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Y1 AHW > AHW > Flashcards

AHW Flashcards

1
Q

where are the most favourable conditions for grass-based dairy farms in the UK

A

the west and southwest of england and west wales

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2
Q

where do you typically find sheep farms in the UK

A

hill, upland and lowland areas- hill are hardy, thick-coated, able bodied, excellent mothers and adapted to living in harsh conditions- upland are more prolific than hill breeds ad do better on the lower, easier terrain- lowland are fast growing, have a heavier frame, and are more prolific

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3
Q

where can you typically find beef farms in the UK

A

on the foothills or upland areas and follow a similar pattern to sheep

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4
Q

where do you typically fin outdoor pig farms in the uk

A

yorkshire and Humber, in the east of england and a small area within north-east scotland

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5
Q

where do you typically find chicken farms in the UK

A

the east of england and a small area in north east scotland- most are meat birds, followed by laying hens, small percentage (8%) are other poutry

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6
Q

what is a commercial farm

A
  • the farm is their principal job and primary source of income- “professionals”, therefore often experienced and knowledgeable- will spend money when justified and for a finacial return
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7
Q

what is a small holder or hobby farm

A
  • farm as a lifestyle choice or hobby- primary income earned away from the farm- a few animals to small herds- can be very serious- often have little experience- often some emotional attachment to stock- often colect rare or unusual breeds
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8
Q

what are pet farm animals

A
  • 1/2 animals on a small holding or a “special” animal on a commercial unit- treated like pets- want (and often expect) a high-quality of service- money is often no object- often have strong emotional attachment to animals- all pertinent legislation still applies
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9
Q

what is a closed herd/flock

A
  • no external introductions to herd or flock (all replacements homebred)- stock prevented from encountering stock from a different farm
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10
Q

what are the key points of farm etiquette

A
  • maintain biosecurity- arrive hygenic
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11
Q

what are the key components of a herd health program

A
  • Increased understanding of the health of livestock on a holding, and its effects on production costs and business income- Increased earlier recognition and identification of illness, and links to changes in husbandry practices- Increased prioritisation of the risks to the health of livestock through injury, toxins and infections- A responsible approach to the use of pharmaceuticals in livestock
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12
Q

what are the 3 types of “band” of horses

A
  • harem/family (stable core of mares, 1+ stallion, immature offspring)- mare and offspring (no stallion, stick together for 6 months)- bachelor (young males, older males no longer in the harem, number will vary)
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13
Q

what is the minimum stable size for horses

A
  • 10 ft x 10 ft (3m x3m) for ponies- 12 ft x 14 ft (3.6 m x 4.2 m) for horsesroof height should be 12 ft to the eaves minimum with a pitched roofcan be made out of brick, woods or breeze blocks
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14
Q

what are the fundamentals of equine nutrition

A
  • lack of suitable diet can have a negative impact on both physical and mental health- suited to a high fibre diet- trickle feeders (designed to eat little but often and should not be left without forage for more than 3 hours)- primarily hind-gut fermenters (most digestions occurs via continual microbial fermentation in the caecum and colon)- non-ruminant herbivores- good quality forage should from the majority of diet (hay, haylage and grass)
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15
Q

give 2 examples of poisonous plants affecting horses discussed in lecture

A
  • ragwort (causes irreversible liver damage)- sycamore
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16
Q

what is the gestation of a horse

A

320-340 days

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17
Q

at what age do horses go through puberty

A

12-24 months

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18
Q

what is a filly

A

a female horse under 4 years

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19
Q

what is a mare

A

a female horse over 4 years

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20
Q

what is a colt

A

an uncastrated male horse under 4 years

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21
Q

what is a stallion

A

an uncastrated horse over 4 years

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22
Q

what is a gelding

A

a castrated male horse of any age

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23
Q

what is rig

A

a “castrated” male horse exhibiting behaviours of a stallion (usually due to hormones due to missed testicle)

