Acne and Roascea Flashcards

1
Q

What is acne vulgaris?

A

Chronic disorder affecting the hair follicle and sebaceous gland, characterized by expansion and blockage of the follicle and inflammation

Acne vulgaris primarily affects adolescents but can persist into adulthood.

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2
Q

What is the epidemiology of acne?

A

Almost all adolescents in western countries develop acne; prevalence decreases with age

Factors affecting acne prevalence include genetic, ethnic, dietary, and lifestyle factors.

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3
Q

What genetic factors are associated with acne?

A

Family history of severe acne

Genetic predisposition can play a significant role in the severity of acne.

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4
Q

Which ethnic factors influence acne severity?

A

Different ethnic groups are associated with varying acne severity

Ethnic background can affect the prevalence and severity of acne.

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5
Q

What dietary factor is positively correlated with acne prevalence?

A

High glycaemic index diet

Foods that raise blood glucose levels quickly are linked to increased acne.

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6
Q

How does high glycemic index food affect gut microbiota?

A

Changes gut microbiota composition and increases gut permeability

This allows more gut microbiota and metabolites to enter the bloodstream, affecting skin conditions.

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7
Q

What is the relationship between Body Mass Index (BMI) and acne?

A

A BMI of 25 or more is associated with acne

Higher BMI may contribute to the development of acne.

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8
Q

How might smoking be related to acne?

A

Smoking could be associated with acne due to increased inflammation

Smoking may exacerbate inflammatory responses in the skin.

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9
Q

What is the target organ in the pathophysiology of acne?

A

The pilosebaceous unit (hair, sebaceous gland, pore/follicle)

This unit is crucial in the development of acne lesions.

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10
Q

What occurs during abnormal keratinocyte proliferation in pilosebaceous follicles?

A

Formation of microcomedones and comedones

These are the precursors to visible acne lesions.

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11
Q

What are microcomedones?

A

Minor follicle plugs that form from sebum and debris, not visible to the naked eye

They are the initial lesions in acne development.

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12
Q

What triggers the visibility of microcomedones?

A

Increased sebum production due to circulating androgens during puberty

This excess sebum can lead to the formation of whiteheads and blackheads.

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13
Q

What is Cutibacterium acnes?

A

A bacteria species of the natural flora within pilosebaceous units, thriving in keratin and sebum-rich environments

This bacterium plays a role in the inflammatory process of acne.

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14
Q

What does the rupture of the comedone wall trigger?

A

A proinflammatory cascade in the pilosebaceous unit

This process leads to the formation of nodules, cysts, and scarring.

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15
Q

Fill in the blank: The formation of _______ is a result of excess sebum behind a microcomedo.

A

open comedone (whitehead) or closed comedone (blackhead)

These are visible forms of acne lesions.

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16
Q

How is acne clinically classified?

A

Acne is classified as mild, moderate, or severe.

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17
Q

What characterizes mild acne?

A

Mild acne is predominantly comedonal acne with a small amount of inflammatory acne.

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18
Q

What is comedonal acne?

A

Comedonal acne includes open comedones (blackheads) and closed comedones (whiteheads).

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19
Q

What are open comedones?

A

Open comedones are clogged pores that are open, allowing oxidation and darkening.

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20
Q

What are closed comedones?

A

Closed comedones are clogged pores that produce a white bump.

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21
Q

What characterizes moderate acne?

A

Moderate acne is predominantly severe and widespread inflammatory acne with any number of comedones.

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22
Q

What is the presentation of inflammatory acne?

A

Inflammatory acne presents as papules (5 mm or less) and pustules, along with atrophic scars.

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23
Q

What characterizes severe acne?

A

Severe acne is predominantly widespread nodulocystic acne with scarring and any number of comedones.

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24
Q

What is nodulocystic acne?

A

Nodulocystic acne includes nodules greater than 5 mm and cysts, along with keloid scars.

25
Q

What is acne conglobata?

A

Acne conglobata is a rare and severe form of nodulocystic acne that lacks systemic symptoms.

26
Q

What is acne fulminans?

A

Acne fulminans is the most severe type of acne, characterized by deep erosions, ulcerations, and systemic symptoms.

27
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for acne?

A

Differential diagnoses include rosacea, perioral dermatitis, folliculitis, and drug-induced acne.

28
Q

What is perioral dermatitis?

A

Perioral dermatitis is an inflammatory condition characterized by papules around the nose and mouth that are scaly and itchy.

29
Q

What is folliculitis?

A

Folliculitis is the inflammation of hair follicles leading to the eruption of pustules.

30
Q

What is the first-line treatment for mild-moderate acne?

A

First-line treatment is a 12-week course of fixed combinations of topical benzoyl peroxide and topical adapalene, or topical tretinoin and topical clindamycin, or topical benzoyl peroxide and topical clindamycin.

