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Module 1 Basic > Air Law > Flashcards

Air Law Flashcards

1
Q

What are SARPs/ICAO Regulations?

A

Standards And Recommended Practices.

Standard Practice- a specification, the uniform application of which is NECESSARY for the safety of regularity of international air navigation.

  • Contracting states WILL/SHALL/MUST conform to standards.
  • If impossible to comply, it is COMPULSORY to notify the council.
  • U.K. Law differences published in UK AIP, Gen 1.7

Recommended Practice- a specification, the uniform application of which is DESIRABLE in the interests of safety, regularity or efficiency.

  • Contracting states will ENDEAVOUR to conform.
  • States are INVITED to inform the council of non- compliance.

National regulations have priority over ICAO. Difference with ICAO documents are not mandatory

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2
Q

Who are ECAC?

A
  • European Civil Aviation Conference founded in 1955.
  • Promote a safe, efficient and sustainable European air transport system.
  • seek to harmonise civil aviation policies and practices among its member states and promote understanding on policy matters between its member states and other regions of the world.
  • ECAC decisions are advisory only.
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3
Q

Who are EASA?

A
  • European Aviation Safety Agency.
  • Centrepiece of the regulatory and certification system for the air transport industry in Europe.
  • The ATCO Licence is subject to approval by EASA.
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4
Q

Chicago Conference 1944

A
  • Convention on International Civil Aviation.
  • 52 states agreed to create an organisation whose purpose was to promote civil aviation safety and effectiveness.
  • Provisional International Civil Aviation Organisation (PICAO) was created based in Montreal.
  • Became ICAO in 1947.
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5
Q

How many languages are the ICAO Annexes written in and what are these?

A
  • 6

- English, French, Spanish, Russian, Chinese and Arabic

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6
Q

How many ICAO annexes are there and which 6 are most important to us?

A
  • 19
  • Annex 1 - Personnel Licensing
  • Annex 2 - Rules of the Air
  • Annex 5 - Units of Measurement to be used in Air and Ground Operations
  • Annex 11 - Air Traffic Services
  • Annex 14 - Aerodromes
  • Annex 19 - Safety Management
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7
Q

What is ICAO Doc 4444?

A
  • Air Traffic Management
  • Contains Procedures for Air Navigation Services (PANS)
  • Specifies in greater detail the actual procedures to be applied by air traffic service units in providing various services to air traffic.
  • Procedures relating to safety management of air traffic services and to air traffic flow management are included.
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8
Q

What does Article 38 of the ICAO Convention say?

A
  • States SHALL give immediate notification to ICAO of differences with international standards, procedures, regulations and practices.
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9
Q

Where are State Differences with ICAO published?

A

In the corresponding AIP for that state. In the UK this in in section GEN 1.7.

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10
Q

Who are Eurocontrol?

A
  • European organisation for the safety of air navigation founded in 1960.
  • Civil-military organisation committed to building a Single European Sky (SES) and actively supports SESAR programme
  • Implemented the Standardised European Rules of the Air (SERA).
  • Programmes included ATCO Licence, Reduced Vertical Separation, Network Management and Flexible Use of Airspace
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11
Q

Which Eurocontrol Network Manager (NM) function is most important for us to know about?

A

To carry out the Air Traffic Flow Management function (E.g. controls how many ACFT are allowed through a section of airspace in say an hour).

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12
Q

The ATCO licence is subject to approval by which organisation?

A

EASA

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13
Q

What is an ANSP?

A
  • Air Navigation Service Provider
  • Any public or private entity providing air navigation services for general air traffic.
  • Services provided at following:
  • Area Control Centre (ACC)
  • Approach Control Unit (APP)
  • Flight Information Centre (FIC)
  • Aerodrome Control Tower (TWR)
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14
Q

What types of services do ANSPs provide?

A
  • ACSMAN
  • Air Traffic Services
  • Communication Services
  • Surveillance Services
  • Meteorological Services
  • Aeronautical Information Services
  • Navigation Services
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15
Q

What document does each state produce providing the national rules for pilots, operators and ATCOs?

