A1.1.1 Basic Psychology Flashcards

1
Q

Digit span test is administered to a patient with suspected cognitive impairment. Normal reverse digit span in a working age adult is

Select one:
10 ± 2 digits
7 ± 1 digits
7 ± 2 digits
5 ± 2 digits
4 ± 3 digits
A

Normal forward span is 7 ± 2 digits; while the normal reverse span is 5 ± 2 digits.

The correct answer is: 5 ± 2 digits

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2
Q

Skinner’s operant conditioning is based on which of the following principles?

Select one:
An association is learnt without overt behavioural expression
A response gets paired with a consequence
A response gets paired with its probability
A response gets paired with an inernal stimulus
A stimulus gets paired with a response

A

Skinner believed that the best way to understand behaviour is to look at the causes of an action and its consequences. He called this approach operant conditioning.

The correct answer is: A response gets paired with a consequence

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3
Q

Situation specific amnesia may arise in all of the following situations except

Select one:
Post traumatic stress disorder
Adjustment disorder
Being the victim of an offence
Being the victim of childhood sexual abuse
Committing an offence
A

Situation specific amnesia has not been reported in patients with adjustment disorder. Offenders as well as victims of crimes commonly claim amnesia regarding the offence. Cross sectional studies have found that in 25-45% of homicides, 8% of other violent crimes and a small percentage of non-violent crimes, offenders claim for the offence (Kopelman 2002a). Amnesia for an offence can also occur in alcohol intoxication, substance misuse and acute psychosis but purely psychological amnesia occurs most commonly in crimes of passion. In people with PTSD Anterograde memory dysfunction has been demonstrated in people with PTSD and there are claims that they have a loss of hippocampal volume on MRI (Bremmer 1999), which has been attributed to effects of glucocorticoids (Markowitsch 1996). (Excerpt from Psychogenic amnesia, http://apt.rcpsych.org/content/15/2/152 (accessed April 13, 2015)).

The correct answer is: Adjustment disorder

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4
Q

All of the following are deficiency needs except

Select one:
Aesthetic needs
Safety needs
Physiological needs
Love and belonging needs
Esteem needs
A

Maslow identified deficiency needs called D motives and growth needs (being) needs called B motives. He proposed a hierarchy of human needs with phylogenic and ontogenic evolution through the hierarchy. The needs become less biological as one ascends through the hierarchy. He described six sets, often represented by a pyramid, with physiological needs at the bottom and self actualization needs at the apex. Physiological needs, Safety needs, Love and belonging needs and Esteem needs are referred to as deficiency needs. The higher needs come into focus only when the lower needs are satisfied, at least to some extent.

The correct answer is: Aesthetic needs

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5
Q

Wechsler Adult intelligence scales (WAIS-R) are for people

Select one:
Aged 15 and over
7 to 16 year olds
Aged 18 and over
3 to 7 year olds
Aged 16 and over
A

Wechsler Adult intelligence scales-R is for those aged 16 and over. Wechsler Adult intelligence scales for children is for those aged 7 to 16 years. Wechsler preschool and primary intelligence is for 3 to 7.5 year old children.

The correct answer is: Aged 16 and over

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6
Q

In studies on arousal levels related to different emotions, which emotion produces the maximum rise in temperature compared to all other emotions;

Select one:
Sadness
Disgust
Anger
Love
Fear
A

Anger- maximum rise in temperature. Fear and Disgust- drop in temperature. Studies on emotions have shown that the heart rate increase produced by sadness is usually greater than that produced by happiness.

The correct answer is: Anger

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7
Q

In the alcoholic blackouts, the following type of memory loss is seen:

Select one:
Anterograde amnesia due to failure to consolidation
Retrograde amnesia
Dissociative amnesia
Anterograde amnesia due to failure to recall
Both retrograde and anterograde amnesia

A

A disruption in normal activity of hippocampus under the influence of alcohol can result in temporary failure of memory consolidation leading to anterograde amnesia for circumscribed periods. This is called as alcoholic blackout.

