Abnormal Psych Flashcards

1
Q

Diagnosing an Intellectual Disability: 3 Criteria

A
  1. Deficits in intellectual functioning
  2. Deficits in adaptive functioning
  3. Onset during the developmental period
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

DSM 5 distinguishes between 4 degrees of severity, what are they?

A

Mild, Moderate, Severe, Profound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Severity of intellectual disability is based on adaptive functioning in which 3 ways?

A

Conceptual, social, practical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Etiology of Intellectual disability is known in about what percentage of cases?

A

30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The onset of Child-onset Fluency Disorder (Stuttering) is most-often between which ages?

A

2 and 7 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

One effective treatment for COFD (Child-onset Fluency Disorder)

A

Habit Reversal

Awareness, relaxation, motivation, competing response, and generalization training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A diagnosis of ASD (Autism Spectrum Disorder) requires persistent deficits in ____________.

A

Social communication and interaction; across multiple contexts, including restricted and repetitive patterns of behavior, interests and activities; symptoms during the early developmental period, and impairments in social, occupational, or other areas of functioning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A better prognosis for ASD is associated with which 3 factors?

A
  1. Ability to communicate verbally by age 5-6
  2. An IQ of 70 or above
  3. Later onset of symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Treatment for ASD by Lovaas used to increase communication skills

A

Shaping and Discrimination Training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

3 Levels of ASD severity

A

Level 1: Requiring support
Level 2: Requiring substantial support
Level 3: Requiring very substantial support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ADHD is characterized by:

A

Persistent pattern of inattention or hyperactivity-impulsivity that interferes with social, academic, or occupational functioning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Diagnosis Criteria for ADHD

A
  1. Onset of sxs prior to age 12
  2. Impairment in at least two different settings
  3. At least 6 symptoms in Inattention and/or Hyperactivity/Impulsivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The percentage of children with ADHD that continue to meet the diagnostic criteria for the disorder in adolescence:

A

65-80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Predominant symptom of adults with ADHD

A

Inattention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

According to this hypothesis, ADHD is due to an inability to regulate one’s behavior to fit the demands of a situation:

A

Behavioral Disinhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

One study on ADHD (NIMH Multimodal Tx Study) found these results regarding treatment:

A

Medication and Medication/Behavioral Treatment produced similar reductions in the core sxs of ADHD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Specific Learning Disorder (SLD): diagnostic criteria

A
  1. Difficulties related to academic skills as evidenced by at least one characteristic symptom that lasts for at least 6 months IN SPITE OF interventions that had targeted those difficulties.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most frequent comorbid disorder found with SLD (Specific Learning Disorder).

A

ADHD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tourette’s Syndrome: diagnostic criteria

A
  • 1 vocal tic
  • Multiple motor tics
  • Both of the above beginning prior to age 18.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

One treatment for Tourette’s Syndrome

A

Anti-psychotic medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Regarding medical procedures in children (Behavior Pediatrics), research as shown that these strategies are helpful for reducing anxiety and pain due to medical procedures

A
  • Open communication

- Multi-component CBT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The pediatric behavior study also confirmed that hospitalized children and children with disabilities are at increased risk for ____________.

A

Emotional and behavioral problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

This population has been shown to have a particularly difficult time complying with medical regimens and adherence:

A

Adolescents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Delusional Disorder: diagnostic criteria

A
  • Presence of 1 or more delusions that last for at least 1 month. 7 types.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

7 subtypes of Delusional Disorder

A
  1. Erotomanic
  2. Grandiose
  3. Jealous
  4. Persecutory
  5. Somatic
  6. Mixed
  7. Unspecified
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Schizophrenia: diagnostic criteria

A
  • Presence of 2 active phase symptoms for at least 1 month, with one of the sxs being delusions.
  • Continuous signs of the disorder for at least 6 months
  • Sxs must cause significant impairment in functioning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the “active phase” symptoms we are looking for a minimum of 2 of in Dx Schizophrenia?

