Amputations and Prosthetics Flashcards

1
Q

What is a prosthesis?

A

An artificial limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the most common cause of cause of amputations?

A

Peripheral vascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is trans metatarsal amputation (Lisfranc)?

A

Partial foot amputation that preserves the DFs and PFs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a hemicorporectomy?

A

Surgical removal of both LEs and the pelvis below L4-L5 level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a hemipelvectomy?

A

Surgical removal of one half of the pelvis and LE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a hip disarticulation?

A

Amputation of entire lower limb with the pelvis preserved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a transfemoral amputation?

A

Above knee amputation with 35-60% of femoral length spared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a knee disarticulation?

A

Amputation through the knee joint, keeping the femur intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a trans tibial amputation?

A

Below the knee amputation with 20-50% of tibial length spared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a Syme’s amputation?

A

Amputation through the ankle joint where the heel pad is preserved and attached to the distal end of the tibia for weight bearing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a Chopart’s amputation?

A

Amputation through the talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints.

Preserves the plantar flexors, but sacrifices the dorsiflexors often resulting in an equinus contracture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a forequarter amputation?

A

Scapulothoracic amputation involving amputation of the UE including the shoulder girdle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a shoulder disarticulation?

A

Amputation through the shoulder joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a transhumeral amputation?

A

Above elbow amputation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a transradial amputation?

A

Below elbow amputation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is an elbow vs wrist disarticulation?

A

Amputation through the elbow or wrist joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

All prosthetic devices contain a ____ and a ____ with varying components in between.

A

Socket

Terminal device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

List 3 functions of a prosthetic socket.

A
  1. Contain the residual tissues
  2. Provide a means to suspend the prosthetic limb
  3. Transfer forces from the prosthesis to the residual limb
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Liners are used in every suspension system except _____.

A

Anatomical suction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the function of a prosthetic sock? When is the number of socks decreased versus increased?

A

Purpose: Used to accommodate changes in volume on the residual limb

Increase the # of sock plies when limb volume is decreased

Decrease the # of sock plies when limb volume is increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the purpose of a terminal device?

A

Provide an interface between the amputee’s prosthesis with the external environment

LE prosthesis TD = foot
UE prosthesis TD = hook or hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

List 5 functions of the foot ankle assembly component of a trans tibial prosthesis.

A

Absorb shock at heel strike
Plantarflex in early stance to achieve foot flat
Dorsiflexion during mid and terminal stance to store energy
Plantarflexion in pre-swing to push off
Provide cosmetic replacement of the foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the most commonly prescribed foot for a trans tibial prosthesis? What population is this commonly prescribed for?

A

Solid ankle cushion heel (SACH) foot

Used primarily in youth and more sedentary individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

List 2 functions of a SACH foot.

A

Limits plantarflexion

Assists in hyperextension of knee (knee stability) during stance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe a single axis foot.

A

Articulated foot with the lower shank

Motion is controlled by anterior and posterior rubber bumpers that limit dorsiflexion and plantarflexion

Promotes knee stability in stance phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe a multi-axis foot.

A

Articulated foot with the lower shank

Allows PF, DF, inversion and eversion to conform to uneven surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the advantages of using a spring leaf shank?

A

Decreased energy consumption due to smoother gait pattern and energy return during terminal stance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe a microprocessor foot.

A

Microcomputer control of PF and DF based on the position of the foot

Improves ability to ambulate on inclines, stairs and uneven surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

List 2 functions of a prosthetic shank.

A

Provides leg length and shape

Connect and transmit weight from socket to foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a patellar tendon bearing socket?

A

A total contact socket that allows for moderate loading over the area of the patellar tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

List the 6 pressure sensitive areas of a typical trans tibial residual limb.

A
Anterior tibial condyle
Anterior tibial crest
Fibular head and neck
Fibular nerve 
Distal cut end of tibia and fibula 
Patella
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

List the 4 pressure tolerant areas of a typical trans tibial residual limb.

A

Medial tibial plateau
Tibial and fibular shafts
Patellar ligament
Gastrocnemius muscles

33
Q

Describe a total surface bearing socket. What liner MUST be used with this type of socket.

A

Total contact socket with lower profile and rounder shape than a PTB socket for more intimate fit

Weight is borne equally throughout the socket on bones and soft tissue

Must use a gel type liner for suspension and to distribute pressures

34
Q

Describe a supracondylar socket suspension. What is the advantage of using this type of suspension?

