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ATS/AIS > Aerodrome Control > Flashcards

Aerodrome Control Flashcards

1
Q

How many towers are there in Australia?

A

29

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2
Q

What are the types of tower?

A
  1. Radar: Generally capital city aerodromes. Host the majority of RPT flights. Most traffic is jet and turboprop aircraft.
  2. Procedural: Generally located at regional centres. Currently have no access to surveillance for separation purposes. All traffic must be separated using visual or procedural methods. Provide their own approach service.
  3. Metro D: General aviation aerodromes in capital cities. Usually see light aircraft operations such as pilot training, although there are also jet turbo-prop and piston charter flights. Usually fall within the approach airspace of a capital city aerodrome and have a small area of Class D airspace.
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3
Q

What information must ATC provide when an aircraft wishes to enter an aerodrome’s circuit?

A
  1. Altitude at which to enter
  2. Route instructions/clearance limit
  3. Landing information (ATIS or voice)
  4. Significant traffic information
  5. Essential airfield information
  6. A position at which the aircraft pilot is to report for further instructions.
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4
Q

What is the ABN?

A

The Aerodrome Beacon

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5
Q

What does the ABN do?

A

Highlights the serviceability and location of the aerodrome

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6
Q

From where must the ABN be visible from?

A

A distance of 8km between the heights of 1000 - 5000 ft.

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7
Q

When is the aerodrome beacon operated?

A

At night and during conditions of reduced visibility by day, whilst the ATS unit is open.

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8
Q

Where are stop bars fitted and who are they controlled by?

A

At locations where there is an increased risk of runway incursion.

Stop bars are controlled by the Aerodrome Controller (ADC).

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9
Q

When may an aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area proceed past stop bars?

A

When a clearance to enter or cross the runway has been received AND the stop bar lights have been switched off.

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10
Q

What factors are taken into consideration in runway selection?

A
  • Type of aircraft
  • Effective length of runway(s) or direction
  • Wind velocity
  • Weather phenomena, including wind gradient, wind shear, wake turbulence effects and position of the sun
  • In near minima conditions, availability of approach aids
  • Disposition of other traffic
  • Taxiing distances
  • Braking action
  • If workload and/or traffic conditions permit, implement ‘preferred runway’ systems in certain win conditions to:
    —– Provide the optimum traffic management configuration; and
    —–Comply with noise abatement procedures.
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11
Q

True or false. Selection of runway in use may have implications for neighbouring aerodromes.

A

True

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12
Q

What is LAHSO?

A

Land and Hold Short Operations.

LAHSO allows for simultaneous arrivals and departures on intersecting runways on the provision that both pilots are aware that the procedure is in use and are qualified to be an Active or Passive participant.

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13
Q

What conditions are LAHSO subject to?

A
  • Simultaneous Take-off & landing can occur during the day only.
  • The wind for either runway must not exceed
    —– 20KT crosswind
    —– 5KT tailwind on dry runway
    —– no tailwind when the runway is not dry
  • Runways must be equipped with standard LAHSO signs, lights and runway markings as specified in AIP
  • Cloud ceiling is not less than the highest sector minimum vectoring altitude (MVA), as specified in local instructions, within 8KM (5NM) of the aerodrome and visibility not less than 8KM
  • Ground based visual or electronic glide slope is available for active participant
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14
Q

At what speed will wind prevent LAHSO?

A
  • 20KT crosswind
  • 5KT tail wind on a dry runway
  • Any tailwind when the runway is not dry.
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15
Q

When must low visibility procedures be implemented?

A
  1. When an instrument approach will take place when the ceiling or visibility is less than the precision approach Cat 1 minima for the runway being used
  2. When a take-off operation will take place when the RVR/RV is less than 550m for the runway being used.
  3. When, for a runway without precision approach, the RVR/RV is 800m or less, or the ceiling is 200ft or less.
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16
Q

What is ACD, and what is it responsible for?

A

Airways Clearance Delivery

Issues the airways clearance, transponder code, departures or other airborne frequency as necessary.

Issues the Pre-Departure Clearance (PDF)

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17
Q

What does the Coordinator do?

A

Assists both the Surface Movement Controller (SMC) and Aerodrome Controller (ADC) to ensure safe orderly traffic flow.

Electronically co-ordinates pending departures in EUROCAT, maintains the Aerodrome Terminal Information Service (ATIS) in consultation with both ADC and SMC, coordinates RWY changes, significant weather changes and essential aerodrome information with adjacent units.