A

Delusions, Hallucinations, Disorganized speech

and Grossly disorganized or abnormal motor behavior, Negative symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Negative Symptoms of Schizophrenia

A

Restriction in the range and intensity of emotions and other functions, and include blunted emotional expression, anhedonia (decreased ability to experience pleasure), a-sociality, alogia (diminished speech output), and avolition (restricted initiation of goal-directed behavior).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Schizophrenia: Onset information

A

Late teens to early 30’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Schizophrenia: Prognosis

A

A better prognosis is associated with an acute and late onset and female gender.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Genetic etiology for schizophrenia; concordance rates

A

Concordance rates for biological siblings is about 10%; while the rate for identical twins is 48%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the Dopamine Hypothesis?

A

The first biochemical theory of schizophrenia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Structural brain abnormality indicators for schizophrenia

A

Enlarged ventricles have been found in the largest proportion of patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Treatment for schizophrenia

A

Traditional (“1st generation”) Anti-psychotic drugs:
are most effective for eliminating the “positive symptoms” of the disorder, but are associated with tardive dyskinesia.
Atypical (“2nd Generation”) anti-psychotics are less likely to cause tardive dyskinesia, and may be more effective for both positive and negative symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

(AKA “additive sxs”) Delusions, hallucinations, disordered thought.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Other treatments for schizophrenia besides anti-psychotic drugs

A

CBT, Social Skills Training, psycho-education, and supportive employment. Family therapy has also been shown to be beneficial, especially when they target Expressed Emotion (EE), which have been linked to high relapse and re-hospitalization rates. BUT NOT AS STRONG OF A LINK AS THOSE W/MOOD or ED!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

EE (Expressed Emotion)

A

High EE in families of people w/schizophrenia is characterized by open criticism and hostility towards the patient, or alternately, over-protectiveness and emotional over-involvement. Higher levels of this in families of schizophrenic patients have been shown to be linked to high relapse and re-hospitalization rates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Duration of Schizophreniform Disorder

A

1-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Duration for Brief Psychotic Disorder

A

1 day to < 1 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Duration of Schizoaffective Disorder

A

Psychotic and mood symptoms occur concurrently with a period of 2 weeks without prominent mood symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Diagnosis of BiPolar I Disorder: diagnostic criteria

A

At least 1 manic episode that lasts for at least 1 week.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Diagnosis of BiPolar II Disorder: diagnostic criteria

A

1 Major Depressive episode and one Hypomanic episode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What psychiatric disorder has most consistently been linked to genetic factors?

A

Bipolar Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Treatment of Bipolar Disorder (and alternate treatment).

A

Most-often includes Lithium, which reduced manic symptoms and levels out mood swings. For those who do not respond to that drug, anti-seizure drugs may be effective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Cyclothymic Disorder: diagnostic criteria

A
  • Numerous periods of hypomanic sxs that do not meet criteria for a hypomanic episode, and numerous periods of depression sxs that do not meet criteria for MD episode.
  • Symptom duration at least half of the time over at least 2 years in adults; 1 year in children and adolescents.
  • The individual cannot have been symptom-free for more than 2 months at a time.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Major Depressive Disorder: diagnostic criteria

A
  • The presence of at least 5 symptoms of a MDE with at least one sx being either a depressed mood OR loss of interest/pleasure.
  • Nearly every day for 2 weeks
  • Sxs cause significant distress or impaired f(x)ing.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Peri-partum onset specifier

A

Applies when the onset of sxs is during pregnancy or within 4 weeks post-partum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Seasonal Pattern specifier

A

Applies when there is a temporal relationship between the onset of sxs and a particular time of year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Symptoms of Seasonal Pattern specifier

A
  • Hypersomnia
  • Increased appetite and weight gain
  • Craving for carbs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Prevalence rates: MDD in children vs adults

A

In children, rates are about equal. Beginning in early adolescents, adults, the rate for women is about twice that for men (2x).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Symptoms of MDD in Children vs Adults

A

In children, somatic complaints and irritability are common. In older adults, cognitive impairments may resemble those seen in mild/major Neuro-cognitive Disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Evidence for genetic contribution to MDD

A

Studies have shown that the disorder is 1.5 - 3x more common among first-degree biological relatives than among individuals in the general population. Also, in twin studies, concordance rates werecently .20 for dizygotic and .50 for monozygotic twins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Catecholemine Hypothesis of Depression

A

States that depression is due to a deficiency of norepinephrine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Lewinson’s Behavioral Theory of Depression

