Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Exam Prep > AKT/KFP weak spots > Flashcards

AKT/KFP weak spots Flashcards

1
Q

Acute management of migraine.

List 6 non-pharmacological and pharmacological options.

A
  1. Advise rest in a dark, quiet place
  2. Heat pack over neck or cold pack over forehead
  3. ibuprofen 600mg STAT
  4. Metoclopramide 10mg oral STAT
  5. Paracetamol 1g STAT (2nd line)
  6. rizatriptan 10mg oral or sublingual wafer STAT (2nd line)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name 2 specific treatments for new diagnosis of pernicious anaemia

A
  1. Hydroxocobalamin 1mg IM second daily for 2 weeks, then every 2-3 months for maintenance
  2. Oral iron supplementation equivalent of 100-200mg elemental iron daily
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name 6 risk factors for urinary tract malignancy in the setting of haematuria

A

Age >50
Smoking history - current or past
Irritative LUTS
History of gross haematuria
History of chronic UTI
History of pelvic irradiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What 3 investigations are required in persistent macroscopic haematuria if UTI is excluded?

A

CT IVP - urinary tract malignant mass
3x urine cytology - malignant cells
Referral to urologist for cystoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

You have a suspected measles case in your room. List 6 immediate next steps in management.

A
  1. Isolate patient in single room with airborne precautions
  2. Arrange urgent measles investigations: nasopharyngeal PCR and measles IgG/IgM
  3. Notify local public health department
  4. Perform contact tracing on any exposures in the clinic
  5. Inform any close contacts to be alert to symptoms for 18 days post exposure
  6. Leave any exposed room vacant for 2 hours post exposure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which drugs improve outcomes in HFrEF? Name 4

A

ACEI/ARB
beta blockers (carvedilol, bisoprolol, metoprolol succinate)
spironolactone
ARNI eg. sacubitril/valsartan
- substitute for ACE/ARB if persistent symptoms with LVEF <40 despite maximal doses ACE/ARB and beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some non pharmacological management options for heart failure? List 7

A

Salt restriction <2g sodium daily
Tailored exercise program with physio
Refer to multidisciplinary heart failure disease management program
Immunisation - flu, pneumococcal
Fluid restriction to 1.5L daily
Daily weights monitoring
VicRoads notification for conditional license

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What questions on history would you ask to elicit symptoms of OSA? List 7

A

Loud snoring
Witnessed apnoea
Unrefreshing sleep
Excessive daytime sleepiness
Poor concentration
Low mood
Weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does STOPBANG stand for?

A

S - snoring loudly
T - tried, fatigued
O - observed apnoeas
P - pressure (hypertension)
B - BMI >35
A - age >50
N - neck circumference >40cm
G - male gender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are some general measures for OSA? List 7

A

Weight reduction 5-10% if overweight
Refer to dentist for mandibular advancement splint
Smoking cessation
Good sleep hygiene
Avoidance of alcohol/illicit drugs
Intranasal corticosteroids
Positioning - side sleeping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the main differentials for thyrotoxicosos? List 8 (4 common, 4 uncommon)

A

Most common:
Graves’ disease
Toxic multinodular goitre/Toxic adenoma
Postpartum thyroditis
Exogenous thyroid hormone

Less common:
Painless sporadic thyroiditis
Painful subacute thyroiditis (De Quervain’s)
Thyrotoxic phase of Hashimoto’s
Amiodarone-induced thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are 4 situations in which a GP may share medical information about an adolescent to a 3rd party?

A

Patient consents to release of information
Disclosure to another health professional for the purpose of ongoing medical care
Mandatory disclosure required under law eg. Subpoena
High risk of threat to self or others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Your patient is diagnosed with bipolar 1 disorder. What are 6 features of long term management?

A

Psychoeducation around mania, signs of deterioration and relapse prevention
Discuss importance of medication adherence
Advise to avoid recreational drug use
Refer to psychologist
Educate on community support services such as lifeline
Recommend 30 minutes exercise daily 5 days per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

List 8 contraindications (UKMEC 4) to COCP

A

Current breast cancer
First 6/52 postpartum if BF
migraine with aura
PMHx IHD/TIA/stroke
PMHx VTE
35+ smoking >15 cigarettes daily
Htn SBP > 160
Major surgery with prolonged immobilisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

List 6 circumstances requiring expert clinical judgement for prescription of COCP (UKMEC 3)