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18
Q

What is the SMC?

A

Surface Movement Controller

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19
Q

What is the SMC responsible for?

A

Responsible for the manoeuvring area, but not the apron, or the runway in use.

Provides clearances to enter the area, as well as information about other aircraft moving on the apron.

20
Q

What is the Aerodrome Controller responsible for?

A

Providing ATC services to aircraft on the manoeuvring areas, landing, taking off and, in the case of Metro D, in the circuit.

May use surveillance, procedural or visual standards to maintain separation.

21
Q

What does the close proximity of aircraft at an aerodrome mean the ADC must do?

A

Make allowance for the wake turbulence generated by all aircraft when formulating their control instructions.

22
Q

When does the ADC provide take-off clearance?

A

When:

  • The aircraft is at or approaching the runway in use
  • The traffic situation permits
  • The aircraft has reported ‘READY’
  • A visual check of the take-off path has been completed
  • No obstructions of collision risk exists; and
  • There is reasonable assurance that the required separation will exist when the aircraft commences take-off.
23
Q

When does the ADC provide landing clearance?

A

When:

  • The aircraft has commenced final approach of a straight-in instrument approach or has been sighted by the tower controller:
    —– On the late downwind leg of the circuit pattern
    —– On base leg
    —– on final in the case of a straight-in visual approach;
  • a visual check of the landing path has been completed; and
  • no obstructions or collision risk exists.
24
Q

Other than landing, what does a clearance to land authorise?

A

Carry out a missed approach.

25
Q

When must ATC make directed transmissions and include windshear in the ATIS?

A

When wind shear has been reported on the approach or take-off paths or has been forecasted.

26
Q

When can the ATC cease direct transmissions regarding windshear?

A

When either two successive aircraft have failed to report shear conditions, or the expiry of the forecast period – whichever is the later.

27
Q

Who issues the PDC?

A

Airways Clearance Delivery (ACD)

28
Q

What intensities of windshear should be reported?

A

Moderate, Strong or Severe

29
Q

What colour are taxiway side lights?

A

Blue on both sides of the taxiway

30
Q

What colour are runway edge lights?

A

Generally white. However, on instrument precision runways, the lights will change to yellow and then red as the aircraft reaches the runway end.

31
Q

What aerodrome circuit leg is an aircraft flying immediately after take-off?

A

Upwind

32
Q

Are aircraft operating on the apron considered to be on the manoeuvring area?

A

No

33
Q

Under what conditions is a Pushback Clearance required?

A

Where a pushback manoevre is necessary prior to taxiing

34
Q

When issuing Push-Back approval, what traffic information should be passed?

A

Information about other aircraft moving on the same apron.

35
Q

What callsign is used by the ACD?

A

Delivery

36
Q

Name the joint civil/military facilities where the RAAF operates towers.

A
  1. Darwin
  2. Townsville
  3. Williamtown
37
Q

Do radar towers have their own airspace?

A

No. They are supported by an associated Approach service.

38
Q

What does a pushback clearance authorise?

A

Authorises an aircraft to push back on an apron, usually with the expectation that there will be little or no delay with a subsequent taxi clearance.

39
Q

What is the manoeuvring area?

A

The part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding aprons.

40
Q

Who must issue clearances and instructions to pedestrians and vehicles to enter runway strips?

A

ATC

41
Q

What are the four aircraft wake turbulence categories?

A

Super (H) or (J) - A380, AN225

Heavy (H) - All other aircraft types of 136,000 kg or more

Medium (M) - Aircraft types of less than 136,000 kg but more than 7000kg

Light (L) - Aircraft types of 7000 kg or less.

42
Q

In which direction does an aerodrome circuit typically flow?

A

Left

43
Q

When visual separation at an aerodrome is not practicable, what must an ATC use?

A

A radar or procedural separation standard.

44
Q

What impact will a change to IMC have on the rate of departures and arrivals at an aerodrome?

A

They will be slowed down as increased spacing is required.

45
Q

List and explain the legs of a circuit

A
  • Upwind - essentially the path of aircraft after becoming airborne
  • Downwind - parallel to runway travelling in opposite direction of landing/take-off
  • Base - perpendicular to runway, travelling from downwind to the final leg (.i.e towards runway)
  • Crosswind - perpendicular to runway, travelling from upwind leg to downwind leg (i.e. away from runway)
  • Final leg - where the aircraft is lined up with the runway ready to touch down.

ATS/AIS (10 decks)

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