A

Links depression to a low rate of Response-Contingent Reinforcment (RCR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Learned Helplessness Model of Depression

A

Identifies hopelessness as the proximal and sufficient cause of depression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Beck’s Cognitive Theory of Depression

A

Describes depression as involving a “Cognitive Triad”. characterized by negative beliefs about ones Self, the World, and the Future.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Treatment for MDD

A

Antidepressants
Types:
-TCAs: the most effective for “classic” depression sxs that include vegetative sxs and more severe sxs in the morning.
- SSRIs: considered the First Line drug treatment, and produce fewer side effects than TCAs
-MAOIs: For those who do not respond to TCAs or SSRIs
-SNRIs: (newer, other, increase levels of both norepinephrine and serotonin. Similar to TCAs and SSRIs with differing side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia): diagnostic criteria

A

Requires the presence of a depressed mood for at least 2 years in adults and 1 year in children/adolescents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Suicide Statistics

A

~60% of people who commit suicide have a diagnosis of a mood disorder at the time of their death.

  • Whites highest rates
  • MDD and Bipolar most -often linked to suicide
60
Q

Beck found this to be a bigger predictor of suicide than intensity of depressive sxs.

A

Hopelessness

61
Q

Biological predictors of suicide/attempts

A

Low levels of serotonin

62
Q

Separation Anxiety Disorder : diagnosis criteria

A
  • Developmentally inappropriate and excessive distress as evidenced by 3 Characteristic sxs.
  • 6 mos in adults; 4 weeks in children
  • cause sig distress or impairment in f (x)ing
63
Q

Treatment for Separation Anxiety Disorder

A

Systemic desensitization; cognitive approaches. Return to school for kids to avoid academic failure, etc….

64
Q

Specific Phobia: diagnostic criteria (and treatment)

A

-Intense fear or anxiety about a SPECIFIC object or situation.
-The person avoids or endure w/marked distress.
-Not proportional to situation.
-6 Months in duration.
-Multiple sub-types.
DDx: SINGLE SITUATION vs Agr
Treatment: exposure therapy

65
Q

Social Anxiety Disorder

A

Characterized by intense fear of social situations that may result in scrutiny by others.

66
Q

Treatment for Specific Phobia and Social Anxiety Disorder

A

Exposure with Response Prevention

67
Q

Panic Disorder: diagnosis criteria

Trauma & Stressor-Related Disorder vs Anxiety disorder

A

Recurrent, unexpected panic attacks, with at least one being followed by persistent concern of having another OR the consequences of one, OR significant maladaptive beh.

68
Q

Agorapgobia: diagnostic criteria and treatment

A
  • Marked fear or anxiety about at least 2 specified situations. (Public transp; open/enclosed spaces; crowds/standing in lines; outside alone.
  • exposure treatment of choice
69
Q

Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder: diagnostic criteria

A

(DMDD; A Depressive Disorder) a.)Severe recurrrent temper outbursts manifested verbally or behaviorally that are grossly out of proportion in intensity or duration to the situation or provocation. b.)Chronic, persistently irritable or angry mood between temper outbursts on most days.
-Sxs for 6 months across at least 2 settings; average 3 days per week; not developmental in nature; Onset by 10 years old, Dx not until 6 years old.

70
Q

Panic Disorder: Treatment

Trauma & Stressor-Related Disorder vs Anxiety disorder

A

PCT (Panic Control Tx); integrates psychoed, relax, cog restructuring, exposure; also TCFAs SSRIs SNRIs and Benzos. * Relapse high with meds-only tx.

71
Q

General Anxiety Disorder (GAD)

A
  • Excessive anxiety and worry about multiple events or activities
    (At least 3 of the following: restlessness/on edge, easily fatigued, difficulty concentrating, irritability, muscle tension, sleep disturbance)
  • relatively constant for at least 6 months
  • Difficult for person to control
  • Causes clinically sig distress or impaired f(x)ing
72
Q

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

A

Characterized by recurrent obsessions and or compulsions that are time-consuming and cause significant distress or impaired functioning.
Obsessions- persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that the person experiences as intrusive and unwanted and that cause marked anxiety and distress.
Compulsions- repetitious and deliberate behaviors or mental acts that are performed in response to an obsession or according to rigid rules.

