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Pharma > All Drugs > Flashcards

All Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Name the recombinant PTH

A

Teriparatide

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2
Q

Name the calcitriol type drugs

A

Doxercalciferol
Paricalcitol
Calcipotriene

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3
Q

Which prodrug is converted to 1, 25- dihydoxy vitamin D

used in secondary hyper PTH

A

Doxercalciferol

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4
Q

Which drug is this?

analogue of calcitriol
oral for secondary hyper PTH

A

Paricalcitol

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5
Q

Which drug is this?

analogue of calcitriol
Topical

A

Calcipotriene

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6
Q

Name the non-nitrogen containing bisophosphonates

A

Etidronate
Tulidronate
Clordronate

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7
Q

Name the nitrogen containing bisphosphonates

A 
Alendronate
Risedronate
Ibandronate
Pamidronate
Zoledronate
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8
Q

Which drug is an anti-RANKL monoclonal antibody?

A

Denusumab

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9
Q

Which drug activates the CaSR leading to decreased PTH release?

A

Cinacalcet

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10
Q

Which drug accumulates in the bone and teeth and may stabilise hydroxyapatite crystals?

A

Fluoride

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11
Q

Which diuretic can be used in calcium disorders

A

Thiazides

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12
Q

Name the drug which increases osteoblast activity, promotes osteoclast apoptosis?

A

Strontium ranelate

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13
Q

Name the non-bisphosphonate drugs used in calcium disorders?

A 
Denosumab
Cinacalcet
Thiazides
Fluoride
Strontium Renelate
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14
Q

Name the GLP1 analogues

A 
Exenatide
Lixisenatide
Liraglutide
Albiglutide
Dulaglutide
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15
Q

Name the amlynn analogue

A

Pramlinitide

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16
Q

Name the ultra short acting insulin analogues

A

Insulin glulisine
Insulin aspart
Insulin lispro

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17
Q

Name the short acting insulin analogues

A

regular human insulin

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18
Q

Name the intermediate acting insulin analogue

A

NPH

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19
Q

Name the ultra long acting insulin analogues

A

Insulin degludec
Insulin determir
Insulin glargine

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20
Q

Name the first generation Sulfonylurea inhibitors

A

Tolbutamide
tolazaride
chlorpropamide

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21
Q

Name the 2nd generation sulfonylurea inhibitors

A

Glipizide
Gliclazide
Glymeperide
Glyburide

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22
Q

Name the meglitinides

A

Repaglinide

Nateglinide

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23
Q

Name the glitazones

A

Rosiglitazone

Pioglitazone

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24
Q

Name all of the antiplatlet drugs

A 
Aspirin 
Clopidogrel
Ticlopidine
Prasugrel
Cangrelor
Ticagrelor
Vorapaxar
Abcixumab
Tirofiban
Eptifibatide
Dypyridamole
Cilostazol
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25
Q

Name the thienopyridines

A 
Clopidogrel
Ticlopidine
Prasugrel
Ticogrelor
Cangrelor
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26
Q

Name the anti platelet PDEIs

A

Dypyridamole

Cilostazol

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27
Q

Name the GbIIb/IIIa inhibitors

A

Eptifibatide
Abcixumab
Tirofiban

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28
Q

Name the direct thrombin inhibitors

A

Bivalirudin
Argatroban
Dabigatran
Hirudin

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29
Q

Name the direct factor X inhibitors

A

Rivaroxaban

Apixaban

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30
Q

Name the indirect thrombin inhibitors

A

LMWH
UFH
Fondaparinux
Danaparoid

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31
Q

Name all of the non-bisphosphonate drugs used in bone pathologies?

A

Doxercalciferol
Paricalcitol
Calcipotriene
Teriperitide

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32
Q

What is the antidote for dabigatran?

A

idarucizumab

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33
Q

What is the antidote for rivaroxaban and ipixaban?

A

Idaruzizumab

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34
Q

Name the SLGT-2 inhibitors

A

Dapagliflozin

Canagliflozin

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35
Q

Name the alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

A

miglitol

Acarbose

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36
Q

Name the gliptins

A 
Alogliptin
Vildagliptin
Sitagliptin
Saxagliptin
Linagliptin
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37
Q

Name the glitazones

A

pioglitazones

rosiglitazone

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38
Q

Name the fibrinolytic drugs

A 
Staphylokinase
Anistreplase
Streptokinase
Urokinase
tPA
Alteplase
Reteplase
Tenecteplase
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39
Q

Name the short acting glucocorticoids

A

Hydrocortisone
Cortisone
Fludrocortisone

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40
Q

Name the intermediate acting glucocorticoids

A

Prednisone
Prednisolone
Methylprednisolone
Triamcinolone

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41
Q

Name the long acting glucocorticoids

A

Betamethasone

Dexamethasone

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42
Q

Name the cardiac glycosides that do not increase mortality

A

Digoxin

Digitoxin

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43
Q

How do you treat digoxin toxicity?