A

BMI >35
T2DM with micro/macrovasc complications
Multiple RF for CVD
gallbladder disease
First degree relative VTE <45y
<6/52 postpartum and not BF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List 5 storage symptoms for LUTS

A

Urgency
Daytime frequency
Nocturia
Incontinence
Abnormal bladder sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

List 6 voiding symptoms of LUTS

A

Slow stream
Intermittent stream
Hesitancy - difficulty initiating stream
Straining to void
Terminal dribble
Dysuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

List 4 indicators of good asthma control

A

Daytime symptoms <2 days per week
Need for SABA reliever <2 days per week
No limitation of activities
No nocturnal/early waking symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

List 6 causes of jaundice in babies 24 hours - 14 days old (nil Ix required unless red flags)

A

Physiological jaundice
Dehydration/insufficient feeding
Sepsis
Haemolysis
Breastmilk jaundice
Bruising / birth trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

List 5 causes of jaundice in babies >2 weeks

A

Sepsis
Haemolysis
Dehydration/insufficient feeding
Breastmilk jaundice
Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List 5 investigations for jaundice in a neonate > 2 weeks

A

SBR (conjugated/unconjugated)
FBE, blood film and reticulocytes
TFTs
Group and DAT
LFTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

List 6 causes of conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia in a neonate

A

Neonatal hepatitis
Biliary atresia
Choledochal cyst
Bile plug
Metabolic eg alpha 1 anti trypsin
Drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What 3 serological test constitute diagnostic panel for HBV?

A

HBsAg - active infection acute or chronic
Anti-HBs - immunity, vaccination or past infection
Anti-HBc - infection, past or current

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Name 5 features of an innocent murmur in a baby

A

Grade <2 intensity (soft)
Softer when sitting vs supine
Short systolic
No radiations
Musical/vibratory quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

List 4 aspects of management for scabies

A

ivermectin 200mcg/kg po with fatty food. Repeat in 7 days
OR
Permethrin 5% cream top, leave on for 8 hours. Repeat in 7 days.
Empirically treat all family members
Hot wash all clothes, towels, bedding >60C or store in sealed bag for 7 days
Notify school
Return to school when 2 treatments complete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

List 6 contraindications to systemic MHT (oestrogen)

A

Age 60+
Previous VTE
Previous TIA, stroke or AMI
Uncontrolled htn
Oestrogen-dependent cancer
Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

List 7 risk factors for endometrial cancer

A

Oligomenorrhoea
PCOS
FHx endometrial or colon cancer
Use of unopposed oestrogen/tamoxifen
Age >45
ET >12mm pre-menopause, or >5mm in perimenopausal
Obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

List 6 clinically-determined high risk CVD factors

A

Diabetes and >60 years
Diabetes with microalbuminuria
CKD stage 3a (eGFR <45) or worse
Systolic BP >180 or DBP > 110
Total cholesterol > 7.5
ATSI >74

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

List 4 aspects lifestyle management advice for cardiovascular risk modification

A

Smoking cessation
Nutrition - avoid saturated and trans fats, increase omega 3 consumption, salt <4g daily
Limit EtOH to no more than 10 STD/weeks and no more than 4 in any one day
30min moderate intensity exercise on at least 5 days of the week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does CHA2DS2VA stand for?

A

C - CCF
H - hypertension
A2 - >75
D - diabetes
S2 - previous stroke, TIA, VTE
V - vascular disease: MI, PAD
A - >65

> 2 = start anticoagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

List 5 aspects of management for peripheral arterial disease

A

Graduated walking program
Attention to foot care
Smoking cessation
Statin therapy
ACE inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

List 5 differentials for restrictive impairment on spirometry

A

Pulmonary fibrosis
Neuromuscular disorders
Congestive cardiac failure
Sarcoidosis
Obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

List 5 causes of obstructive defect on spirometry

A

COPD
asthma
Bronchiectasis
Cystic fibrosis
a1-antitrypsin deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

List 6 co-morbidities that affect asthma control or increase the risk of exacerbations

A

Allergic/non allergic rhinitis
GORD
obesity
COPD
Smoking
Mental health issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

List 5 elements of an individualised written asthma action plan

A

Usual preventer and reliever regimen
How to recognise symptoms of deterioration
When to start or change reliever/preventer therapy
When to start oral steroids
When to seek medical attention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