73
Q

OCD VS OCPD (Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder)

A

OCDP does not involve obsessions and compulsions, but instead, a pre-occupation with orderliness, perfection, and control.

74
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder

A
  • Consistent pattern of inhibited and emotionally withdrawn behavior towards adult caregivers
    (I.E. lack of seeking or responding to comfort when distressed;
  • A persistent social and emotional disturbance that includes at least 2 of the following SXS: minimal soc and emot responsiveness to others, limited positive affect, episodes of unexplained irritability, sadness or fearfulness w/adult caregivers
  • Child has to have experienced extreme insufficient care such as unmet needs, repeat change in caregivers, unusual environment that limits opportunities to form attachments
75
Q

Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder

A
  • Pattern of behavior that involves inappropriate interactions with unfamiliar adults IE: overly familiar behavior w/unknown adults, diminished/absent of checking in w/adult caregiver, willingness to accompany unknown adult caregiver w/out hesitation.
  • Child has to have experienced extreme insufficient care such as unmet needs, repeat change in caregivers, unusual environment that limits opportunities to form attachments
76
Q

Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD): diagnostic criteria

A
  • Exposure to actual death, serious injury, or sexual violence
  • Presence of at least one of the following intrusive sxs:
    (recurrent, involuntary, distressing memories of the event; dissociative reactions which the person feels or reacts as if the event is recurring’ intense or prolonged psychological distress when exposed to reminders of event; marked physiological reactions to reminders of event)
  • Persistent avoidance of stimuli associated with the event (memories, thoughts, feelings, external reminders that illicit reminders)
  • 2 Negative changes in cognition or mood associated with the event
  • 2 Marked changes in arousal and reactivity associated with the event (irritable beh and angry outbursts, hyper-vigilance, exaggerated startle response, reckless or destructive beh’s, impaired concentration; sleep disturbance.
  • Duration > 1 month
  • Causes clinically significant distress or impaired f(x)ing
77
Q

PTSD: Treatment

A

The treatment of choice for PTSD is a Comprehensive CBT intervention that encorporates exposure, cog restructuring, anxiety management. + SSRI for accompanying dep and anxiety.

78
Q

Acute Stress Disorder

A
  • Exposure to actual or threatened death, severe injury, or sexual violation in at least one of 4 ways
  • 9 sxs from any one of 5 categories
  • Duration: 3 Days to 1 month
  • Causes clinically significant distress or impaired functioning
79
Q

Adjustment Disorders

A
  • Emot or beh sxs in response to onset of psycho-social stressor(s)
  • Must be clinically significant, or not proportional to the severity of of the stressor or cause sig impairment in f(x)ing
  • Onset within 3 months of of one or more identifiable stressors
  • Emot and Beh sxs must remit within 6 months after termination of stressor(s)
80
Q

Dissociative Identity Disorder

A
  • Existence in one individual of two or more distinct personality states; note cultural exceptions.
  • Gaps in recalling information, personal events, or traumatic events that is not consistent w/ordinary forgetfulness.
  • Sxs cause clinically sig distress or impaired functioning.
81
Q

Dissociative Amnesia

A
  • Inability to recall important personal information that cannot be attributed to ordinary forgetfulness.
  • Causes clinically significant distress or impaired functioning
  • Most-often takes the form of Localized or Selective Amnesia
  • ## Often related to exposure to one or more traumatic events
82
Q

Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder

A
  • Depersonalization - unreality, detachment, or being an outside observer ot one’s thoughts/feelings
  • Derealization disorder - unreality, detachment involving one’s surroundings
83
Q

Conversion Disorder: Dx requirements

A

-sxs involving disturbances in voluntary motor or sensory functioning that suggests serious neurological or other medical condition.

84
Q

Conversion Disorder: Dx requirements

A

-sxs involving disturbances in voluntary motor or sensory functioning that suggests serious neurological or other medical condition.

85
Q

Facticious Disorder

A
  • individual falsifies physical or psychological symptoms associated with their deception in themselves for another person in absence of an external reward for doing so
86
Q

Malingering

A

Intentional production of symptoms for the purpose of obtaining a reward.