A

Medial and lateral walls of the socket extend up and over the femoral condyles

Provides increased mediolateral stability for very short residual limbs

35
Q

What is an external suspension sleeve?

A

Neoprene type sleeve that covers the proximal socket and distal thigh to suspend the limb

36
Q

What is the most stable knee unit for transfemoral amputations?

A

Manual locking knee

37
Q

Describe a manual locking knee.

A

Lock is engaged for standing and walking, manually unlocked for sitting

Provides maximal stability for individuals with significant weakness in the LE

38
Q

Describe a microprocessor knee.

A

Knee stability in stance and ability to flex in swing are controlled electronically

Prevents knee from buckling when weighted

Can be used to ascend and descend stairs step over step

39
Q

Describe a single axis knee.

A

Allows for weight activated stance control
Permits knee motions to occur around a fixed axis
Requires an extension assist

40
Q

Describe a polycentric knee system.

A

Changing axis of motion allows for adjustments to the center of knee rotation

41
Q

Describe a hydraulic/pneumatic knee unit.

A

Adjust resistance dynamically to the individual’s walking speed

Appropriate for younger and more active individuals

42
Q

Describe single axis knees. What is needed to use a single axis knee?

A

Continous resistance is provided by a clamp that acts on the knee mechanism

Must have good hip extensor control to promote knee extension in midstance.

43
Q

What is the least stable type of knee for a transfemoral prosthesis?

A

Single axis/constant friction knee

44
Q

Describe an ischial containment socket.

A

Triangular shaped socket that holds the femur in an adducted position

Lateral wall of socket extends for proximally to provide lateral stability and to ensure the ischial tuberosity is seated within the socket for a more intimate fit

45
Q

Describe a quadrilateral socket.

A

Rectangular shaped socket with a broad horizonal posterior shelf for seating of the ischial tuberosity and gluteals

Medial and posterior walls are the same height, while the anterior and lateral walls are 2.5-3 inches higher

46
Q

Describe anatomical suction suspension. Advantages?

A

Suction is employed to maximize contact and suspension; air pumped out of one way release valve at bottom of socket

Good proprioception due to direct skin to socket total contact

47
Q

Describe silicon suction suspension. Advantages?

A

Silicone liner with either a locking pin/cuff used to maintain the prosthesis on the limb

Reduces shear within the socket and provides pressure relief for the residual limb to increase comfort

48
Q

Describe total elastic suspension. Advantages?

A

Neoprene belt is applied to prosthesis and wraps around the pelvis to anchor the prosthesis on the residual limb

Adjustable and readily accommodates to volume changes

49
Q

What is a Silesian belt? Advantages?

A

Strap that anchors the prosthesis by reaching around the pelvis (below the iliac crest)

Able to control rotation in the transverse plane

50
Q

Describe a hinge suspension. Advantages?

A

Hinged hip joint attached to metal/leather pelvic band, anchored around the pelvis

Adds control for medial/lateral stability of hip
Reduces Trendelenburg gait deviation

51
Q

What positions should be avoided following a transtibial amputation to prevent contractures? What methods can be used to counteract these contractures? (2)

A

Prolonged flexion and external rotation of the hip and knee flexion

Counteract with use of posterior board to keep knee straight while in wheelchair
Regularly scheduled time in prone lying

52
Q

What positions should be avoided following a transfemoral amputation to prevent contractures? What methods can be used to counteract these contractures? (1)

A

Flexion, abduction, external rotation of the hip

Counteract with regularly scheduled time in prone lying

53
Q

What tool does Medicare use to classify amputees based on functional ability?

A

Medicare Functional Classification Level (MFCL), also known as K levels

54
Q

What outcome measure can be used to determine a patient’s K-level?

A

Amputee Mobility Predictor (AMPPRO)

55
Q

Describe K-level 0 and the knee unit and foot/ankle assembly a patient at this level would be eligible for.

A

Prosthesis will not enhance quality of life or mobility

Knee Unit: Not eligible for prosthesis
Foot/ankle assembly: Not eligible for prosthesis

56
Q

Describe K-level 1 and the knee unit and foot/ankle assembly a patient at this level would be eligible for.

A

Transfers
Ambulate on level surfaces
Fixed cadence
Limited or unlimited household ambulator

Knee Unit: Single axis, constant friction mechanism
Foot/ankle assembly: SACH or single axis

57
Q

Describe K-level 2 and the knee unit and foot/ankle assembly a patient at this level would be eligible for.

