AHG Flashcards

Exam 1

1
Q

What is the main difference between the IAT and the DAT test?

A

The IAT test detect in-vitro sensitization and the DAT test detects in-vivo sensitization

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2
Q

What is the difference between polyspecific AHG and monospecific AHG?

A

Polyspecific: includes antibodies to IgG and C3d, Monospecific: only includes antibodies to either IgG or C3d

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3
Q

What is the difference between polyclonal and monoclonal antibodies?

A

Polyclonal: is a mixture of antibodies from different plasma cell clones that recognize multiple epitopes, Monoclonal: antibodies that are from one clone of plasma cells that recognize a single epitope

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4
Q

Describe the basic steps of the DAT test.

A

The patient’s RBCs (which are already coated with antibody in-vivo) are washed and incubated with antihuman antibodies (anti-IgG, anti-C3d). If agglutination occurs, then the patient’s red cells are coated with either antibodies or complement depending on which reagent gives a positive reaction.

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5
Q

What conditions have a positive DAT that this test could help diagnose?

A

Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn, Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction, Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

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6
Q

Cold autoimmune hemolytic anemias usually only react when tested with _______. (anti-IgG or anti-C3d). Why?

A

Anti-C3d. This is an indirect way of detecting IgM antibody that is bound to the red cell that has also bound complement.

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7
Q

Describe the basic steps of the IAT test.

A

Antibodies (patient plasma or antisera) is mixed with red cells (reagent/donor/patient). During incubation, the antibody forms antigen-antibody complexes if the antigen/antibodies are both present. The cells are washed and anti-IgG is added to enhance the reaction. The tube is then read for agglutination.

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8
Q

What is the purpose of washing the red cells before adding the anti-IgG?

A

Removes any free globulins to which the anti-IgG could attach.

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9
Q

What is the purpose of adding check cells to all negative reactions?

A

The check cells should agglutinate when they react with the unbound anti-IgG. If they do not agglutinate, we know that the unbound anti-IgG bound with free globulins that were not adequately washed away. Therefore, the negative reaction may have been a false negative.

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10
Q

What is the purpose of compatibility testing and which test (DAT or IAT) is performed during compatibility testing?

A

IAT, it tests patient plasma (antibodies) against the donor red cells (antigens) they are to be transfused. If agglutination occurs, then the patient has an antibody to one of the donor’s antigens and the unit is incompatible with the patient.

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11
Q

What is the purpose of the antibody screen?

A

The antibody screen is used to detect if the patient has any antibodies in their plasma. By testing against 2-3 known reagent cells, it can be determined if the patient has an additional antibody. If agglutination occurs with one of the cells, additional testing will need to be performed to identify the antibody.

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12
Q

What concentration of red cells should be used when performing the IAT or DAT test?

A

3-5%

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13
Q

Describe the postzone and prozone effects.

A

Postzone: excess antigen preventing agglutination, Prozone: excess antibody preventing agglutination

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14
Q

What is the zeta potential and how is it created?

A

Zeta potential is the difference in charge density between the inner and outer layers of the ionic cloud, it is created because red cells have a net negative charge from the sialic acid which attracts the positively charged cations to form a layer around the red cells

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15
Q

What issue does the zeta potential cause in testing?

A

Antibodies are positively charged and are repelled by the positive layer of cations around the red cell, this makes agglutination more difficult to achieve

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16
Q

What mediums can be used to overcome the zeta potential?

A

LISS, PEG, polybrene, albumin, enzymes

17
Q

How does albumin help overcome the zeta potential?

A

OH- groups of albumin neutralize the positive charge that keeps the red cells apart decreasing the zeta potential

18
Q

How does Low Ionic Strength Solution (LISS) help overcome the zeta potential?

A

LISS contains fewer NA+ ions reducing the positive charge around the RBCs allowing them to come closer together. It reduces the zeta potential.

19
Q

How does Polyethylene Glycol (PEG) help overcome the zeta potential?

A

Increases antibody uptake by removing water bringing RBCs closer together and concentrating antibody around the red cell

20
Q

What problem do you risk occurring if you do not add anti-IgG immediately after washing the red cells?

A

The antibodies sensitizing the surface of the red cell may elute off if they have a low affinity causing a false negative reaction.

21
Q

Describe the solid phase testing technique for the IAT.

A

Hemolyzed RBC membranes/antigens are attached to the well of a plate, LISS is added to the well , 1 drop of patient plasma added, strips are incubated at 37C, wells are washed, 1 drop of indicator cells is added (indicator cells are coated with anti-IgG that will attach to antibodies attached to the well, strips are centrifuged, results are read

22
Q

Describe what a positive and negative result looks like in solid phase.

A

Positive result: adherence of red cells to the wells, looks like they dispersed, Negative result: red cells form a button at the bottom of the well

23
Q

Describe the gel testing technique for the IAT.

A

Gel technique consists of chambers that are filled with polyacrylamide gel. Red cell reagents are added and then patient plasma. These cards are then incubated and centrifuged. Agglutinates will get trapped at the top and be unable to filter through the gel

24
Q

Describe what a positive and negative result looks like in gel.

A

Positive: agglutinated cells get caught at the top of the gel chamber, Negative: unagglutinated cells filter through the gel to form a pellet at the bottom of the chamber