List 4 indicators for hospitalisation in pneumonia

A

Confusion
RR >20
SBP <90 or DBP <60
Age >65

1/4 = 3% mortality
2/4 = 8% mortality
3/4 = 20% mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

List 6 features of venous disease on examination

A

Varicose veins
Peripheral oedema
Venous ulcer
Haemosiderin pigmentation
Atrophie Blanche
Lipodermatosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

List 7 aspects of management for a venous leg ulcer

A

Refer to vascular surgeon for consideration of intervention
Compression stockings up to 40mmHg if no concurrent peripheral arterial disease
Adequate nutrition for wound healing
Pain management with analgesia
Leg elevation
Regular ankle exercises / structured exercise program
Skin care for venous dermatitis with daily paraffin emollient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

List 3 aspects of non-pharmacological management for restless legs syndrome

A

Rule out secondary causes: anaemia, iron deficiency, uraemia, hypothyroidism
Maintain ferritin >50 with oral supp
Pre-bedtime walking or calf stretches
Sleep hygiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

List 6 warning signs for inflammatory bowel disease

A

Rectal bleeding
Unexplained weight loss
Abdominal mass
Nocturnal symptoms
Severe perianal pain or discharge
Arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

List 4 aspects of scabies management

A
  1. Ivermectin 200mcg/kg po. Rpt 7 days
  2. Empirical treatment of family members
  3. Wash family’s clothes and bedding in hot cycle >60C or store in sealed bag
  4. Notify school
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

List 5 differentials for hair loss in women?

A

Female pattern hair loss
Telogen effluvium
Alopecia areata
Tinea capitis
Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

List 5 aspects of management for nappy rash

A

Hydrocortisone 1% BD 7-14 days
clotrimazole 1% top BD
Use highly absorbent nappies
Apply a thick layer of barrier cream at every nappy change
Allow as much nappy-free time as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

List 4 aspects of management of asymptomatic carotid artery stenosis

A

Commence aspirin
Commence statin
CVD risk modification
Refer to vascular surgeon if stenosis >70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

List 4 aspects of management for mallet finger (rupture of extensor tendon +- avulsion fracture of distal phalanx)

A

Analgesia
Immobilisation of DIP in full extension with a splint, leaving PIP free
Refer to hand surgeon within 7 days
Conservative management: splint for 6-12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

List 6 features on history of lichen sclerosus in men

A

Burning sensation
Bleeding
Fissuring
Painful urination
Painful erections
Painful sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

List 5 features of borderline personality disorder

A

Self harm
Chronic suicidal ideation
Poor self image
Turbulent interpersonal relationships
Fear of abandonment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Describe 5 aspects of appropriate initial management of burns

A

Cool running water for 20 minutes
Analgesia
Clean wound with normal saline
Remove all loose and non viable skin/tissue
Debride blister if >2.5cm or over joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Describe the clinical features of each type of burn

A

Epidermal:
- painful, red, intact epidermis

Superficial dermal:
- blistered, painful, pale pink/red, brisk cap refill

Mid dermal:
- sluggish cap refil, dark pink/red

Deep dermal:
- deep red or white, dull sensation, severely delayed or absent cap refill

Full thickness:
- no sensation, no cap return, leathery, white/black/yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

List 4 pathology findings that suggest alcohol use disorder

A

Macrocytosis MCV > 96
Elevated GGT
AST/ALT ratio >1.5
BAC >0.05%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

List 7 common presenting symptoms of breast cancer

A

New breast lump
Breast thickening or ridge
Breast or nipple asymmetry
Skin changes eg. Dimpling, redness
Nipple changes
Nipple discharge
Unilateral breast pain

52
Q

List 5 indications for referral to a breast surgeon for a new breast symptom

A

Any component of triple test is positive
Incomplete cyst aspiration
Spontaneous unilateral nipple discharge >60
Eczematous changes of nipple/areola persisting >2/52 despite treatment
Inflammatory breast conditions not resolving after 2/52 of abx

53
Q

What is test of cure surveillance after a high-grade cervical abnormality is treated?

A

Co-test (HPV + LBC) 12 months post treatment, and annually thereafter until 2 consecutive negative co-tests. Then return to 5 yearly screening

54
Q

What are the Ottawa ankle rules for ankle XR in ankle injury?

A

Pain in malleolar zone PLUS any of:
- tender posterior aspect of distal 6cm lateral malleolus
- tender posterior aspect of distal 6cm medial malleolus
- inability to weight beat 4 steps immediately after injury and in the room

55
Q

What are the Ottawa ankle rules for foot XR post ankle injury?