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24
Q

what is the gestation of a donkey

A

340-370 days

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25
Q

at what age do donkeys go through puberty

A

12-24 months

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26
Q

what is a jenny

A

a female donkey

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27
Q

what is a jack

A

a male donkey

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28
Q

what is a mule

A

offspring from a male donkey and a female horse

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29
Q

what is a hinny

A

offspring from a male horse and a female donkey

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30
Q

what are normal TPR ranges for horses

A

P: 28-44 BPMRR: 8-16 BPMT: 37.5 C - 38.5 CMM: salmon pinkdigital pulse should be absent or weak (if present could indicate inflammation or systemic issues

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31
Q

what are normal TPR ranges for foals

A

T: 38.3 C - 38.9 CP: 60-80 BPMR: 16-24 BPM (higher in first hour after birth)

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32
Q

what are normal TPR ranges for donkeys

A

T: 37.5 - 38.5P: 32-48 BPMR: 12-24 BPM

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33
Q

What is the 5 point scale for horse BCS

A

0= very poor1= poor2= moderate3= good4 = fat5= very fat3 main areas are assessed: neck, ribs and pelvis. score for all 3 areas is added to give final score.| there is also a 9 point scale

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34
Q

what are physical attributes of a horse with a 0 BCS out of 5

A

pelvis:- angular- tight skin- sunken rump- deep cavity under tailRibs:- tight skin- very prominent ribs- sharp backboneNeck:- marked “ewe” neck- narrow- slack at base

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35
Q

what are physical attributes of a horse with a 5/5 BCS

A

hips:- Deep gutter to root of tail- skin distended- pelvis not palpableRibs: - not palpable- deep gutter along back- back broad and flatNeck:- marked crest- folds of fat

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36
Q

what are the most important equine vaccines

A
  • equine influenza (airborn!!)- tetanus- flu sometimes compulsory for comps| require annual boosters
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37
Q

what is tetanus

A
  • life threatening bacterial disease- caused by the toxin from closridium tetani bacteria
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38
Q

what is equine influenza

A
  • highly contagious viral disease- effects respiratory tract
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39
Q

what are stangles

A
  • respiratory disease- caused by the bacteria streptococcus equi- cuases swellin in the gutteral pouches
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40
Q

what is equine herpes virus

A
  • contagious respiratory virus- some strains can cause neurological disease and abortion
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41
Q

how often should horses have their feet trimed +/- shoed

A

every 4-8 weeks but frequency can depend on many factors (work level, surfaces worked on etc.)

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42
Q

how often should horses have their teeth floated

A

at least once a year- hooks rasped and general oral health assessment- equine teeth grow/erupt continuously and molars grind laterally which forms the hooks

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43
Q

how do horses learn

A
  • horses have poor short term memory but terrible long term memory. they live in the moment- learn through trial and error and must perform a task at least 3 times in order to learn it- behaviours learnt through fear are very difficult to unlearn and often can be triggered by environmental stimuli
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44
Q

what is stereotypical behaviour

A

abnormal repetitive behaviour- has no apparent function- rarely seen in wild populations- causes vary (stress, pain, maternal separation, lack of social contact, inappropriate diet/environment- cannot be learnt by watching other horses- advised not to prevent from doing this as they will most likely become more stressed and/or develope a new vice- examples include: cribbing, weaving, box walking, wind sucking

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45
Q

what are small ruminants

A

sheep, goats, deer and camelids (alpaca/llama)- all mammalia of the order artiodactyla

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46
Q

what species are sheep

A

ovis aries

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47
Q

what species are goats

A

capra aegargus hircus

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48
Q

what is tylopoda

A

padded foot

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49
Q

what are the weight ranges of border leicester sheep

A

ewes: 90-120 kgrams: 140-175 kg

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50
Q

what is the weight range of a suffolk sheep

A

ewe: 80-110 KGRams: 110-160 kg

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51
Q

what is the weight range for a dalesbred sheep

A

ewe: 45-60 kgram: 55-70 kg

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52
Q

what is the weight range for an adult dairy goat

A

female: 55-105 kgmale: 75-120 kg

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53
Q

what is the adult weight of an angora goat

A

female: 33-55 kgmale: 50-70 kg

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54
Q

what is the adult weight randge for a pygmy goat

A

female: 22-27 kgmale: 28-32 kg

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55
Q

what are the main differences between camelids and other small ruminants

A
  • apex of incisors remains oper- functionall ruminant but only have 3 compartment stomach- adapted to poor quality pasture/browse- several haemato-vascular adaptation to low oxygen availibility and low atmospheric pressure
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56
Q

