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ATS/AIS > Air Traffic Services > Flashcards

Air Traffic Services Flashcards

1
Q

Define prohibited area

A

A designated area in which aircraft are prohibited from flying

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2
Q

Define restricted area

A

A designated area in which conditional restrictions apply. Only aircraft meeting said conditions are permitted to fly.

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3
Q

Define Danger Area

A

An area in which operations which could be dangerous to aircraft are occurring.

No clearance required to enter.

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4
Q

In which classes of airspace is a separation service provided to IFR aircraft?

A

Class A
Class C
Class D
Class E

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5
Q

What determines the size of a sector?

A

Amount of traffic.

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6
Q

What classes of airspace would a Tower administer and what determines the class?

A

Class C - Major aerodromes
Class D - Regional aerodromes.

Determined by the type of flying activity that takes place at the aerodrome.

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7
Q

Which of the following aircraft has priority over the other?

  1. Mercy Flight
  2. An Aircraft carrying a Head of State
A

Mercy Flight

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8
Q

Which of the following aircraft has priority over the other?

  1. An aircraft subject to unlawful interference
  2. A muti-engine aircraft with one engine failed
A

An aircraft subject to unlawful interference

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9
Q

Which of the following aircraft has priority over the other?

  1. An aircraft involved in SAR operations
  2. An aircraft suffering radio failure
A

An aircraft suffering radio failure

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10
Q

Which of the following aircraft has priority over the other?

  1. A landing aircraft
  2. A departing aircraft
A

A landing aircraft

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11
Q

Which of the following aircraft has priority over the other?

  1. An aircraft taking off
  2. A taxiing aircraft
A

An aircraft taking off

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12
Q

In which classes of airspace do VFR aircraft require an airways clearance allowing them to operate?

A

Class C
Class D

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13
Q

Which aircraft are allowed to operate without a radio and in which classes of airspace?

A

VFR in Class G

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14
Q

What have control area steps been designed to accommodate with regard to aircraft flight profiles?

A

The climb and descent profile of common transport aircraft.

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15
Q

Which class of airspace is uncontrolled?

A

G

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16
Q

Which of the following aircraft has priority over the other?

  1. An aircraft suffering radio failure
  2. A multiengine aircraft with one aircraft shut down but not subject to a SAR phase
A

A multiengine aircraft with one engine shut down but not subject to a SAR phase

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17
Q

Under what circumstances may an aircraft communicate on frequency other than that for the airspace in which they are operating?

A

In certain aspects of SAR alerting services.

When approved to leave the frequency.

When significant operational advantage will be gained and workload communications and equipment capabilities permit the responsible Controller to take such action as is necessary to preserve separation (if required).

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18
Q

Which key areas of responsibility form the primary purpose of the Network Coordination Centre (NCC)?

A
  1. Airspace Management
  2. Aeronautical Information Management
  3. Business Continuity and Reporting
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19
Q

What is NOTAM?

A

Notice to Airmen.

These are issued by Airservices and contain ‘information or instructions concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to persons concerned with flight operations.’

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20
Q

What is ATIS?

A

Automatic Terminal Information Service

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21
Q

What is AERIS?

A

Automatic En Route Information Service

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22
Q

Who has the responsibility of distributing relevant information to foreign NOTAM Offices with which Australia has formal exchange agreements?

A

The Notam Office (NOF) of the NCC

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23
Q

How can pilots request an Aeronautical Information Service on ATS HF and VHF frequencies?

A

By contacting FLIGHTWATCH

24
Q

Once a flight notification is lodge, whose responsibility is it?

A

The Briefing Office of the NCC

25
Q

When a Flight Notification fails automated system checks what occurs?

A

It is manually processed

26
Q

When a Flight Notification passes automated system checks what occurs?

A

A Flight Plan is generated.

27
Q

Through what channels can pilots access pre-flight information?

A
  1. Internet - Pilots can access NAIPS through the Airservices website Pilot Briefing Page.
  2. Facsimile - Weather and NOTAM information can be accessed using the AVFAX service.
  3. Telephone - Weather information can be accessed through METBRIEF.
  4. ATC - Pilots can access pre-flight information from ATC through FLIGHTWATCH
  5. ERSA contains essential pre-flight information for the Australian FIR
28
Q

Through which channels does Airservices receive Flight Notifications?

A
  1. Internet - Pilots can access NAIPS through the Airservices website Pilot Briefing page
  2. Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunications Network (AFTN) - Flight Notifications can be lodged by operators connected to the AFTN by means of electronic messaging.
  3. Fax - A Flight Notification form can be faxed to the briefing office.
  4. ATC - When other options are not available pilots may lodge a Flight Notification on VHF and HF ATC frequencies.
29
Q

True or false. Each airspace sector may consist of several classes of airspace.

A

True

30
Q

Explain the key aspects of Class A airspace.

A
  • Aircraft operating under IFR only
  • All aircraft require ATC clearance
  • All aircraft must positively separated
31
Q

Explain the key aspects of Class C airspace.