A

Pain in mid foot PLUS any one of:
- tenderness at navicular bone
- tender base of 5th metatarsal
- inability to weight bear at least 4 steps immediately after injury and in the room

56
Q

How do you assess osteoporosis risk in patients >70 with no history of minimal trauma fracture?

A

DEXA spine and proximal femur
If T score < -2.5, TREAT
If T score >-2.5, estimate absolute fracture risk
If 10 year fracture risk >3% hip or >20% any site: TREAT

57
Q

List 6 major risk factors for osteoporosis

A

Premature menopause
Hypogonadism
Rheumatoid arthritis
CKD
chronic liver disease
Steroids >7.5mg/day >3mo

58
Q

How do you assess osteoporosis management after minimal trauma fracture?

A

If hip/vertebral # - TREAT + baseline DEXA

Any other site:
- T score < -1.5 - TREAT
- T score > -1.5 - refer metabolic bone clinic

59
Q

List the diagnostic criteria for complex regional pain syndrome

A
  1. Continuing pain disproportionate to inciting event
  2. At least 3/4 symptoms of: sensory, vasomotor, oedema, motor dysfunction
  3. At least 2/4 signs of: sensory (hyperalgesia), vasomotor (temp or skin colour asymmetry), oedema, motor (decreased ROM, weakness, tremor)
60
Q

List 3 options for emergency contraception and their timeframes

A

Levonorgestrel 1.5mg within 4 days
Ulipristal 30mg within 5 days
Copper IUD within 5 days

61
Q

List 6 non pharmacological measures for BPSD

A

Identify and reduce triggers for aggression
Anxiety management eg. Reassurance
Provide calm, low stimulus environment
Simplify instructions in clear, concise manner
Offer positive reinforcement
Provide familiar environment
Time orientation aids eg. Whiteboard routine

62
Q

List 5 non-pharmacological management steps for severe croup

A

Allow child to sit in position of comfort
Minimise handling
Allow carer to remain with child
Keep child calm with TV or reading
Reassure parents on cause and usual course of croup to relieve anxiety

63
Q

Your patient’s follow up CST after 12 months returns a second positive HPV non 16/18 result. List 3 indications for direct referral to colposcopy

A

> 50y
Aboriginal / Torres Strait Islander
Overdue for screening by at least 2y at initial screen

64
Q

Your patient undergoes treatment of her CIN2 lesion with a LEEP procedure. What follow up does she need for test of cure?

A

Co-test 12 months post treatment
Annually thereafter until 2 consecutive negative co-tests
Can then return to 5 yearly screening

65
Q

What are 3 screening questions for falls risk?

A

Have you had 2 or more falls in the past 12mo?
Are you presenting following a fall?
Are you having difficulty with walking or balance?

If any one is positive, complete multi factorial falls risk assessment

66
Q

Describe 2 screening tests for balance deficits on examination

A

Single leg stance test: stand on one leg for 10 seconds. Repeat 3 times. Any less than 3/3 indicates significant sensory and strength impairment

Timed up and go test: stand from seated position, walk for 3m in a line, turn, return to chair and sit down. 15 or more seconds indicates high risk of falls

67
Q

List 6 non pharmacological falls prevention strategies

A

Manage incontinence
Manage visual/hearing impairment
Refer to physio for strength and balance programs
Recommend Tai Chi
Refer to podiatrist for foot care
Refer to OT for home assessment and environmental modification

68
Q

List 5 pharmacological measures for falls prevention

A

Medication rationalisation/home medication review
Reduce or cease psychotropic medications
Review medications that may contribute to postural hypotension
Supplement vit D if low
Supplement b12 if low

69
Q

How is severity of obstruction graded on spirometry?