A

AIP

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16
Q

Which 3 main sections are contained in an AIP and which chapters in particular are important to remember?

A
  • GEN, ENR and AD
  • GEN 1 - National Regulations and Requirements
  • ENR 5 - Navigation Warnings (Prohibited, restricted and danger areas)
  • AD 2 - Aerodromes (Location indicator/name, geographical data, operational hours etc)
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17
Q

What does SARG stand for?

A

Safety and Airspace Regulation Group

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18
Q

What is an AIRAC cycle?

A
  • Aeronautical Information Regulation And Control.
  • AIRAC amendments contain operationally significant changes in information which are added to the AIP with regular revisions.
  • Single AIRAC cycle is every 28 days - more significant changes.
  • Double AIRAC cycle is every 56 days - less significant changes.
  • AIRAC amdts usually received well in advance so that users of aeronautical data can update their documentation.
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19
Q

Define Air Traffic Service

A

A generic term meaning variously flight information service, alerting service, air traffic advisory service, air traffic control service (area control service, approach control service or aerodrome control service).

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20
Q

What are the objectives of Air Traffic Services?

A
  1. Prevent collisions between ACFT.
  2. Prevent collisions between ACFT on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area.
  3. Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic.
  4. Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.
  5. Notify the appropriate organisations regarding ACFT in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organisations as required.
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21
Q

What happens to pressure with height?

A

Decreases

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22
Q

Define Level

A

A generic term relating to vertical position of an ACFT in flight and means variously height, altitude, elevation or flight level.

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23
Q

Define height. Which pressure setting would be used?

A
  • The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from a specific datum.
  • QFE
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24
Q

Define altitude. Which pressure setting would be used?

A

The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from MSL.
- QNH

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25
Q

Define elevation

A

The vertical distance of a point or a level, on or affixed to the surface of the Earth, measured from MSL.

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26
Q

Define Flight Level

A

A surface of constant atmospheric pressure which is related to a specific datum, 1013.2hPA, and is separated from other such surfaces by specific pressure intervals.

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27
Q

Describe ISA at MSL

A
  • Temperature: 15°C
  • Pressure: 1013.25 hPA = 29.92 inch HG
  • Barometric Lapse Rate: 30ft/1hPA
  • Density: 1.225kg/m^3
  • Relative humidity: 0%
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28
Q

How SHALL VFR flights be conducted above 3000ft from ground or water?

A

Above 3000ft from ground or water or a higher datum specified but the appropriate ATS authority, VFR flights SHALL be conducted at a cruising level appropriate to the track as specified in the Semi-Circular Cruising Level (SCCL) table.

29
Q

What does SERA 5005 (e) state about VFR flights?

A

VFR flights SHALL not be operated above FL285

30
Q

Define Transition Altitude (TA)

A

The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an ACFT is controlled by reference to altitudes.

31
Q

Define Transition Level (TRL)

A

The lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude (TA).

32
Q

Define Transition Layer

A

The airspace between the transition altitude (TA) and transition level (TRL).

33
Q

A flight plan SHALL be filed prior to operating… (6)

A
  • Any flight or portion thereof to be provided with air traffic control service.
  • Any IFR flight within advisory airspace.
  • Any flight within or into areas, or along routes designated by the competent authority, to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting and search and rescue services.
  • Any flight within or into areas, or along routes designated but the competent authority, to facilitate coordination with appropriate military units or with air traffic services units in adjacent states in order to avoid the possible need for interception for the purpose of identification.
  • Any flight across international borders, unless otherwise prescribed by the states concerned.
  • Any flight planned to operate at night, if leaving the vicinity of an AD.
34
Q

With regards to timings, when SHALL a flight plan be filed?