what are the other names for goats, sheep, deer and alpaca/llamas

A

goat: caprinesheep: ovineDeer: cervineAlpaca/llama: camelid

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57
Q

what are saleable products of sheep

A

meat: lamb/muttonmilk: milk/cheesefibre: woolSkin: sheepskin

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58
Q

what are saleable products of goats

A

meat: kid/goatmilk: milk/cheesefibre: mohair (angora), cashmereskin: leather

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59
Q

what are the saleable products of deer

A

meat: venisonMilk: n/afibre: n/askin: skins/leather

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60
Q

what are saleable products of camelids

A

fibre: alpaca fibreskin: skins/leather

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61
Q

what is the slaughter weight of a lamb

A

40 kg

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62
Q

what is the name for any female bovine that has given birth at least once

A

Cow

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63
Q

What is the name of a cow that is kept for milk production?

A

Dairy cow

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64
Q

What is the name for any female bovine that has not given birth

A

heifer

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65
Q

What is the name for a bovine under 3 months

A

calf

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66
Q

What is the name for a male bovine under 3 months old

A

bull calf

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67
Q

What is the name for a female bovine under 3 months old

A

heifer calf

68
Q

What is the name for a dairy cow that is in the stage of their lactation cycle where milk production ceases prior to calving

A

dry cow

69
Q

What is the name for a sexually matured, entire male bovine

A

bull

70
Q

What is the name for an infertile female bovine with the characteristics of a male, born as a twin to a male

A

freemartin

71
Q

What is a generic term for animals over 3 months but not yet adults (juveniles)

A

young stock

72
Q

What is the name for a cow kept for meat production (typically culled between 12-36 months

A

beef cow

73
Q

What is the name for a cow kept to give birth and rear calves to be fattened for beef production

A

suckler cow

74
Q

What is the name for a castrated male bovine (not always reared for beef)

A

steer (or bullock)

75
Q

What is the name for a cow reared for beef which has been on a lower plane of nutrition during winter housing which will receive a period of compensatory rapid growth on grazing grass in the spring

A

store cattle

76
Q

What is the name for a calf sold at weening (6-10 months)

A

busk calf

77
Q

what breed of cow is this

A

british friesian

78
Q

what breed

A

North American Holstein

79
Q

breed

A

Jersey

80
Q

what breed

A

Guernsey

81
Q

what breed

A

ayrshire
spots jagged at edges

82
Q

what breed

A

brown swiss
pale brown to chocolate with creamy white muzzle and dark nose with dark blue eyes

83
Q

name the breed

A

Simmental
defined patches on white background, head is white, sometimes white band across shoulders

84
Q

name the breed

A

Belgian Blue

85
Q

name the breed

A

Aberdeen Angus
naturally poled

86
Q

name the breed

A

Hereford

87
Q

name the breed

A

Limousin
golden red, lighter under stomach, around eyes and muzzle

88
Q

name the breed

A

Charolais
creamy white to tan with pink muzzle and pale hooves

89
Q

name the breed

A

Belted Galloway

90
Q

name the breed

A

Welsh Black
can be either horned or polled

91
Q

at what age/weight would a dairy bull be sent to slaughter as beef

A

13-14 months or 270-320 kg

92
Q

what is the age of weening for calves

A

6 months

93
Q

what are the benefits of spring calving for beef suckler systems

A
  • the cows will calve at grass in the spring- as the sucklers are on grass already, they do not need any additional costly food (they need higher energy requirements at peak lactation and grass is suitable to this if available)- she will be dry in winter and can therefore be fed moderate quality silage indoors with no need for additional energy foods
94
Q

what are the disadvantages to spring calving for beef suckler systems

A
  • unpredictability of spring weather and lingering cold temperatures can be a problem during calving, forcing farmers to include indoor calving in unprepared or less than ideal housing- conception rates can be lower during hotter weather (usually conceive after running with the bull the previous summer)- prices of spring born calves tends to be lower than the annual average price
95
Q

at what weight is an autumn calved calf weaned

A

250-350 kg

96
Q

in spring calving herds, what would sucklers eat during peak lactation

A

grass

97
Q

what is the major drawback of autumn calving herds

A

winter rations need to be of higher quality

98
Q

order the following into fastest to least fast in terms of growth rates in beef stock- steers- bulls- heifers