A

Digoxin immune fab

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44
Q

Name the SABA

A

Albuterol
Levalbuterol
Terbutaline
Fenoteral

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45
Q

Name the LABA

A 
Salmeterol
Formoterol
Chlorbuterol
Bambuterol
Indacaterol, olodaterol, vilanterol
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46
Q

What is the alpha blocker used in peripheral vascular disease?

A

prazosin

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47
Q

What are the calcium channel blockers used in PVD?

A

Cinnarizine

Bencyclane

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48
Q

What are the PDEIs used in PVD?

A

Cilostazole
Sildenafil
Tadalafil

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49
Q

Name the GnRH analogues

A 
Leuprorelin
Buserelin
Goserelin
Triptorelin
Nafarelin
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50
Q

Name the GnRH antagonists

A

Ganirelix
Abarelix
Dagarelix
Cetrorelix

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51
Q

What is the mechanism of action of 5 alpha reductase?

A

Testosterone - DHT

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52
Q

Name the steroid synthesis inhibitors

A

Ketoconazole

Abiraterone

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53
Q

Name the 5 alpha reductase inhibitors

A

Fenasteride

Dutasteride

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54
Q

Name the androgen receptor antagonists

A

Flutimide
Nilutimide
Bicalutimide

Cyproterone acetate
Spirinolactone

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55
Q

Name the natural oestrogen’s

A

Estrodial
Estrone
Estriol

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56
Q

Name the synthetic steroidal oestrogen

A

Ethinylestrodial

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57
Q

Name the SERMs

A 
Clomifen
Relaxifen
Toremifen
Tomoxifen
Estradiol
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58
Q

What is the action of aromatase?

A

Converts testosterone to estradiol

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59
Q

Name the estrogen receptor antagonist

A

Fulvestrant

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60
Q

Name the steroidal aromatase inhibitors

A

Exemestane

Formestane

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61
Q

Name the non-steroidal aromatase inhibitors

A

Anastrazole
Fadrozole
Letrozole

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62
Q

Name the morning after pill

A

Urlipristal

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63
Q

Name the antiprogesterones

A

Mifepristone

Urlipristal

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64
Q

Name the 21 c synthetic progesterones

A

Hydroxypreogesterone
Medroxyprogesterone
Drospirenone
Megestrol

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65
Q

Name the 19c synthetic progesterones

A

Norethisterone
Noretynodrel
Etynodiol
Lynestrenol

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66
Q

Which xanthine derivative is used in the treatment of PVD?

A

Penthoxyphyline

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67
Q

Name the ergo line derivative used in PVD

A

Nicergoline

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68
Q

Name the ‘other’ drugs used in the treatment of PVDs

A

Vinpocetin
Niacin
Naftidofuryle

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69
Q

Name the drugs used in the treatment of varicose veins

A

Pentosan polysulfate sodium
Rutoside
Diosmin

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70
Q

Name the vasodilatory tissue agents

A

Alprostadil

Iloprost

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71
Q

Name the endothelin receptor antagonists

A

Bosentan
Ambrisentan
Macitentan

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72
Q

Name the 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor

A

Zileutan

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73
Q

Name the CysLT1 Receptor antagonists

A

Montelukast

Zafirlukast

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74
Q

Name the degranulation inhibitors

A

Cromolyn

Nedocromil

75
Q

Name the anti-IgE antibody

A

Omalizumab

76
Q

Name the anti-IL-5 antibody

A

Reslizumab

77
Q

Name all of the centrally acting anti-tussive agents

A 
Codeine 
Dihydrocodeine
Narcotine
Ethylmorphone
Butamirate
Dextromethorphan
78
Q

Name all of the opioid derived centrally acting anti-tussive agents

A

Codeine
Dihydrocodeine
Narcotine
Ethylmorphine

79
Q

Name the non-opoid derived centrally attire anti-tussive agents

A

Butamirite

Dextromethorphan

80
Q

Name the peripherally acting anti-tussive agents

A

Prenoxdiazine
Levodopropizine
Local Anesthetics e.g., lidocaine
Secretolytic expectorants