A

FEV1 % of predicted
mild 60-80%
moderate 40-59%
severe <40%

70
Q

List the 3 parameters of spirometry and what their uses are in interpretation

A

FEV1/FVC - determine if obstructive
FEV1 - severity of obstruction
FVC - determine if restrictive

71
Q

List 6 indications for referral to respiratory physician for asthma

A

Asthma associated with anaphylaxis
Following life threatening exacerbation
Frequent ED or urgent GP visits
Frequent exacerbations despite good lung function
Poor self management skills
Occupational asthma

72
Q

List 5 indications for referral to respiratory physician for COPD

A

Diagnostic uncertainty/exclusion of asthma
Haemoptysis
Moderate/severe COPD
Assessment for home O2
COPD <40y

73
Q

List 4 structural and 4 non structural causes of intermenstrual bleeding

A

Polyp (cervical)
Adenomyosis
Leiomyoma (fibroid)
Malignancy (cervical)

Coagulopathy
Ovulatory dysfunction
Endometrial hyperplasia/cancer
Iatrogenic (eg hormonal contraception)
Infection eg. Chlamydia

74
Q

List 4 nocturnal symptoms and 3 daytime symptoms of OSA in children

A

Nocturnal:
Snoring >3 nights per week
Restless or agitated sleep
Increased work of breathing
Pauses in breathing or gasping

Daytime:
Excessive sleepiness
Morning headaches
Poor school functioning/behavioural

75
Q

List 5 neurological differential diagnoses for muscle weakness

A

Multiple sclerosis - sensory, eye, cerebellar
Cervical myeloradiculopathy - pain
Chronic inflammatory demyelination polyneuropathy - fluctuating/episodic weakness
Myasthenia gravis - fatiguable weakness
Motor neurone disease - painless progressive weakness

76
Q

List 6 differentials for recurrent pregnancy loss

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome
Parental balanced chromosomal anomaly
Uterine fibroids (intramural or submucosal)
Mullerian abnormalities eg septate uterus
Hypothyroidism
Poorly controlled diabetes

77
Q

List 5 differential diagnoses for secondary hypertension

A

Bilateral renal artery stenosis
Primary aldosteronism (Conn syndrome)
Cushing’s syndrome (primary hypercortisolism)
Phaeochromocytoma
OSA

78
Q

List 5 clinical features of primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease)

A

Fatigue
Anorexia
Weight loss
Postural hypotension
Skin/mucosal hyperpigmentation

79
Q

Which viral vaccines are live in Australia (6)?

A

MMR / MMRV
varicella
Oral rotavirus
Yellow fever
Zostavax
Japanese encephalitis

80
Q

List 4 motor features of Parkinson’s disease

A

Bradykinesia
Rigidity
Resting tremor
Postural instability and gait disturbance

81
Q

List 5 investigations required for TIA <48 hours ago

A

CTB
12 lead ECG
carotid Doppler US
TTE
bloods: FBE, UEC, BSL, ESR, CRP

82
Q

List 6 features of rheumatoid arthritis on history

A

Joint pain
Joint swelling
Morning stiffness >30 minutes
Previous similar episodes
Fever
Fatigue

83
Q

List 3 features of rheumatoid arthritis on examination

A

Three or more tender and swollen joints
Symmetrical joint involvement in hands or feet
Positive squeeze at MCP or MTP

84
Q

List 6 non pharmacological features of management for rheumatoid arthritis

A

Weight control
Patient education and self management programs
Occupational therapy
Exercise - strengthening and weight bearing
Psychosocial support
Smoking cessation

85
Q

List 6 features of a nodular BCC on examination

A

Sun exposed area
Slow growing
Pearly appearance
Rolled edges
Telangiectasia
Central pit or ulceration

86
Q

List 5 features of a high risk BCC

A

> 2cm in low risk area (trunk or proximal limbs)
Any region other than trunk or proximal limbs
Poorly defined borders
Recurrent lesion
Aggressive growth pattern

87
Q

Lost 5 management options for superficial low risk BCC

A

Imiquimod 5% cream top nocte 5 nights per week for 6/52
Excision with 3-4mm margin
Cryotherapy
Curettage and cautery
Photodynamic therapy

88
Q

List 5 goals of treatment for lichen sclerosus

A

Relieve symptoms of pruritis, pain and fissuring
Return skin to as normal texture as possible
Improve sexual function
Prevent further anatomical destruction
Monitor for malignant transformation (vulval SCC)

89
Q

List 9 diagnostic criteria for borderline personality disorder

A

At least 5 of:
Paranoid ideation
Abandonment - frantic efforts to avoid
Self image instability
Suicidal behaviour/self mutilation (recurrent)
Turbulent interpersonal relationships
Impulsivity - sex, spending, substance use
Mood cycling/affective instability
Emptiness - chronic
Anger - inappropriate and intense