A
  • Located around major aerodromes
  • Aircraft operating under VFR, IFR & Special VFR permitted.
  • All aircraft require a clearance.
  • IFR aircraft must be separated from all other aircraft
  • VFR aircraft must be separated from IFR aircraft
  • Special VFR aircraft must be separated from Special VFR aircraft
32
Q

Explain the key aspects of Class D airspace

A
  • Regional/Metro D Aerodromes
  • Aircraft operating under IFR, VFR & Special VFR permitted.
  • All aircraft require a clearance
  • IFR are separated from all other aircraft
  • VFR are provided only with a traffic information service
  • Special VFR aircraft are separated from Special VFR aircraft
33
Q

What are the key aspects of Class E airspace?

A
  • Both IFR and VFR aircraft permitted
  • IFR require a clearance
  • VFR do not require a clearance
  • IFR separate from IFR
  • IFR provided traffic information re VFR
  • VFR provided traffic information if in receipt of a SIS (on request service, workload permitting)
34
Q

What are the key aspects of Class G airspace?

A
  • Uncontrolled - no clearance required
  • Both IFR & VFR aircraft permitted
  • IFR aircraft need to lodge a flight plan to receive directed traffic information on each other
  • VFR aircraft receive only Flight Information Service. Surveillance Information Service on request, workload permitting.
  • No controller separation
35
Q

In general, who has priority in a section of airspace?

A

The first airspace user able to use the airspace.

36
Q

From highest to lowest priority, give the exceptions to the first user airspace priority rule.

A
  1. Aircraft in an emergency - priority in all circumstances
  2. Aircraft lost an engine not declared emergency - shall be granted priority for landing
  3. Aircraft with radio failure - priority for landing
  4. Aircraft participating in SAR or MEDEVAC or FFR - priority as necessary
  5. Police aircraft operating under POLAIR RED or FEDPOL RED
  6. Aircraft involved in transport of Heads of State or of certain dignitaries, or Australian Prime Minister or Governor General
  7. State aircraft special requirement flights where clearance has been prearranged.
37
Q

What will overrule all other rules regarding priority in aviation?

A

Safety

38
Q

How is responsibility transferred between controllers?

A
  1. Prior coordination
    - Transfer jurisdiction of flight plan at boundary
    - New controller accepts jurisdiction
    - Advise aircraft to contract new frequency
  2. Hand-off jurisdiction
  3. Transfer the aircraft to the next controller’s frequency
39
Q

What is a Flextrack?

A

An optimised track published by an air navigation service provider and available to all users for a specified period of time.

40
Q

How is the Flextrack to be used on any particular day determined?

A

Determined by the Trackmaster at the NCC and disseminated over the AFTN by means of a Track Definition Message (TDM).

The TDM will include:
- message formatting info
- track identifier
- validity period
- track description
- RMK section

41
Q

How is responsibility for control of a flight determined?

A

By the airspace that the aircraft will fly in and the radio frequency it is on.

42
Q

What are the elements of transferring responsibility of control?

A
  1. Prior Coordination - this involves calling the next controller and advising position/level/boundary estimate of aircraft.
  2. Hand-off of jurisdiction - automated in ATC centres
  3. Transfer - instructing the aircraft to call the next controller
43
Q

When should prior coordination be completed?

A

When the aircraft is at least 15 minutes away from the airspace boundary.

44
Q

Outline the conditional status levels of restricted areas.

A

RA1: Pilots may flight plan through the Restricted Area and under normal circumstances expect a clearance from ATC.

RA2: Pilots must not flight plan through the Restricted Area unless on a route specified in ERSA GEN FPR or under agreement with the
Department of Defence, however a clearance from ATC is not assured. Other tracking may be offered through the Restricted Area on a tactical basis.

RA3: Pilots must not flight plan through the Restricted Area and clearances will not be available

45
Q

What are ATS routes designed to facilitate?

A

The most direct available routing, whilst maintaining separation of aircraft.

46
Q

True or false. Airspace design often incorporates strategic separation.

A

True

47
Q

Define SID

A
  • A published IFR departure comprising obstacle clearance data to the minimum safe altitude and tracking data until the aircraft reaches a specified point on its Air Traffic Control cleared route
48
Q

Define SID - Radar

A

A published ground radar-based IFR departure comprising standard climb gradient data to minimum safe altitude while being radar vectored by ATC.

49
Q

Define STAR

A

A published IFR arrival route which links the en route airways system to a fix at or near the destination aerodrome.

50
Q

Where can SID and STAR information be found?

A

DAP East & West

51
Q

What are user preferred routes?

A

Off Air Routes (OAO) which are produced by airlines to capitalise on the best commercial operation model.

These take into account:
- flight characteristics of each aircraft
- meteorological conditions
- time
- cost
- fuel/greenhouse gas emissions

52
Q

Above what threshold do airlines see to benefit from a UPR?

A

Three hours.

53
Q

What kinds of OAO does Airservices currently facilitate?

A
  1. Flextracks
  2. Approved direct non charted route segments
  3. User Preferred Routes
54
Q

What are the minimum requirements for aircraft to use OAO?

A
  • RNAV10/RNP10 approval
  • HF communications
55
Q

Which navigation aid is used to measure distance from a point?

A

DME - Distance Measuring Equipment

Note, measures the slant, not the horizontal.

56
Q

Which navigation aid can be used to identify direction from the station?

A

VOR - VHF Omnidirectional Range

57
Q

What are the two suites of navigation equipment?

A

GNSS - Global Navigation Satellite System

SCNS - Self Contained Navigation Systems

ATS/AIS (10 decks)

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