A
  • Not more than 120 hours before the estimated off blocks time.
  • For flights across international borders, at least 60 minutes before departure.
  • During flight, at a time ensuring its receipt by the appropriate air traffic services unit at least 10 minutes before the ACFT is estimated to reach:
    a) The intended point of entry into a control area or advisory area or,
    b) The point of crossing an airway or advisory route.
35
Q

What is a DEP?

A

Departure Message:

Which SHALL be transmitted immediately after the departure of an ACFT for which basic flight plan data have been previously distributed.

36
Q

What is a DLA?

A

Delay Message:

Which SHALL be transmitted when the departure of an ACFT, for which basic flight plan data (FPL or RPL) has been sent, is delayed by more than 30 minutes after the estimated off blocks time contained in the basic flight plan data.

Within Eurocontrol airspace, a delay of more than 15 minutes has to be transmitted.

37
Q

What is an ARR

A

Arrival Message:

Which SHALL be sent after landing at the destination AD:

  • To the ACC/FIC unit in whose area the arrival aerodrome is located, if required and
  • To the departure AD if requested in the FPL
38
Q

When should an ARR diversion message be sent?

A

After landing at an alternate or other AD:

  • To the ACC/FIC unit in whose area the arrival AD is located.
  • To the AD control TWR at the destination AD.
  • To the departure AD.
  • To the ACC/FIC in charge of each FIR through which the ACFT would have passed had it not diverted.
39
Q

What is a CHG

A

Modification Message:

SHALL be transmitted when any change is to be made to basic flight plan data contained in previously transmitted FPL or RPL data.

SHALL be sent to those recipients of basic flight plan data which are affected by the change

Relevant revised basic flight plan data SHALL be provided to such affected entities not previously having received this.

40
Q

What is a CNL?

A

Cancellation message

SHALL be transmitted when a flight, for which basic flight plan data has been previously distributed has been cancelled.

The ATS unit serving the departure AD shall transmit the CNL message to ATS units which has received basic flight plan data.

41
Q

Who is responsible for the following:
1 - Landing Area
2 - Manoeuvring Area
3 - Apron

A

1 - Aerodrome Controller
2 - Ground Controller
3 - Aerodrome Control Tower or a separate unit

42
Q

Give 10 examples of considerations made when selecting the RWY in use

A
  • Wind (Main consideration as ACFT prefer to land and TKOF into wind)
  • Traffic pattern
  • Length of RWYs
  • Approach aids
  • Meteorological Conditions
  • Noise Abatement
  • RWY Capacity
  • Traffic Conditions
  • Traffic Circuits
  • Adjacent Aerodromes
43
Q

What is airport capacity?

A

Maximum flow of traffic an airport can handle without causing serious inconvenience to users.

44
Q

What is approach capacity?

A

Maximum flow of traffic an approach unit can safely handle.

45
Q

What is the purpose of holding?

A

A method of delaying an ACFT:

  • If clearance limit reached with no further instructions.
  • Following a MISAP.
  • To increase traffic amount and capacity at destination.
  • Marginal weather conditions.
  • Destination blocked.
  • On request by pilot.
46
Q

Where can a holding pattern be established?

A

At:

  • Navaid
  • Intersection
  • DME fix
  • Waypoint
47
Q

Describe the ICAO standard hold in terms of turns, timing and speed.

A

Turns:

  • 25° angle of bank
  • RoT 3° per second
  • Standard right turns (can be left turns)

Timing (Outbound leg begins over or abeam fix whichever is later):

  • 1 minute at or below FL140
  • 1.5 minutes above FL140

Speeds:

  • At or below FL140, MAX 230kt
  • FL140 < Level ≤ FL200, MAX 240kt
  • Above FL200, MAX 265kt
48
Q

What are the names of the 3 sectors of entry to a hold called?

A

Sector 1 - Parallel entry
Sector 2 - Offset entry
Sector 3 - Direct entry

49
Q

What is Expected Approach Time (EAT)?

A

The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding fix to complete its approach for a landing.

50
Q

What is onward clearance time?

A

Time at which an ACFT can expect to leave a fix over which it is being held?