90
Q

List the diagnostic criteria for PTSD

A

> 1 month after traumatic event of:
Intrusive symptoms eg. Memory, dreams, flashbacks
Avoidance of stimuli eg. Thoughts, reminders
Hyperarousal / reactivity

Causing distress or functional impairment

91
Q

List the DSM criteria for generalised anxiety disorder

A

> 6mo excessive worry and anxiety most of the time, with 3 or more of:
- restlessness
- fatigue
- difficulty concentrating
- irritability
- muscle tension
- sleep disturbance

Causing distress or functional
Impairment

92
Q

List the criteria and recommended screening for women at moderately increased risk of breast cancer

A

1x 1st deg <50y
2x 1st deg same side
2x 2nd deg same side, 1 <50y

Annual mammo from 40
Clarify risk stratification with online tool
Consider referral to familial cancer clinic

93
Q

List criteria for moderate risk of colorectal cancer (1-4% 10 year risk) and recommended prevention

A

1x 1st <55y
2x 1st deg
1x 1st deg and 1x 2nd deg

iFOBT 2 yearly 40-49
Cscope 5 yearly 50-74
LDA at least 2.5 years age 50-70

94
Q

List criteria for high risk (>4% 10 year risk of CRC) and recommended prevention

A

At least 3x 1st deg
At least 3x 1st/2nd deg, 1<55y

iFOBT 2 yearly age 35-44
Cscope 5 yearly age 45-74
Referral to familial cancer clinic for genetic risk assessment

95
Q

List 5 differentials for painless, monocular vision loss

A

CRVO
CRAO
Retinal detachment
Vitreous haemorrhage
Optic neuritis
Giant cell arteritis

96
Q

List 4 findings of poorly controlled hypertension on fundoscopy

A

Papilloedema
Haemorrhage
Silver wiring
AV nipping
Hard exudates (cholesterol/lipid deposits)

97
Q

List 5 findings of diabetic eye disease on fundoscopy

A

Cotton wool spot
Hard exudates
Proliferative vessels around disc
Microaneurysm
Haemorrhage

98
Q

List 8 differentials for unilateral painful red eye

A

Corneal foreign body
Corneal abrasion
HSV keratitis
Bacterial keratitis (contact lenses)
Marginal keratitis (ocular rosacea)
Viral conjunctivitis
Episcleritis (assoc inflammatory disorder)
Acute closed angle glaucoma

99
Q

List 5 contraceptive options for women over 50

A

Mirena IUD
Implanon
POP
Copper IUD
Barrier contraception

100
Q

List 3 pieces of advice for women over 50 on progesterone contraception

A

Continue contraception until age 55 if still bleeding
If amenorrhoeic for at least 12mo and FSH >30, cease contraception in 12mo
If FSH <30, continue contraceptive and recheck in 12mo

101
Q

List 5 clinical features of a SUFE

A

Hip pain, groin, thigh or knee pain
gradual onset of symptoms >3 weeks
Limp
Leg length discrepancy
Obligatory external rotation during hip flexion

102
Q

Describe features and management of mallet finger injury

A

Forced flexion of extended finger
Fixed flexed position
No active DIP extension
Splinting neutral/slight hyperextension 6-8 weeks
Follow up hand surgery clinic

103
Q

Describe 5 features of a pulled elbow

A

Toddlers or young children
Sudden longitudinal pull or axial traction on arm in extension
Partial subluxation of radial head
Arm held in mid prone position in front of chest
Pain with supination/pronation

104
Q

List the DSM criteria for bipolar I disorder

A

Manic episode
- persistent elevation, expansive, irritable
- increased goal directed activity
lasting >1 week, present most of the day every day

PLUS 3 of:
Distractibility
Insomnia
Grandiosity
Goal-directed activity
Impulsivity
Talkative ++

Causing marked functional impairment

105
Q

List the DSM criteria for bipolar II disorder

A

Hypomanic episode (lasting at least 4 days)
Not severe enough to cause functional impairment
No psychosis

106
Q

List 4 positive signs of psychotic disorders

A

Hallucinations
Delusions - persecutory, paranoid, grandiose
Impaired insight
Disorganised thinking and speech

107
Q

List 5 negative symptoms of psychotic disorders

A

Lack of motivation
Poor self care
Blunted affect
Reduced speech
Social withdrawal

108
Q

List 5 differentials for psychotic symptoms

A

Brief psychotic disorder (positive signs <1mo)
Schizophreniform disorder (<6mo)
Substance induced psychosis - positive signs <1mo
Schizophrenia (>6mo)
Schizoaffective disorder - prominent mood symptoms