A

Traverse low level barriers: curbs, stairs, uneven surfaces
Limited community ambulator

Knee Unit: Polycentric, constant friction mechanism
Foot/ankle assembly: Flexible keel foot or multi-axial ankle/foot

58
Q

Describe K-level 3 and the knee unit and foot/ankle assembly a patient at this level would be eligible for.

A

Variable cadence ambulator
Unlimited community ambulator
Traverse most environmental barriers
Prosthetic use beyond simple locomotion

Knee Unit: Hydraulic/pneumatic, microprocessor, variable friction mechanism
Foot/ankle assembly: Energy storing, dynamic response foot, multiaxial foot/ankle

59
Q

Describe K-level 4 and the knee unit and foot/ankle assembly a patient at this level would be eligible for.

A

Exceeds basic ambulation skills
Exhibits high impact, stress or energy levels
Typical child, athlete, or active adult

Knee Unit: Any system
Foot/ankle assembly: Any system

60
Q

List 2 pressure tolerance areas of a transfemoral residual limb.

A

Ischium

Soft tissue of residual limb

61
Q

List 6 pressure sensitive areas of a transfemoral residual limb.

A
Greater trochanter
Pubic tubercle
Pubic ramus
Pubic symphysis
Distal end of femur 
Perineum
62
Q

What is the typical wear schedule for a new amputee?

A

Wear the prosthesis at least 1 hour everyday, with 30 minutes spent ambulating

If the patient is able to tolerate wearing the prosthesis with no evidence of breakdown, an hour of wear time is added each day.

63
Q

List the appropriate widths of the ace wraps when wrapping UE versus trans tibial versus transfemoral amputations.

A

2-4 inch wrap for UE amputations
3-4 inch warp for transtibial amputations
6 inch wrap for transfemoral amputations

64
Q

What are the most common contractures for trans metatarsal/Syme’s vs, transtibial vs transfemoral amputations?

A
Transmetatarsal/Syme's = equinus deformity 
Transtibial = knee flexion contracture
Transfemoral = hip flexion and abduction contracture
65
Q

What anticoagulant is commonly prescribed to reduce risk of DVT following surgery?

A

Heparin

66
Q

List 3 interventions that can be used to help desensitize a residual limb.

A

Weight bearing
Massage
Tapping

67
Q

What is a neuroma?

A

Bundle of nerve endings that group together and can produce pain due to scar tissue, pressure from the prosthesis or tension on the residual limb

68
Q

What is a phantom limb versus pain?

A

Phantom limb = painless sensation where the patient feels that the limb is still present

Phantom pain = the patient’s perception of some form of painful stimuli as it relates to the residual limb

69
Q

List 4 prosthetic causes of a lateral bending gait deviation.

A

Prosthesis is too short
Improperly shaped lateral wall
High medial wall
Prosthesis aligned in abduction

70
Q

List 6 prosthetic causes of an abducted gait deviation.

A
Prosthesis is too long 
High medial wall
Poorly shaped lateral wall
Prosthesis positioned in abduction
Inadequate suspension
Excessive knee friction
71
Q

List 4 prosthetic causes of a circumducted gait deviation.

A

Prosthesis is too long
Excessive knee friction
Socket too small
Excessive plantarflexion

72
Q

List 4 prosthetic causes of excessive knee flexion during stance gait deviation.

A

Socket set forward in relation to foot
Excessive dorsiflexion
Stiff heel
Prosthesis is too long

73
Q

List 4 prosthetic causes of a vaulting gait deviation.

A

Prosthesis is too long
Inadequate socket suspension
Excessive alignment stability
Excessive plantarflexion

74
Q

List 4 prosthetic causes of rotation of forefoot at heel strike gait deviation.

A

Excessive toe out built in
Loose fitting socket
Inadequate suspension
Rigid SACH heel cushion

75
Q

List 3 prosthetic causes of a forward trunk flexion gait deviation.

A

Socket too big
Poor suspension
Knee instability

76
Q

List 4 prosthetic causes of a medial/lateral whip gait deviation.

A

Excessive rotation of the knee
Tight socket fit
Valgus in the prosthetic knee
Improper alignment of toe break

77
Q

What outcome measure is similar to the TUG, but is used specifically with the amputee patient population?

A

The L-Test

78
Q

What is the difference between and endoskeletal and exoskeletal shank?

A

Endoskeletal = consists of rigid pylon covered with a material designed to simulate the contour and color of the contralateral limb

Exoskeletal = consists of a rigid external frame covered with a thin layer of tinted plastic to match the skin color distally

79
Q

What is a myoelectric prosthesis?

A

A device using electromyography signals to control movements of the prosthesis with surface electrodes or implantable wires