A
  1. bulls2. steers3. heifers
99
Q

why is it common practice to castrate male beef cows in beef systems

A

to manage the behaviour of the bull calves

100
Q

outline the life of a dairy heifer

A
  1. after birth, the dairy heifer will typically stay with her mother for the first 24-72 hours to receive colostrum2. after this time, she will be removed from her mother and fed a milk replacer diet for the next 6-12 weeks3. at around 10-12 weeks she will be weaned. this usually occurs once she is eating at least 1 kg of solid food and has doubled her birth weight4. she is now in the non-lactating heifer phase. this will last until she is around 15 months old and at least 60% of her mature bodyweight. she will typically be fed on grass in the summer and silage with a small portion of supplementary feed in the winter5. at 15-20 months old, she will be served (typically through AI), when she is at least 60% of her mature body weight. this is around 390 kg for holstein-freisians6. She will calve her first calf after 9 months (282 days) gestation. aiming for 80% of her mature bodyweight at calving at 2-2.5 years of age. Once calved she will begin to lactate and become part of the dairy herd.
101
Q

outline the dairy cycle of a cow beginning with calving

A
  1. after calving, the dairy cow will lactate for around 10 month, reaching peak lactation at around 40-60 days in milk2. after around 3 months in milk, she will be served again and become pregnant for the next nine months3. after 10 months in milk, she will be dried off. this is where she no longer lactates and prepares for calving4. the dry period usually lasts around 6-8 weeks. at the end of this period she will calve and enter the cycle again5. typically she will continue through this cycle for 3-4 lactations. milk yield will typically increase with each lactation cycle
102
Q

infertility is a common condition seen in dairy cows. describe it

A

A multifactorial disease with many different causes each must be dealt with according its aetiology. Clinical signs and causes include abortion, endometritis (infection in the uterus), anoestrus (not cycling), cystic ovarian disease, poor conception rates.

103
Q

Mastitis is a common condition seen in dairy cows. describe it

A

A bacterial infection of the udder. Clinical signs include changes to the milk character such as watery, discoloured, or clotted milk, and swollen, enlarged or inflamed udder quarter(s), may be hard on palpation. Contagious, spread from cow to cow during milking.

104
Q

lameness is a common condition seen in dairy cows. describe it

A

A significant welfare concern comprising many different conditions which affect mobility and gait. Common causes are digital dermatitis, White Line Disease, sole haemorrhage, ulcer, interdigital necrobacillosis (Foul in the foot).

105
Q

Calf scour is a common condition seen in young calves. describe it

A

Important and common disease of young dairy and beef calves potentially resulting in death. Occurs in the first few days to months of life, caused by a variety of different organisms.Risk is enhanced through dirty, wet environments, and mixing calves from different origins. Clinical signs include profuse (often foul smelling) diarrhoea, dehydration and collapse, reduced growth rates.

106
Q

Calf pneumonia is a common condition seen in young calves. describe it

A

An important and common disease of young dairy and beef calves which occurs in the first few days to months of life and poses a significant cause of death in young calves.Clinical signs include Coughing, inappetance, dull, pyrexia, tachypnoea (rapid breathing), dyspnoea (difficulty breathing), nasal and ocular discharge, reduced growth rate.Caused by a variety of organisms of viral, bacterial and mycoplasmic origins.

107
Q
A

suffolk
The Suffolk is distinctive for its completely black face and downturned ears. The legs, also black, stand out against the single colour of its dense, white fleece.

