Academics ER Review Flashcards

1
Q

What does FAA NOTAMS Distribution System cover?

A

All Civilian airfields and the FDC’s

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2
Q

What are National Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMS

A

Regulatory NOTAMS that apply to all aircraft that apply to all aircraft and include important information such as special FAA regulations etc.

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3
Q

What airfields does DINS cover

A

All military and many (but not all) civilian airfields

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4
Q

What are Flight Safety NOTAMS

A

Important information that may affect flight operations or use of the airfield (such as runway/aerodome closures etc)

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5
Q

When do you create an ASRR(Airfield Suitability Restrictions Report)

A

When planning Missions to unfamiliar airfield
Q Code
Online must be accessed through a .mil computer system

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6
Q

What does ASRR stand for?

A

Airfield Suitability and Restrictions Report

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7
Q

When flying under IFR and not on a federal airway, how low can you descend?

A

Down to the OROCA or ORTCA

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8
Q

When flying under IFR on a federal airway, how low can you descend?

A

Down to the MEA, MRA, MCA, or MOCA

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9
Q

NAVAID service volumes:

T Class

A

25 NM up to 12,000’

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10
Q

NAVAID service volumes:

L Class

A

40 NM up to FL180

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11
Q

NAVAID service volumes:

H Class

A

130 NM between FL180 and FL450

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12
Q

Can you take off without a flight plan?

A

Yes, but you must file your plan as soon as possible while airborne

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13
Q

Who do you work with to file a civilian flight plan?

A

FSS

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14
Q

Who do you work with to file a military flight plan?

A

Base Ops

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15
Q

Where does AHAS bird advisory get its data?

A

BAM + NEXRAD

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16
Q

Where does BAM bird advisory get its data?

A

historical reports

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17
Q

If you need to make a change to your flight plan during flight, where can you find guidance to show you how?

A

The format is on the inside back cover of the IFR/VFR supp.s

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18
Q

What does DINS stand for?

A

Defense Internet NOTAM distribution System

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19
Q

What is the amount of sky coverage when the sky condition is defined as VV?

A

Indefinite ceiling

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20
Q

What is the amount of sky coverage when the sky condition is defined as OVC?

A

Full coverage

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21
Q

What is the amount of sky coverage when the sky condition is defined as BKN?

A

5/8 - 7/8 coverage

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22
Q

What is the amount of sky coverage when the sky condition is defined as SCT?

A

3/8 - 4/8 coverage

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23
Q

What is the amount of sky coverage when the sky condition is defined as FEW?

A

1/8 - 2/8

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24
Q

What is the amount of sky coverage when the sky condition is defined as SKC?

A

Sky clear

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25
Q

What is your priority order for obtaining a weather brief?

A

a. locally approved mission execution forecasts
b. local military Wx unit
c. Servicing AF Operational Wx Squadron
d. Another military Wx unit
e. FAA Wx forecast or flight Wx briefer
f. Nearest FSS

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26
Q

Climb profiles:

Define range climb

A

minimum climb range and fuel are not required - 250 knots

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27
Q

Climb Profiles:

Define rate climb

A

minimize the time n the climb to the cruise altitude - 220 knots

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28
Q

Performance ceilings:

Define service ceilings

A

highest altitude at which the maximum rate of climb of 100 fpm is still achieved - 41,000 ft MSL

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29
Q

Performance ceilings:

Define cruise ceilings

A

best initial cruise performance for a specified temperature and aircraft gross weight - 300 fpm

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30
Q

Performance ceilings:

Define combat ceilings

A

maximum ceiling at which adequate maneuvering capability exists - 500 fpm

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31
Q

Cruise:

Define best endurance

A

speed to fly to minimize fuel flow in level flight

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32
Q

Cruise:

Define maximum range

A

maximizes the nautical air miles the aircraft can travel for every pound of fuel

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33
Q

Cruise:

Define Long range

A

speed that provides 99% of maximum range

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34
Q

Define specific range

A

nautical air miles per pound of fuel

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35
Q

Endurance/Holding:

Define Best Endurance

A

Loiter time available at the best airspeed for a specific loiter altitude and gross weight

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36
Q

Endurance/Holding:

Define Max Endurance

A

Loiter time available at the optimum combination of altitude and airspeed

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37
Q

Descent Profiles - Penetration
Airspeed: ___
Configuration: ___

A

180 KIAS

Idle/Speed brakes and gear extended

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38
Q

Descent Profiles - Rapid
Airspeed: ___
Configuration: ___

A

330 KIAS

Idle/Speed brakes extended

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39
Q

Descent Profiles - Enroute
Airspeed: ___
Configuration: ___

A

250 KIAS

Idle/Speed brakes extended

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40
Q

Descent Profiles - Max Range
Airspeed: ___
Configuration: ___

A

230 KIAS

Idle/Clean

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41
Q

Name 3 common errors in NAVAID fixing

A

EHSI interpolation error
misplotting
ground range vs slant range

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42
Q

Name 3 disadvantages to fixing off a NAVAID

A

Magnetic to True conversion
plotting errors
no stations over water
jamming

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43
Q

Name 3 advantages to fixing off a NAVAID

A

Accuracy
Widespread coverage
Speed

44
Q

How does the ACO differ from the ACP?

A

The ACP is a broader plan on how to use the airspace and lists all designated airspace within the theater

45
Q

Define ACO

A

Airspace Controlling Order

daily publication that lists the airspace that can and/or is used during a particular 24 hour ATO period

46
Q

Define ATO

A

the directive that officially tasks airpower in support of a JFC’s campaign

47
Q

How long is an ATO?

A

24 hours

48
Q

How long is an Air Tasking Cycle?

A

72 hours

49
Q

Define JAOP

A

guide the employment of air capabilities and forces to accomplish the objectives assigned by the JFC

50
Q

Name 4 ways to detect weather

A

Visual
PIREP
PMSV
Radar

51
Q

How does the 60-to-1 rule for avoiding weather work?

A

A 10 degree turn for 60NM will detour you 10NM.
A 20 degree turn for 60NM will detour you 20NM
A 20 degree turn for 30NM will detour you 10NM
A 40 degree turn for 30NM will detour you 20NM

52
Q

Name two methods of deviating around weather

A

60-to-1

flying disk

53
Q

What is the Thunderstorm Avoidance guidance given by AFI 11-2T-1v3?

A

Directs aircrews to utilize all means necessary to avoid thunderstorms by 20NM at or above FL230 and 10NM below FL230

54
Q

What is the Thunderstorm Avoidance guidance given by AFH 11-203v1?

A

Recommends that all aircraft avoid flying into thunderstorms

55
Q

Define spot size error

A

distorts the return on both range and azimuth, presenting the same magnitude of error all around the target

56
Q

Define Pulse length error

A

adds to trailing edge of return, far side only

57
Q

Define Beamwidth error

A

adds width to the return, azimuth only. Two objects can appear to be joined together

58
Q

Name 3 inherent scope errors

A

Beamwidth error
pulse length error
spot size error

59
Q

Define Arctic Reversal

A

land (snow) looks like water and water (ice) looks like land

60
Q

Define Cardinal Point effect

A

when the radar beam scans surfaces at perpendicular angles, the return is brighter than surfaces that are turned away, all other aspects being equal

61
Q

Define Glitter

A

the brightening of a return due to a momentarily high signal potential

62
Q

Name 3 Radar Special Effects

A

Glitter
Cardinal Point effect
Arctic Reversal

63
Q

Use low gain settings for

A

Topographical/cultural returns

64
Q

Use medium gain settings for

A

differentiate a major cultural return (like a city) from the surrounding terrain

65
Q

Use high gain settings for

A

land/water contrast

66
Q

Appearance of returns on scope and tuning:
Cities ___
Runways ___
Lakes ___

A

Bright
No show
No show

67
Q

Define Beamwidth Occupancy

A

Two identical objects at different ranges occupy different amounts of the beam of energy

68
Q

Define Attenuation

A

dispersal of radar energy

69
Q

Range effects the radarscope due to two effects: ___ and ___

A

Attenuation

Beamwidth occupancy

70
Q

Name three factors effecting radarscope presentation

A

Target size
Surface material
Target shape/angle of reflection

71
Q

How do you change your True Heading to True Bearing?

A

RuB + THe = TuB

Relative Bearing, plus True Heading, equals True Bearing

72
Q

In REL mode, the radar display is oriented to ___ and the bearing pointer gives ___

A

Aircraft True Heading

Aircraft True Heading

73
Q

How do you change magnetic north or magnetic headings to true?

A

Apply magnetic variation

“East is Least and West is Best, when going from True to Mag” “Mag to True, Undo”

74
Q

In N-1 mode, the radar display is oriented to ___ and the bearing pointer gives ___

A

magnetic north

magnetic heading

75
Q

In INS mode, the radar display is oriented to ___ and the bearing pointer gives ___

A

true north

true heading

76
Q

Use DD Form ___ for international flights

A

DD Form 1801

77
Q

Use DD Form ___ for flights w/in the conterminous US and for flights to Canada

A

DD Form 175

78
Q

AFI 11-2T-1 dictates the minimum fuel is ___ pounds

A

500

79
Q

AFI 11-202v3 requires pilots to carry enough reserve fuel to increase their total planned flight time by ___ (up to a maximum of ___) or ___, whichever is greater

A

10%
45 min
20 min

80
Q

What is NTAP?

A

Notices To Airmen Publication

81
Q

What is FLIP?

A

Flight Information Publications

82
Q

How are Series “D” NOTAMS distributed and what do they cover?

A

NOTAMS that are distant or Nationwide, Widely disseminated.

83
Q

Notices to Airmen Publication(NTAP)

A

Contains FDC and selected D-type NOTAMS expected to remain in effect for extended period of time

84
Q

Must Review of the FLIP be part of your preflight mission planning?

A

YES

85
Q

What must be checked for IFR arrival

A

IFR- check to see if there is a published STAR into the terminal area

86
Q

What is a Contact Approach

A

Navigate to a straight in final using visual reference to the ground

87
Q

VFR Arrivals procedures

A

Air Force standard left hand turns
45 degrees to downwind
Cleared for initial = intercept 3-5 miles

88
Q

What is the purpose of VFR arrivals?

A

VFR- used to expedite traffic flow

maintain IFR clearance and proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport for a straight in final

89
Q

Departure Planning: what weather do you need for T/O

A

200 and 1/2
PWC
Lowest compatible landing mins

90
Q

Low altitude en-route Charts: What are airways are shown, and where do they normally begin?

A

Victor airways

1200 AGL up to/not including FL180

91
Q

High Altitude en-route Charts: What airways are shown, and what altitudes do they cover

A

Jet Routes

FL180 to FL450

92
Q

What information is provided by Area Charts?

A

enhance coverage of certain high density terminal areas

93
Q

Airspace: (VFR low area charts)

A
Class A: FL180 to FL600
Class B: Solid Blue Line up to 10,000
Class C: Solid Magenta Line up to 4,200
Class D: Dashed Blue Line up to 2,500
Class E: Faded Magenta Line up to but not including FL180 and then past FL600
94
Q

What are three examples of Special Use Airspaces

A

MOA’s
Prohibited
Restricted

95
Q

What information do you relay during your initial radio contact

A
Aircraft ID
Location on Airport
Type of Operation Planned (IFR and VFR) 
First Point of Intended Landing
Action required (Taxi, Touch  and go etc)
96
Q

What items are required for an IFR clearance?

A
Aircraft ID
Clearance Limit
Departure Procedure
Route of Flight
Altitude Data in Order Flown
97
Q

When can you request a contact approach?

A

Pilots can request if reported visibility at airfield is at least 1 mile

98
Q

How do you report En-route Clearance Deviations

A
Point at which deviation commenced 
Direction and distance of detour 
Altitude/flight level change
Point and ETA where original route resumed
Flight conditions (IFR or VFR) 
Any further deviations necessary 
If equipped with Wx radar
99
Q

How is clearance for a STAR obtained?

A

By filing it or requesting it

100
Q

When given Clearance for a STAR what are you “Cleared” for

A

Clearance is for the lateral portion only unless cleared to “descend via”

101
Q

What are Rules of Engagement?

A

Outline how airmen accomplish their mission within the military, political, and legal parameters provided by civilian and military leadership

102
Q

What tells you how to execute an ATO?

A

SPINS

103
Q

What does SPINS stand for?

A

Special Instructions

104
Q

What are SPINS?

A

Broad spectrum of employment information for a given air operation, most notably general operating procedures, communications plan, and rules of engagement

105
Q

What are the scheduled Climb Parameters for Climb Charts? What do you correct for?

A
5 knots (+/- 0.01 Mach)
Correct for Anti-Ice
106
Q

ETE (IFR and VFR)

A

IFR- takeoff to last point excluding delays

VFR- takeoff to overhead including delays