs
Central nucleus
Involuntary
409
Endomysium surrounds what?
individual muscle fibers
410
Perimysium surrounds what?
Fascicle (bundle) of fibers
411
Epimysium surrounds what?
several bundles/fascicles
412
Examples of fusiform muscles?
Biceps brachii, gastrocnemus
413
Examples of parallel muscles?
RA, sartorius
414
Examples of unipennate muscles?
palmar interossei
415
Examples of bipennate muscles?
Rectus femoris, dorsal interossei
416
Examples of multipennate muscles?
Deltoid
417
Examples of circular muscles?
Orbicularis Oris, anal sphincter
418
```
TMJ
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
```
Atypical synovial
Compound hinge and gliding joint
Condyle of mandible, mandibular fossa, articular eminence of temportal bone
Elevation (temporalis, masseter, medial pterygoid) and depression (mylohyoid, digastric, lateral pterygoid) (hinge) in lower compartment and protraction (lateral pterygoid, ant temporalis, superficial masseter) and retraction (post temporalis, deep masseter) (gliding) upper compartment
Auriculotemporal, deep temporal, masseteric br of CN V3
419
```
GH Joint
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
```
```
Synovial
Ball and Socket
Glenoid Fossa and head of humerus
Flexion (pec major, ant delt), Ext (lats, teres major, post delt), int rtn (subscap, ec major, teres ajor, lats, ant delt), Ext rtn (post delt, infraspin, teres minor), adduction (pec major, teres major/minor, lats, subscap, coracobrachialis), abuction (supraspin 0-15, delts 15-90)
Axillary and suprascapular N
```
420
```
Sternoclavicular Joint
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
```
synovial w/intra-articular disc
saddle but behaves like ball and socket
manubrium of sternum and medial head of clavicle
elevation (SCM, trap), depression (pec minor, trap), protraction (pec minor), retraction (trap), circumduction (combo of above)
Medial br of supraclavicular N C3 and N to subclavius
421
```
Elbow joint
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
```
Synovial
Hinge/ginglymus
lower humerus, head of radius, trochlea of ulna
Flexion (biceps brachii, brachilis, brachioradialis), extension (triceps, anconeus)
Innervation: radial and musculocutaneous
422
```
Radio-ulnar Joints
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
```
```
synovial
Pivot/trochoid
Proximal: head of radius, notch of ulna
Distal: head of ulna and distal end of radius
Supination: biceps brachii and supinator
Pronation: pronator teres and quadratus
Median, ulnar, radial N
```
423
```
Wrist Joint
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
```
```
Synovial
Condyloid (ellipsoid)
Distal radius, scaphoid, lunate
Flexion (flex carpi radialis/ulnaris, finger flexors), Extension (extensor radialis longus/brevis, extensor ulnaris, finger extensors), adduction/ulnar deviation (flexor/extensor carpi ulnaris), abduction/radial deviation (flexor/extensor carpi radialis
Radial, median, ulnar N
```
424
```
1st MCP Jt
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
```
```
Synovial
Saddle/sellar
Trapezium and 1st metacarpal
Flexion: FPL/B, extension: EPL/B, Abduction: ab pol L/B Adduction: add pol, opposition: opponens pol
Radial and median N
```
425
```
MCP Joints
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
```
Synovial
Condyloid/ellipsoid
Head of met and base of prox phalanx
Flexion: flexor digitorum superficialis/profundus lumbricals
Extension: ext digitorum Adduction: palmar interossei
Abduction: dorsal interossei Circumduction: combo
Median, ulnar, radial N
426
```
IP Joint
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
```
Synovial
Hinge/ginglymus
Proximal and middle, middle and distal phalanges
Flexion flexor digitorum superficialis/profundus
Extension: extensor digitorum, lumbricals, interossei
Median, ulnar, radial N
427
```
Hip Joint
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
```
Synovial
Ball and socket/spheroidal
Acetabulum of os coxae and head of femur
Flexion: iliopsoas, rec fem, sartorius
Ext: glut max, semimem/ten, hamstring part adductor magnus Abduction: glut med, min, TFL
Add: add long, brevis, adductor part magnus, gracilis, pectineus, lower glut max
Int rtn: glute med/max Ext rtn: glut max, psoas, piriformis, gemelli, obturators, quad fem
Circumduction: combo of above
Femoral, obturator, N to quad fem
428
Ligaments of hip joint
One intra-articular ligament called what from transverse acetabular lig and rim of nearby acetabular notch to fovea centralis of femur and contains what A in children?
3 extra-articular ligaments where they attach and what they prevent?
Round ligament of the head of the femur
Central foveolar A
Iliofemoral from AIIS to root of femoral neck prevents hyperextension
Pubofemoral from sup pubic ramus to lower capsule prevents hyper-abduction
Ischiofemoral from ischium to post capsule prevents hyperextension
429
```
Knee Joint
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
```
```
Synovial
modified hinge/ginglymus
Lower femur and upper tibia
Flexion: biceps femoris, semitendinosus/membranosus, gastroc, sartorius, gracilis
Ext: quad fem
Med rtn: poplitues
Ext rtn of flexed knee: biceps fem
Femoral, tibial, common peroneal
```
430
Intra-articular ligaments of the knee? Origins/Insertions and preventions
Ant cruciate lig: ant intercondylar ridge to post med lateral condyle of femur prevents ant movement of tibia on femur
Post cruciate lig: post intercondylar ridge to ant lat medial condyle of femur, prevents post movement of tibia on femur
431
Extra-articular ligaments of knee? Origins, insertions, preventions
MCL: thick femur to tibia and med meniscus prevents abduction
LCL: thin femur to fibular head prevents adduction
432
Intra-articular discs of the knee? Attachments
Medial meniscus: semilunar fibrocart disc MCL to intercondylar ridge
Lateral meniscus: circular intercondylar ridge
433
```
Tib/Fib Joint
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
```
Sup synovial, inf fibrous
Sup planar, inf syndesmosis
Sup: head of fibular and upper tibia, inf: dista fib/tib
Deep peroneal N
434
```
Ankle Joint
Type?
Classification?
Bones involved?
ROM?
Muscles acting?
Innervation?
```
Synovial
Hinge/ginglymus
Lower tibia, fibula, talus
Dorsiflexion (ext): gastroc, soleus, plantaris, tib post
Plantar flexion (flex): tib ant, EHL, ext dig longus
Tibial and deep peroneal N