31
Q

What are the side effects of benzoyl peroxide?

A

Side effects of benzoyl peroxide include dryness and irritation.

32
Q

What are the side effects of retinoids?

A

Side effects of retinoids (adapalene, tretinoin) include irritation, photosensitivity, and teratogenicity.

33
Q

What is the first-line treatment for moderate-severe acne?

A

A 12-week course of a topical and oral antibiotic.

Antibiotics include Tetracyclines (Doxycycline, lymecycline) and Macrolides (Erythromycin, trimethoprim).

34
Q

What is the second-line treatment if antibiotics cause systemic symptoms?

A

Topical treatment and combined oral contraceptive pill.

Progesterone-only pills can worsen acne.

35
Q

What is the third-line treatment for moderate-severe acne?

A

Cyproterone acetate pills (e.g., Dianette) due to their anti-androgen effect.

36
Q

What is the first-line treatment for severe acne?

A

Oral isotretinoin (roaccutane) for a 16-24 week course depending on patient’s weight.

37
Q

What are common side effects of oral isotretinoin?

A

Photosensitivity, dry mucosa, epistaxis, fatigue, headaches, muscle cramps, fragile skin.

38
Q

What are severe side effects of oral isotretinoin?

A

Mood disturbances including suicide, highly teratogenic.

39
Q

What should be done before starting isotretinoin treatment?

A

All women with child-bearing potential should enter a pregnancy prevention programme, and all patients should have a mental health screen.

40
Q

What should be monitored during isotretinoin treatment?

A

Fasting lipids and liver function.

41
Q

What is rosacea?

A

A long-term inflammatory skin condition characterized by recurrent flushing, telangiectasia, and papules/pustules.

42
Q

Who is most commonly affected by rosacea?

A

Most common in women aged 45-60.

43
Q

What are the genetic factors contributing to rosacea?

A

Colonisation with Demodex folliculorum mites can cause dysregulation of the inflammatory response and formation of blood vessels.

44
Q

What are the environmental factors that can trigger rosacea?

A

Sun exposure, alcohol, spicy foods, emotional stress, smoking.

45
Q

What are the major features of rosacea presentation?

A
  1. Recurrent facial flushing (reddened) and excessive warmth.
  2. Inflammatory pink/red papules and pustules, but comedones are absent.
  3. Telangiectasia.
  4. Ocular manifestations such as mild dryness and irritation.
46
Q

What are the two diagnostic features of rosacea?

A
  1. Phymatous rosacea: Hypertrophy and irregular thickening of nose, forehead, cheeks, chin, or ears due to fibrosis and sebaceous glandular hyperplasia.
  2. Fixed centrofacial erythema in a characteristic pattern that may periodically intensify.
47
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for rosacea?

A
  1. Acne vulgaris
  2. Seborrhoeic/contact/perioral/corticosteroid-induced dermatitis
  3. Photodermatitis
  4. SLE
  5. Dermatomyositis
  6. Sarcoidosis
48
Q

How is rosacea diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis is confirmed if the patient has 2 or more major features OR at least 1 diagnostic feature.

49
Q

What is the first-line treatment for mild-moderate papules/pustules in rosacea?

A

Topical ivermectin once daily for an 8-12 week course.

50
Q

What is the second-line treatment for mild-moderate papules/pustules in rosacea?

A

0.75% metronidazole or 15% azelaic acid gel (either twice daily).

51
Q

What is the treatment for transient erythema in rosacea?

A

Topical brimonidine.

52
Q

What is the treatment for persistent erythema in rosacea?

A

Topical alpha-adrenergic agonist (e.g., brimonidine once daily). If severe, specialist treatment is laser or Intense Pulsed Light therapy (IPL).

53
Q

What is the treatment for telangiectasia in rosacea?

A

Laser or Intense Pulsed Light therapy (IPL).

54
Q

What is the treatment for moderate-severe papules/pustules in rosacea?

A

Topical treatment with oral tetracycline for an 8-12 week course.

55
Q

What is the treatment for phymatous disease in rosacea?

A

Oral tetracycline for a 6 week course.

56
Q

What is the treatment for severe inflamed pustules/papules and severe inflamed phymatous disease?

A

Oral isotretinoin.

57
Q

What is the treatment for severe non-inflamed phymatous disease?

A

Laser or surgery (refer to plastic surgery).

58
Q

What should be done for ocular manifestations of rosacea?

A

Patient can use eye drops and practice lid hygiene but should be referred to an ophthalmologist if there is no improvement after 2-4 weeks.

59
Q

What advice should be given to patients with rosacea?

A

Avoid triggers, use sunscreen, UV sunglasses for ocular rosacea, non-oily emollients, and soap and fragrance-free products.