51
Q

If a non-published hold is to be used, what holding instructions need to be given to the pilot?

A 
F - Fix to be used
L - Level to be held at
I - Inbound magnetic track to the fix
R - Right or left turn (turn direction)
T - Time along outbound leg
E - EAT or time when when further clearance can be expected.
52
Q

Which factors affect a holding pattern?

A

Heading, speed and wind effect

53
Q

In a holding pattern, what is the heading tolerance value for the outbound leg?

A

+/-5°

54
Q

During turbulent conditions, what is the MAX speed allowed in a holding pattern?

A

280kts

55
Q

In a hold, how should pilots deal with wind effect?

A

Attempt to maintain track by applying heading and timing corrections.

56
Q

What does a holding area consist of?

A

Basic holding area and entry area

57
Q

What is a basic holding area?

A

Airspace required for holding pattern at a specific level including allowances for ACFT speed, wind effect, timing errors and fix characteristics, etc.

58
Q

What is an (holding) entry area?

A

Airspace required for entry procedure to a holding pattern.

59
Q

Whats is a (holding) buffer area?

A

Extends 5nm beyond boundary of holding area. Significant obstacles are taken into account when determining the minimum holding level.

60
Q

What is the minimum holding level?

A

Provides a clearance of:

  • 300m (984ft) above OBST in holding area.
  • 600m (1969ft) over high terrain or mountainous areas

Published MIN holding altitude shall be rounded to the nearest 50m/100ft as appropriate.

61
Q

Give 3 reasons why a VFR flight may be required to hold.

A
  • Awaiting clearance into AD traffic pattern.
  • Awaiting permission to land.
  • Awaiting clearance to enter Class B, C or D airspace.
62
Q

What are 2 possible locations a VFR flight could be asked to hold over?

A

A visual fix or abeam the RWY THR.

63
Q

What are the 4 principles of a Safety Management System (SMS)?

A
  • Monitoring overall safety levels and detection of any adverse trend.
  • Safety reviews of ATS units.
  • Safety assessments in respect of planned implementation of airspace reorganisations, introduction of new equipment systems/facilities and new or changes ATS procedures.
  • A mechanism for identifying the need for safety enhancing measures.

Note: All ATS SMS activities shall be fully documented. All documentation shall be retained for a period of time as specified by the appropriate authority.

64
Q

How long is a Class 3 Medical Certificate valid for a 30 year old ATCO?

A

24 months

65
Q

What is the minimum age for a student ATCO?

A

18

66
Q

What are the 4 conditions of validity of unit endorsements?

A
  • Applicants shall have successfully completed a unit endorsement course.
  • The MAX continuous period when privileges of a unit endorsement are NOT exercised shall not exceed 90 calendar days.
  • MIN number of hours required within 1 year to maintain validity of a unit endorsement shall be defined in the unit competence scheme (not more than 3 years).
  • ANSPs shall keep records of the hours during which each licence holder exercises the privileges of endorsements.
67
Q

What does a unit endorsement authorise the licence holder to do?

A

To provide ATC services for specific sectors and/or working positions under the responsibility of the ATSU.

68
Q 
What do the following ATC ratings stand for?
ADV
ADI
APP
APS
ACP
ACS
A 
ADV - Aerodrome Control Visual
ADI - Aerodrome Control Instrument
APP - Approach Control Procedural
APS - Approach Control Surveillance
ACP - Area Control Procedural
ACS - Area Control Surveillance
69
Q 
What do the following unit endorsements stand for?
AIR
GMC
GMS
RAD
TWR
TCL
PAR
SRA
OCN
A 
AIR - Air Control
GMC - Ground Movement Control
GMS - Ground Movement Surveillance
RAD - Aerodrome Radar Control
TWR - Tower Control (AIR and GMC)
TCL - Terminal Control
PAR - Precision Approach Radar
SRA - Surveillance Radar Approach
OCN - Oceanic Control

Module 1 Basic (12 decks)

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