81
Q

Name the secretolytics

A 
Saponines
Guajacol
Guafenisin
Essential oils
iodine salts
Ammonium chloride
82
Q

Name the mucolytics

A

Bromhexine
Acetylcysteine
Dornase alpha

83
Q

Name the first generation H1 antagonists

A 
Dimetindene
Dyphenhydramine
Chloropyramine
Promethazine
Cyproheptadine
84
Q

Name the systemic second generation H1 antagonists

A 
Cetirizine
Levocetirizine
Loratidine
Deloratidine
Fexofenadine
85
Q

Name the topical second generation H1 antagonists

A 
Azelastin
Ketotifen
Emedastine
Olopatadine
Ledoxamide
86
Q

Name the drugs used in hyperthyroidism

A

Iodide
Propylthiouracil
Methimazole

87
Q

Name the drugs used in hypothyroidism

A

Levothyroxine

Liothyronine

88
Q

Name the oral monophonic Estrogen + progestin combination

A

Estrogen - ethinylestradiol
Progestin:
Pregnans: Chlormadinone, drospirenone
Gonans: levonorgestrel, desogestrel, gestodene

89
Q

Name the oral biphasic estrogen + progestin combination

A

Ethinylestradiol + levonorgestrel + desogestrel

90
Q

Name the triphasic oral estrogen + progestin combination

A

Ethinylestradiol + Levonorgestrel + gestodene

91
Q

What is the progestin alone ‘mini pill’

A

Norethindrone or norgestrel

92
Q

Name the parenteral depot contraceptives

A

Medroxyprogesterone acetate

93
Q

Name the estrogen + progestin contraceptive patch

A

Ethinylestradiol + norelgestromin

94
Q

Name the SC contraceptive implant

A

Norgestrel

95
Q

Local contraceptives :

Name the intrauterine device hormone

Name the vaginal ring

A
  1. levonorgestrel

2. Ethinylestradiol + etonorgestrel

96
Q

Name the somatostatin analogues used in acromegaly

A

Octreotide

97
Q

Name the D2 receptor agonists used in prolactinoma

A

Cabergoline

Bromocriptine

98
Q

Name the ADH analogue

A

Desmopressin

99
Q

Name the 2 posterior pituitary hormones

A

Oxytocin

Vasopression (ADH)

100
Q

Name the sublinguially administered nitrates

A

Nitroglycerin

101
Q

Name the oral or transdermally administered nitrates

A

Isosorbide mononitrate

Isosorbide denitrate

102
Q

Name the drug used in angina treatment that alters metabolism

A

Trimetazidine

103
Q

Name the drug used in the treatment of angina that works by decreasing HR

A

Ivabradine

Ranolazine

104
Q

Name the vibrates

A

Gemfibrazil

Fenofibrate

105
Q

Name the nicotinic acid derivative used in antilipidemia

106
Q

Name the bile acid binding resins

A

Cholestyramine

Colesevelam

107
Q

Name the apo B100 inhibitor

A

Mipomersen

108
Q

Name the MTP inhibitor

A

Lomitapide

109
Q

Name the HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

A 
Simvastatin
Atorvastatin
Rosuvastatin
Lovastatin 
Fluvastatin
Mevastatin
110
Q

Name the drug which inhibits intestinal absorption of phytosterols and cholesterols

111
Q

Name the spasmolytic drugs

A 
Baclofen
Diazipan
Tizanidine
Tolperosone 
Dantrolen
BT
Mephenisin
Guaphenisin
112
Q

Name the indirect sympathomimetics (releasers)

A 
Amphetamine
Methamphetamine
Tyramine
Ephedrine 
Norpsuedoephedrine 
Methylfenidate
Dexmethylfenidate
Modanifil
113
Q

Name the indirect sympathomimetic reuptake inhibitors

A

Cocaine
TCA e.g., amitryptiline and desipramine
SSRI/NSRI/DNRI

114
Q

Name the MAO inhibitors

A

Tranylcypromine
Phenelzine
Selegiline
Moclobemide

115
Q

Name the selective alpha 1 agonists

A

Phenylephrine
Methoxamine
Midrodrine

116
Q

Name the selective alpha 2 agonists

A

Clonidine
Alpha-methyldopa
Tizanidine
Guaficine

117
Q

Name the drugs acting on the Imidazoline receptors

A

Moxonidine

Rilmenidine

118
Q

Name the non selective alpha antagonists

A

Phenoxybenzamine
Phentolamine
Tolazoline

119
Q

Name the selective alpha 1 antagonists

A 
Prazosin
Doxazosin
Terazosin
Tamulosin
Alfusosin
Uripidil
Carvedilol
Labetalol
120
Q