109
Q

List 5 features of SCC in situ / Bowen disease

A

Slowly expanding
Well demarcated
Erythematous Scaly plaque
Ulceration
Sun exposed areas

110
Q

List 5 topical field treatments for small, well-demarcated SCC in situ

A

Fluorouracil 5% topical twice daily for 2-4 weeks
Imiquimod 5% topical 5 nights per week for 6 weeks
Photodynamic therapy
Cryotherapy
Curettage and cautery

111
Q

List 6 risk factors for cutaneous SCC

A

Advancing age
Male
PMHx other skin cancer
Actinic keratoses
Outdoor exposure
Smoking

112
Q

List the diagnostic criteria for CKD

A

eGFR <60 (x3 occasions) for >3mo
OR
At least 3mo of
- albuminuria (2/3 elevated urine ACR)
- haematuria after exclusion of urological causes
- structural abnormality
- pathological abnormality on biopsy

113
Q

List 7 risk factors for CKD

A

T2DM
hypertension
Cardiovascular disease
BMI > 30
Smoking
ATSI >30
Age >60

114
Q

List 6 potential cofounders for a raised urine ACR

A

UTI
high dietary protein intake
Heart failure
Recent heavy exercise
Menstruation/Genital discharge
Recent use of NSAIDs

115
Q

List the stages of CKD

A

Stage 3a eGFR 45-59
Stage 3b eGFR 30-44
Stage 4 eGFR 15-29

116
Q

List 6 non pharmacological management options for CKD

A

S - smoking cessation
N - Limit salt <6g daily
A - standard
P - standard
I - flu and pneumococcal
E - kidney health australia number, CKD Go! App
C - no driving limitations
C - advanced care plan
Refer to pharmacist for HMR

117
Q

List 4 specific treatment goals for CKD

A

Limit salt intake <6g (1 tsp) daily
Aim BP <130/80
Aim BMI <25
50% reduction in urine ACR

118
Q

List 4 common underlying causes of CKD

A

Diabetes
Glomerulonephritis
Hypertension
Polycystic kidney disease

119
Q

List 6 investigations for determining underlying cause of CKD

A

FBE
CRP/ESR
fasting lipids
hba1c
Urine microscopy for dysmorphic red cells
Renal tract ultrasound

120
Q

List 7 medications that should be withheld on sick days if inadequate fluid intake in CKD

A

SUF
ACE
Diuretics
Metformin
ARB
NSAIDs
SGLT2i

121
Q

List indications for referral to nephrologist in CKD

A

eGFR <30
Persistent albuminuria urine ACR >30
Sustained decrease eGFR >25% in 12mo
Sustained decrease in eGFR 15 per year
CKD with hypertension despite 3 agents

122
Q

List 7 elements of multidisciplinary management for COPD

A

Physio for exercise training and pulmonary rehab
OT for home modification and adaptive equipment
Speech path for swallowing training to avoid aspiration
Psychologist for depression
Pharmacist for HMR and inhaler technique education
Dietician for nutritional support
ACAS for cleaning assistance, MOW

123
Q

List 7 risk factors for glaucoma

A

Increasing age
Elevated or fluctuating IOP
Family history
Diabetes
Steroid use
Hypertension
Myopia

124
Q

Describe the difference between wet and dry macular degeneration

A

Dry
- gradual deterioration in unilateral or bilateral vision
- increasing difficulty with reading or driving

Wet
- acute loss of central vision with metamorphopsia
- urgent referral to ophthal
- potential for rapid progression and irreversible damage

125
Q

List 7 clinical features of acute angle closure glaucoma

A

Ocular pain
Peri-conjunctival redness
Blurred vision
Mid-dilated, non reactive pupil
Hazy iris
Firm orbit to palpation
Nausea/vomiting

126
Q

List 5 non pharmacological management options for dry eyes

A

Apply regular ocular lubricants
Treat blepharitis
Optimise mebomian gland function with warm compresses
Modify environment to decrease tear evaporation eg. Increase humidity, reduce screen time, conscious blinking
Review exacerbating medications eg. Antihistamines, beta blockers, TCAs, SSRI

127
Q

List 4 features of cataracts

A

Loss of visual acuity
Loss of contrast sensitivity
Glare around lights at night
Monocular diplopia

Exam Prep (28 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions