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T-1 > Academic ER End Of Chapter Questions > Flashcards

Academic ER End Of Chapter Questions Flashcards

1
Q

According to the METAR, what is the reported temperature and altimeter settings (in inches of mercury) at KABC?

A

21 degrees C, 30.06 “Hg

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2
Q

IAW AFI 11-02, vol 3, the weather requirements for an airfield to qualify as an alternate are…

A

A ceiling of 1000ft, or 500 ft above the lowest compatible minimum, whichever is higher; and a visibility of 2 SM or 1 SM above the lowest compatible minimum, whichever is higher at 1 hour of ETA.

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3
Q

What is true regarding bird advisories and hazards?

A

AHAS uses BAM data combined with NEXRAD radar to predict bird activity.

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4
Q

How do returns move across the scope in the REL MODE (no turn)?

A

From top to bottom.

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5
Q

In REL, where should the heading marker always be located?

A

Firing at 000 degrees

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6
Q

In the INS mode, where should the heading marker fire? What kind of a bearing do you read to a target?

A

Fires at the aircrafts true heading - true bearing.

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7
Q

A larger building will intercept _________ energy than a smaller building.

A

More.

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8
Q

The reflective potential of a target increases as the _______ increases.

A

Density

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9
Q

The greatest amount of energy is reflected when the radar beam is ________ to the reflecting surface.

A

Perpendicular.

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10
Q

Why does water normally appear as a no-show area on the radarscope?

A

Because the surface of the water is flat, a very poor reflective angle is formed with the radar beam.

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11
Q

What causes a radar signal to lose energy the farther it travels?

A

Range attenuation.

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12
Q

Radar antennas are designed to beam more power at ________ ________ to help overcome range attenuation.

A

Longer ranges.

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13
Q

The amount of beam area an object occupies is called _______ ______.

A

Beamwidth occupancy

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14
Q

Radar beamwidth increases as range _______.

A

Increases

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15
Q

If the ground range remains constant as the altitude increases, the slant range ________.

A

Increases

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16
Q

List the two main differences between mountain shadows and lake returns.

A
  • Mountain shadows change in shape

- The FAR side of a LAKE return is bright; the NEAR side of a MOUNTAIN return is bright.

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17
Q

What term refers to man-made in objects such as buildings, bridges, and dams?

A

Cultural return

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18
Q

Cities have excellent _________ _________ and form recognizable returns on the scope.

A

Signal potential

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19
Q

Because no energy can pass through a mountain, there is a _________ area beyond.

A

No-show

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20
Q

A no-show area on the radarscope has a bright far edge. It is probably a _______.

A

Lake.

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21
Q

How do airfields and highways appear on radar?

A

No-show.

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22
Q

Use a _______ gain setting if only stronger, persistent radar signals are desired.

A

Low

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23
Q

What gain setting would you use for this type of target:

Factories, storage tanks,main field structures

A

Low gain

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24
Q

What gain setting would you use for this type of target:

Land-water contrast

A

High gain

25
Q

What gain setting would you use for this type of target:

Return from surrounding terrain

A

Medium gain

26
Q

Who is the best wife ever?

A

Andrea Newey

27
Q

Glitter effect will last for _ ___ sweeps of the radar.

A

A few

28
Q

The brightening of a return due to a momentarily higher signal potential is called…

A

Glitter

Aka the herpes of crafting

29
Q

Your radarscope is very bright at about 40 NM, but dims toward the center and blackens from 0 to 10 NM. You should _______ __ _______ your antenna tilt.

A

Adjust as necessary

30
Q

As the aircraft’s ________ changes, you will need to constantly adjust the antenna tilt for optimum presentation.

A

Altitude

31
Q

How will a smooth ice coating on a body of water appear?

A

Same as a water return; no-show

32
Q

How do ice ridges or ice mountains appear on radar?

A

Comparable to ground embankments or mountains

33
Q

What causes Arctic reversal?

A

Radar signals returning from irregular shaped ice pack instead of from the ground.

34
Q

List 3 inherent scope errors.

A

Beamwidth error
Pulse length error
Spot size error

35
Q

With N-1/INS/REL switch in N-1 and HDG SEL OFF, the top of the scope represents…

A

Magnetic north

36
Q

The AN/APN-242 has a warm-up time of _______ before it is fully energized and ready for automatic operation.

A

3 minutes

37
Q

Glitter that occurs when the radar beam scans a large number of structures at right angels is called ________ ________ _______. This usually occurs when the true bearing of a city is equal to a _______ _______.

A

Cardinal point effect

Cardinal direction

38
Q

When a “Trouble T” symbol () is depicted on an approach chart or SID/DP, USAF aircraft…

A
  • must comply with the minimum climb gradient associated with the procedure unless different minimums are specified on the SID/DP
  • will NOT comply with the nonstandard takeoff weather minimums associated with the procedure.
39
Q

You are told to expect moderate rime ice from 10000 to 15000 feet overhead your destination. Are you allowed to descend through these conditions?

A

Yes; however, the restriction in AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3 restricts you from cruising in actual moderate icing conditions.

40
Q

IAW AFI 11-2T-1, Vol 3, weather requirements for an alternate airfield requiring radar on the only suitable approach are…

A

The same as for an alternate without a published approach procedure.

41
Q

IAW AFI 11-202, vol 3, an alternate airfield should be filed on your flight plan…

A

When the ceiling is less than 2000 ft AGL and visibility is less than 3 SM.

42
Q

The DoD Internet NOTAM Distribution System (DINS) covers…

A

All military bases and virtually all domestic, international, and FDC NOTAMs.

43
Q

When a requested location is not in the US NOTAM system, the DoD Internet NOTAM Distribution System (DINS)

A

Provides a plain language notice in red font.

44
Q

What does DINS stand for?

A

DoD Internet NOTAM distribution System

45
Q

NOTAMs must be checked…

A

Prior to all flights.

46
Q

You are planning to fly into a civilian field. The DINS does not track NOTAMs for this location. How do you access the “D” NOTAMs associated with this field?

A

Call any Flight Service Station and request the “D” series NOTAMs for your destination.

47
Q

True or False: If entering the pattern for a tactical overhead, plan on using a 3-5 mile initial unless directed otherwise.

A

True

48
Q

Unless a higher gradient is published, USAF aircraft are required to climb to a minimum of _____ on all IFR departures.

A

200 feet/NM

49
Q

The Victor Airway System starts at…

A

1200 feet AGL and goes up to 17,999 feet MSL. (Does NOT include 18,000 feet MSL)

50
Q

You want to file between two “H” class VORTACs at FL350 (off airways). The maximum distance you may file direct (NAVAID-to-NAVAID) between these two NAVAIDs is…

A

260 NM

51
Q

True or False: 16,000 feet MSL is an appropriate altitude to fly IFR on a westbound flight.

A

True

52
Q

You are planning an off-airways IFR flight. What minimum altitude do you need to maintain?

A

OROCA

53
Q

The typical “Mode C Veil” surrounding Class B airspace extends _______ from the primary airport.

A

30 NM

54
Q

According to FLIP General Planning, Chapter 5, your IFR flight plan should be filed _____ before your estimated time of departure.

A

30 minutes (1 hour in some locations)

55
Q

True or False: When departing a civil airport, you may file a flight plan with the nearest FSS in person, by telephone, or using aircraft radios (if no other means are available).

A

True

56
Q

According to FLIP General Planning, Chapter 5, pilots should provide the following information to clearance delivery/ground control on initial contact:

A
  • aircraft identification
  • location
  • type of planned operations (IFR)
  • point of first intended landing
  • requested action
57
Q

Once vectoring an aircraft off an IFR Departure Procedure, what should a controller say to keep it from being automatically cancelled?

A

“Expect to resume (name and number) DEPARTURE.”

58
Q

Define the following:
Service ceiling
Cruise ceiling
Combat ceiling

A

Service ceiling: highest altitude at which a maximum rate of climb of 100 fpm can still be achieved.
Cruise ceiling: highest altitude that a maximum rate of climb of 300 fpm can be achieved.
Combat ceiling: highest altitude that a maximum rate of climb of 500 fpm can be achieved.

T-1 (10 decks)

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