87
Q

Anorexia Nervosa

A
  • Restriction of energy intake that leads to significantly low body weight
  • an intense fear of losing weight
  • A disturbance in the way the person experiences their body weight and shape
  • Onset most-often in adolescence or young adulthood
88
Q

One theory of anorexia

A

Higher than normal level of serotonin- which causes restlessness, anxiety, and obsessive thinking, resulting in food restriction which lowers the level of serotonin and therefor decreases unpleasant feelings.

89
Q

First priority in treatment of Anorexia

A

Getting the individual to gain weight

90
Q

Bulima Nervosa

A
  • characterized by recurrent episodes of binge-eating that are accompanied by a sense of a lack of control;
  • compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain;
  • a self-image that is unduly influenced by body shape and weight.
91
Q

Studies conducted in various countries suggest that cultural and social factors play the most significant role in the causation of which of the following disorders?

A

Examples:

  • Prevalence of schizophrenia is pretty consistent throughout the world, while
  • Depression, post traumatic stress disorder, and suicide rates have been shown to be more attributed to cultural and social factors.
92
Q

Schizotypal (Personality) Disorder

A
  • Acute discomfort in close relationships
  • Cognitive or perceptual distortions
  • Eccentric behavior
93
Q

Schizoid Personality Disorder

A
  • Detachment from social relationships and RESTRICTED RANGE OF EMOTIONAL EXPRESSION
94
Q

ADHD Criteria

A

Onset prior to age 12
2 different settings
Meet 6 diagnostic criteria

95
Q

Stimulant Intoxication

A

Pupil dilation, nausea, and muscular weakness are symptoms

96
Q

Double-bind communication has been attributed to the etiology of which condition?

A

Schizophrenia

97
Q

Persistent Depressive Disorder

A

2+ years of feeling depressed mood, low concentration, low appetite (previously Dysthymia)

98
Q

Which of the following substances would be least likely to produce a Substance-Induced Psychotic Disorder

A

Opiods (vs alcohol, marijuana, and cocaine)

99
Q

What does Bipolar I disorder look like?

A

Ie: A 15 year old girl suddenly has a change in behavior that includes irritability, concentration problems at school, decreased need for sleep, and sexual promiscuity

100
Q

Conduct Disorder

A
  • Pattern of behavior that violates basic rights of others and/or age appropriate social norms or rules
  • Displays 3 or more Characteristic symptoms: bullying, threatening, intimidating others, frequent truancy from school; running away from home at least twice, and vandalizing school property
101
Q

Oppositional Defiant Disorder

A

Recurrent pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or VINDICTIVENESS;
Verbal rather than physical aggression; conflict with parents, blaming others for mistakes, and losing temper are more common behaviors.

102
Q

Criteria for Substance Use Disorder

A
  • Control impairment
  • Social impairment
  • Risky Use
  • Pharmocological Criteria
103
Q

Treatment for Raynaud’s Disease

A

Biofeedback more effective than relaxation training

104
Q

Antisocial Personality Disorder characteristics

A
  • Disregard for and violations of the rights of others (pervasive pattern)
  • High score neuroticism, high score disagreeableness, low score on conscientiousness
  • Diagnostic feature (3 of 7 needed for Dx) including: lack of remorse
  • Associated features: Inflated sense of self, Lack of empathy, Superficial charm
105
Q

Excessive activity in what brain region has been linked to Tourettes disorder?

A

Caudate Nucleus

106
Q

Effective Treatment of Conduct Disorder shows which outcomes?

A

Parental Management Training and Multi-Systems Therapy are more effective than “tough love” and bootcamps.

107
Q

Separation Anxiety Disorder Criteria

A

Fear, anxiety ,and avoidance for 4 weeks in kids and 6 months in adults

108
Q

What is Malingering??

A

Pretending to have a physical symptom for some type of financial gain

109
Q

What skill is being assessed on the Symbol Search, Coding, and Cancellation?

A

Processing Speed :)

110
Q

In early stages of Alzhiemer’s Disease, what are characteristics that are the same as those in Korsakoff’s Syndrome?

A

Anterograde amnesia (form new memories, remember recent past) that effects declarative but NOT procedural memory.

111
Q

Difference between PTSD and Acute Stress Disorder

A

PTSD requires 1 month of symptoms; ASD

112
Q

If a constant is added to each score, what will happen?