Name the selective alpha 2 antagonists

A

Yohimbine

Mirtazipine

121
Q

Name the beta blockers that also have alpha 1 blocking activity

A

Carvedilol

Labetalol

122
Q

Name the local anaesthetics

A 
Cocaine
Procacine
Benzocaine
Lidocaine
Prilocaine
Bupivacaine
Ropivacaine
Mepivacaine
Atricaine
123
Q

Name the ester local anaesthetics

A

Cocaine
Procaine
benzocaine

124
Q

Name the amide local anaesthetics

A 
Lidocaine
Prilocaine
Bupivacaine
Mepivacaine
Ropivacaine
Atricaine
125
Q

Name the agents stimulating cholinergic pre synaptic stimulation

A

4 aminopyradine
Increased EC Ca2
alpha-iatroxin
Stimulation of presynaptic stimulatory receptors (e.g., M1)
Inhibition of presynaptic inhibitory receptors

126
Q

Name the agents inhibiting cholinergic pre synaptic stimulation

A 
Vesamicol
Botulinum toxin, conotoxin 
NMJ - tetracycline and aminoglycoside
Stimulation of pre-synaptic inhibitory receptors 
Hemicholinium
127
Q

Name all of the direct acting cholinomimetics

A 
Ach
Bethanacol
Methenacol
Carbachol
Cevimiline
Varenicline
Pilocarpine
Lobeline
Archoline
Muscarine
Nicotine
128
Q

Name the indirect cholinomimetics

A 
Reversible: 
Edrophonium
Physostigmine
Rivastigmine
Neostigmine
Distigmine
Pyridostigmine 
Irreversible: 
Organophosphates
129
Q

Name the drug used for the regeneration of Ach Esterase

A

Pralidoxime

130
Q

Name the drug used in cholinomimetic overdose

131
Q

Name the cardio selective beta blockers

A 
Atenolol
Acebutolol 
Betaxalol
Bisprolol
Celiprolol
Esmolol
Metoprolol
Nebivolol
132
Q

Name the b2 selective b blocker

A

Butaxamine

133
Q

Name the non selective b blockers

A 
Carteolol
Nadolol
Penbutol
Propanalol
Pindolol
Timolol
Sotalol
134
Q

Name the b blockers that have mixed alpha and beta blocking effects

A

Carvedelol

Labetalol

135
Q

Which b blocker is a racemic mixture and also causes NO release?

136
Q

Name the ACEIs

A 
Captopril
Fosinopril
Zofenopril
Perindopril
Enalopril
Lisinopril
Ramipril
137
Q

Name the ACEIs that are NOT prodrugs

A

Captopril

Lisinopril

138
Q

Name the ARBS

A 
Lososartan
Eprosartan
Valsartan
Candersartan
Irbesartan
Telmisartan
139
Q

Name the K sparing diuretics

A 
Spirinolactone
Eprenelone
Amiloride
Triemterene 
Demeclocycline
Li salts
Conivaptan
Tolvaptan
140
Q

Name the osmotic diuretics

A

Mannitol
Urea
Isosorbide
Glycerol

141
Q

Name the K sparing diuretics which act via Enac inhibitor

A

Amiloride

Triemterene

142
Q

Name the K sparing diuretics which act by inhibiting the aldosterone receptor

A

Spirinolactone

Eprenelone

143
Q

Name the K sparing diuretics that work by inhibiting the actions of ADH

A

Demeclocycline
Li salts
Conivaptan
Tolvaptan

144
Q

Name the extra renal diuretics

they don’t affect the tubular function but they increase GFR

A 
Water
Alcohol
Digitalis
Low dose dopamine
Colloid
145
Q

Name the loop diuretics

A

Furosemide
Bumetanide
Ethacrynic acid
Toresemide

146
Q

Name the CA inhibitors

A

Dorzolamide
Acetazolamide
Brinzolamide

147
Q

Name the thiazides

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

148
Q

Name the direct acting vasodilatory agents used in HTN that are NO mediated

A

Hydralazine

Nitrosodium

149
Q

Name the vasodilators that are K channel stimulants

A

Monoxidil

Diazoxide

150
Q

What drugs are used in pre-existing HTN in pregnancy

A

Methyldopa

Labetalol

151
Q

What drugs are used in new onset HTN in pregnancy (pre-eclampsia)