108
Q
A

Boer

109
Q
A

Nubian

110
Q
A

Alpine

111
Q
A

Angora

112
Q
A

arabian

112
Q
A

apaloosa

112
Q
A

saddlebred

112
Q
A

thoroughbred

113
Q
A

clydesdale

114
Q
A

suffolk punch
- always chestnut

115
Q
A

shire
- always black

116
Q
A

shetland

117
Q
A

dorset

118
Q
A

saanen

119
Q
A

toggenburg

120
Q
A

paint

121
Q
A

standard bred

122
Q

list common animal charities in the UK

A
  • RSPCA
  • cats protection (rescue and rehome, neuter, education, healthcare before rehoming)
  • dogs trust
  • blue cross for pets
  • PDSA
  • battersea
  • national animal welfare trust
  • world horse welfare
  • BROOKE action for working horses and donkeys
  • mid antrim animal sanctuary
  • the donkey sanctuary
  • humane slaughter association
  • etc
123
Q

The reponsibility of owners to meet the welfare needs of the animals they keep is covered by which act of parliment

A

Animal welfare act 2006

124
Q

what influences the price farmers receive for their milk

A
  • milk volume
  • supply pattern (daily vs every other day collection)
  • milk compostition (content of milk solids such as fat and protein, hygeine, somatice cell count, bactoscan, antibiotic contamination, water contamination)
  • husbandry scores (mobility scoring, hock lesion scoring, cleanliness
  • overhead costs (fuel, feed, labour, fertiliser
  • seasonality of market
125
Q

list equine stakeholders and organisations

A
  • british equestrian veterianry association
  • RCVS
  • central equine database (info for passports)
  • DEFRA (meat trade)
  • food standards agency (meat trade)
  • pony club
126
Q

list equine legislations

A
  • welfare of farmed animals regulations 2000
  • horse passports regulations 2009
  • the animal welfare act 2006
  • the veterinary surgeons act 1966
  • the farriers’ registration act 1975/1977
  • the animal health act 1981
  • the riding establishments act 1970
  • ragwort control act 2004
  • import and export controls
  • waste managemnt environmental protection act 1990
  • waste management licensing regulation 1994
127
Q

at what age must an equine passport be issued

A

6 months old

128
Q

what are the 5 freedoms

A
  1. freedom from thirst, hunger and malnutrition
  2. freedom from discomfort and exposure
  3. freedom from pain injury and disease
  4. freedome from fear and distress
  5. freedom to express normal behaviour
129
Q
A

scottish blackface
Appearance: Despite the name, Blackface sheep have black or black-and-white faces and legs. It is a horned breed with several distinct types, the most prominent being the Scottish Blackface which is further spilt into three subdivisions of Perth, Lanark and Northumberland.

130
Q
A

welsh mountain sheep
Appearance: Of the many types of sheep referred to as a type of Welsh mountain, sheep specifically carrying the Welsh Mountain name are of moderate length and height with a broad forehead and muzzle. The face and legs are white or slightly tanned, with a black or speckled nose. The fleece is white and males can be horned.

131
Q
A

cheviot
Appearance: While there is more than one type of Cheviot sheep to have originated from the Cheviot Hills between Scotland and England, the South Country Cheviot is known for its alert appearance, distinctive white face and legs, and dense white fleece. The fleece forms a ‘ruff’ behind the ears and males are sometimes horned.

132
Q
A

Swaledale
Appearance: The Swaledale has a black face with a white muzzle and white markings around its eyes. Both ewes and rams have a set of low, round, wide horns. The fleece is coarse and varies in colour from white to grey.

133
Q
A

herdwick
Appearance: Adult Herdwick sheep are distinctive for the sharp contrast between their white faces and legs and blue-grey fleece – yet lambs are born with black wool that changes colour as they mature. The breed is sturdy and strong-boned; males can have horns.

134
Q
A

bluefaced leicester
Appearance: This breed has a characteristic Roman nose and a blue skinned head showing through white hair. It is well known for standing tall and proud with alert eyes and long upright ears.