A

Increase the mean

113
Q

Tobacco Withdrawal Syndrome symptoms

A
  • Irritability and Anger
  • Increased appetite
  • Impaired concentration
114
Q

Exposure to what circumstances are the first criteria for both PTSD and Acute Stress Disorder?

A
  • Actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence
115
Q

Binge eating disorder criteria

A

Binge eating once per week for 3 months

116
Q

Separation Anxiety Disorder

A

Anxiety triggered by separation (ie from mother) usually triggered by the death of a family member or pet

117
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder

A

Markedly disturbed and developmentally inappropriate SOCIAL RELATEDNESS

118
Q

Acute Stress Disorder

A

Exposure to extreme stressor AND derealization, avoidance of reminders, and distressed memories of the event

119
Q

A practitioner of Motivational Interviewing would most likely use what?

A

Techniques that help the therapist promote empathy

120
Q

Schizophreniform Disorder

A

Symptoms for less than 6 months

121
Q

Schizophrenia

A

Symptoms for 6 months

122
Q

Schizoaffective Disorder

A

NOTE: Schizophrenia symptoms PLUS MOOD Disorder

123
Q

Schizoid Personality Disorder

A

Long-standing symptoms of persistent dysfunctional behaviors

124
Q

Rosenhan’s Pseudopatients Experiment

A
  • Faked symptoms to be admitted to psychiatric hospitals, behaved “normally” when inside
  • Patients more-often recognized as being “normal” by other patients verses staff
125
Q

What is NOT an anxiety disorder?

A

w/ Trich, Hoarding, Body Dysmporphic Disorder

126
Q

Neurofeedback as treatment for ADHD?

A

It’s an effective approach especially for inattention and impulsivity

127
Q

What is the “proband” referring to in the research study that looked at possible genetic transition of ADHD?

A

The individual who has been diagnosed with ADHD- the person for which we re interested in genetics of ADHD

128
Q

Frotteurism

A

Rubbing up against in a sexual way without the consent of the individual

129
Q

What symptoms would help establish a diagnosis of Inhalant Toxication?

A

Unsteady gate, slurred speech, and tremor

130
Q

What is Akasithia

A

Unpleasant feelings of restlessness; sometimes a side effect of antipsychotics or antidepressants

131
Q

Tactile Agnosia

A

Inability to recognize objects by touch; caused by damage to the parietal lobe

132
Q

PTSD is grouped into 4 Clusters: what are they?

A

(All experience traumatic event)

Intrusion; Avoidance; Cognition & Mood; Arousal & Reactivity

133
Q

Prevalence of Schizophrenia in general population

A

.5 %

134
Q

Common disorders that co-occur with Tourette’s Syndrome

A

OCD, ADHD, and/or a Learning Disorder (LD)

135
Q

“Hallmarks” of addiction

A

Tolerance and Withdrawal

136
Q

Adolescence and suicide attempts: fact regarding repeat attempters?

A

That their real purpose is to exert power in situations in which they feel powerless

137
Q

Histrionic Personality Disorder

A

Center of attention; flirt/seduce to remain center of attention; feelings easily hurt; approval seeking

138
Q

If an individual is diagnosed with Alcohol Use Disorder, which personality disorder is most likely to co-occur?

A

Antisocial Personality Disorder

139
Q

Panic Disorder in children?

A

Common and treatable- shortness of breath, not wanting to go to school, tachychardia, chest pain

140
Q

Symptoms of hyperthyroidism

A

Unexplained weight gain, forgetfulness, sensitivity to cold, constipation

141
Q

Research on expressed emotion and mental health disorders found out what about relapse?

A

That high expressed emotion may be more predictive of relapses for those with a MOOD or ED than for patients with schizophrenia.

142
Q

Dx of Bulimia Nervosa takes symptoms of what for how long?

A

Binge eating and compensatory behavior for 3 months

143
Q

Illusions

A

Distortions of what is really there, a misperception of reality

144
Q

Delusion

A

A false belief about reality regardless of evidence to the contrary

145
Q

Hallucination

A

A perception in the absence of a stimulus

146
Q

Depersonalization

A

Detachment from oneself

147
Q

If a psychologist does not want to specify the reason why a patient doesn’t meet criteria for a disorder, what classification is used?

A

UNSPECIFIED