A

Labetolol

Hydralazine

152
Q

Name the class 1 calcium channel blockers (non-selective)

A

Verapomil

Gallapomil

153
Q

Name the class 2 calcium channel blocker (non-selective)

154
Q

Name the class 3 calcium channel blockers (selective)

A 
Nifedipine
Nocardipine
Nemodipine
Nitrendipine
Nosoldipine
Folodipine 
Isradipine
Amlodipine
Licidipine
Lercanidipine
Manidipine
155
Q

Which drug is used as hormonal replacement in male sexual activity

A

Testosterone undecanoate

156
Q

Name the local anaesthetics which are esters

A

Cocaine
Procaine
Benzocaine

157
Q

Name the local anaesthetics which are amides

A 
Lidocaine
Prilocaine
Ropivacaine
Bupivacaine
Mepivacaine
Atricaine
158
Q

Name the local anaesthetic which is also a class Ia antiarrhytmic

159
Q

Name the local anaesthetic which is used in dentistry

160
Q

Name he local anaesthetics which are used for surface anaesthesia

A

Benzocaine

161
Q

Name the local anaesthetic which are used for infiltration and peripheral nerve block

A

mepivacaine

Atracaine

162
Q

Name the local anaesthetics which are used for spinal anaesthesia

A

Prilocaine
Bupivacaine
Ropivacaine

163
Q

Name the systemic anti-inflammatory agents used in the treatment of asthma

how are they administered?

A

methylprednisolone
prednisone

oral or iv

164
Q

Name the local anti inflammatory agents used in the treatment of asthma or COPD

how are they administered?

A

Beclamethasone
Fluticasone
Budesinide

Inhaled

165
Q

Name the positive ionotropic agents

A 
Dopamine
Doputamine
Milrinone
Amrinone
Thephyline
Aminophyline
166
Q

Name the drugs used in mineral corticoid therapy

A

Aldosterone
Deoxycortisone
Flurdrocortisone

167
Q

Name the antimuscarinic drugs

A 
Atropine
Scopolamine
Homotropine
Benztropine
Ipratropium
methylalatropine
Tiatropium
Procyclidin
Biperidin
Tropicamide
Pirenzipine
Tolterodine
Oxybutynin
Solifenacine
Darifenacine
Propathaline
168
Q

Name the natural tertiary muscarinic blocking drugs

A

Atropine
Scopolamine
Homotropine
Benztropine

169
Q

Name the natural quartenary muscarinic blocking drugs

A

Ipratropium
methylalatropine
Tiatropium

170
Q

Name the synthetic muscarinic blocking drugs with a tertiary amine

A 
Procyclidin
Biperidin
Tropicamide
Pirenzipine
Tolterodine
Oxybutynin
Solifenacine
Darifenacine
171
Q

Name the synthetic muscarinic blocking drugs with a quartenary amine

A

Propathaline

172
Q

Name the 21 c synthetic progestin (pregnans)

A

Hydroxyprogesterone
Medroxyprogesterone
Drospirenone
Megestrol

173
Q

Name the 19c synthetic progestins (estrans)

A

Norethisterone
Ethyndiol
Norethynodrel

174
Q

Name the 13c synthetic progestins (gonans)

A

Desogestrel
Norgestrel
Gestodene

175
Q

Name the progestins receptors antagonists

A

Mifepristone

Urlipristal

176
Q

What are the D1 receptor agonists

A

Bromocriptine

Cabergoline

177
Q

What is the somatostatin analogue

A

Octreotide

178
Q

Name the short acting Ca channel blockers

A

Nifedipine
Nocardipine
Nimodipine

179
Q

Name the intermediate acting class 3 calcium channel blockers

A

Nitrendipine
Nisoldipine
Felodipine
Isradipine

180
Q

Name the long acting class 3 calcium channel blockers

A

Manidipine
Amlodipine
Lacidipine

181
Q

Name the vasodilators which are alpha blockers

A

hydralazine

Nitroprusside sodium

182
Q

Name the vasodilators which cause activation of the ATP dependent K channel

A

Minoxidil

Diazoxide

183
Q

Name the thiazides

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

Bendroflumethiazide

Pharma (23 decks)

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