135
Q
A

Border Leicester
Appearance: This large, hornless sheep has prominent, erect ears and a Roman nose. It has white, demi-lustrous wool on its body, but none on its face or legs.

136
Q
A

Wensleydale
Appearance: A tall, long-woolled sheep, the Wensleydale has a blue head, ears and legs that are virtually indiscernible beneath its high quality, white fleece. There is a separate section in the breed register for black Wensleydales, which come in colours ranging from jet black through to a silver grey.

137
Q
A

Romney
Appearance: This large, long-woolled breed has a broad white face, a woolly ‘top-knot’ and heavy, white fleece. Both males and females are without horns.

138
Q
A

Scotch Mule
Appearance: A medium sized sheep with a black and white mottled face and legs and a thick, creamy white fleece.

139
Q
A

greyface

140
Q
A

texel

141
Q
A

Oxford Down
Appearance: The Oxford Down is the largest and heaviest of the Down breeds. It is a bold, large-framed, upstanding sheep, with blocky conformation and a broad, deep body of good length. The poll is well covered with wool, and adorned by a ‘top-knot’ and the face is a uniform dark colour.

142
Q
A

Charollais (or British Charollais)
Appearance: The Charollais is a large, well-muscled animal. The head is pinkish with creamy/sandy hair but no wool. Animals often have a distinctive white flash above each eye. The fleece is white.

143
Q
A

Clun Forest
Appearance: The Clun Forest is a medium-sized sheep with a dark, narrow face and alert ears, dark legs and white fleece.

144
Q
A

british guernsey

145
Q
A

bagot

146
Q
A

cashmere

147
Q
A

english

148
Q
A

pygmy

149
Q
A

highland pony

150
Q
A

dales pony

151
Q
A

fell pony

152
Q
A

dartmoor pony

153
Q
A

exmoor pony

154
Q
A

connemara pony

155
Q

what is mulesing and is it legal

A

Mulesing is the removal of strips of wool-bearing skin from around the breech (buttocks) of a sheep to prevent the parasitic infection flystrike (myiasis).
it is ILLEGAL in the UK, but practiced regularly in australia. common in angorras

156
Q

what are regulations regarding identification of cattle in the UK

A

must have 2 eartags, one on each ear
- primary eartag must have crown symbol followed by UK and country code/geographic marker/herdmark number and in large print the unique animal identification number
- secondary has same requirements but can be different formats (button, metal, smaller yellow tag etc) numbers need to match on both tags

157
Q

what is the standstill rule

A

The standstill rule helps reduce the spread of infectious diseases. It applies to the movement of cattle, sheep, goats and pigs. If you move cattle, sheep, or goats on to your land from a different holding, for 6 days after you must not move off your holding any cows, sheep etc

158
Q

at what age must cattle have a passport registered

A

For cattle you must register the birth by the day the calf is 27 days old

159
Q

at what age do beef calves need to be eartagged

A

before 21 days old

160
Q

at what age do dairy calves need to be eartagged

A

You must fit the:

primary tag before the calf is 36 hours old
secondary tag before the calf is 21 days old

161
Q

what is the BCMS

A

British cattle movement service
maintains an online database of all bovine animals in Great Britain called the Cattle Tracing System (CTS).

162
Q

what are the requirements for tagging sheep

A

A pair of adult tags display:

  • ‘UK’
  • ‘0’ if the tag is an EID (electronic identification) tag
  • the 6 digit flock mark of the holding where the sheep is tagged
  • a 5 digit official identification number which is unique to the sheep
  • Lamb slaughter tags display ‘UK’ and the flock mark.

Slaughter tags have an EID chip in them, containing an official identification number for the animal. This tag can be read by an EID reader.
You must use an approved combination of 2 tags for:
- lambs under 12 months if you know they’re not intended for slaughter
- all sheep intended to be kept over 12 months old

163
Q

at what age must sheep be eartagged

A

You must tag lambs on the holding where they were born, with either one slaughter tag or 2 adult tags:
- within 6 months of birth, if you rear them indoors
- within 9 months of birth, if you rear them outdoors
- before you move them from the holding, if this is sooner

Y1 AHW (14 decks)

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