The correct answer is: Anterograde amnesia due to failure to consolidation

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8
Q

Which of the following is true regarding processes that govern formation of various types of memory?

Select one:
Attention allows decoding long term memory store
Lack of attention leads to forgetting
Attention allows short-term memory to enter long-term memory store
Attention allows sensory memory to enter short term memory store
Lack of attention leads to delay in recall

A

Attention is a key process that enables sensory memory traces to enter into short term memory.

The correct answer is: Attention allows sensory memory to enter short term memory store

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9
Q

Which conditioning is involved in the aetiology of both agoraphobia and of obsessional rituals?

Select one:
Classical conditioning
Forced conditioning
Backward conditioning
Operant conditioning
Avoidance conditioning
A

The term aversive conditioning refers to situations in which behavior is motivated by the threat of an unpleasant stimulus. There are two main categories of behavior under aversive control: avoidance behavior and escape behavior. Escape conditioning occurs when the animal learns to perform an operant to terminate an ongoing, aversive stimulus. It is a “get me out of here” or “shut this off” reaction, aimed at escape from pain. The behavior that produces escape is negatively reinforced (reinforced by the elimination of the unpleasant stimulus). For example, the jump of a rat from electrified platform onto a bowl of water is an escape behavior. Escape conditioning is converted into avoidance conditioning by giving a signal before the aversive stimulus starts. If the animal receives a cue or signal that an aversive stimulus is coming, then after one or two occurrences of the punishing stimulus the cue will trigger an avoidance behavior. This kind of learning occurs quickly and is very durable. For example, if you sounded a tone before you electrified the platform, after one or two trials the rat would respond to the tone by jumping into the water. It would not wait for the shock. Avoidance behaviors are very persistent even when there is no longer anything to avoid. The reason is that as a result of an avoidance reaction, one never experiences the aversive stimulus. But this serves as a negative reinforcement, providing a sense of relief. Because of this, avoidance behavior is self-reinforcing. (Excerpt from Avoidance and Escape Learning, Chapter 5: Conditioning, http://www.intropsych.com/ch05_conditioning/avoidance_and_escape_learning.html (accessed April 13, 2015))

The correct answer is: Avoidance conditioning

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10
Q

A 24 year old woman develops significant fear of driving after having a relatively trivial road traffic accident. She avoids using cars even as a passenger. She has no symptoms of PTSD. Which of the following therapies is best suited for her needs?

Select one:
Brief focal dynamic psychotherapy
Cognitive analytic therapy
Interpersonal therapy
Behaviour therapy
Psychoanalytic therapy
A

This is simple phobia for driving and not PTSD. So behaviour therapy is the correct option.

The correct answer is: Behaviour therapy

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11
Q

In Pavlov’s original classical conditioning experiments on dogs, which of the following served as the conditioned stimulus?

Select one:
Food
Saliva
Bell
Hunger
Dog
A

Pavlov’s dogs, restrained in an experimental chamber, were presented with meat powder and they had their saliva collected via a surgically implanted tube in their saliva glands. Over time, he noticed that his dogs who begin salivation before the meat powder was even presented, whether it was by the presence of the handler or merely by a clicking bell nuise produced by the device that distributed the meat powder. (Excerpt from Classical Conditioning (Pavlov) | Learning Theories, http://www.learning-theories.com/classical-conditioning-pavlov.html).

The correct answer is: Bell

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12
Q

Tip of the tongue state is a well investigated example of

Select one:
Context dependent memory
Blocking
Encoding failure
Failure of prospective memory
State dependent memory
A

Sometimes people may have the experience that we know the answer we are seeking but cannot quite find it and this feeling is known as the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon, also abbreviated as TOT phenomenon. This is a well investigated example of Blocking, which is one of the ‘retrieval failure’ theories of forgetting. Blocking is said to occur when the subjects are unable to access information that they know exists in their memory despite great efforts at recalling even in the presence of retrieval cues. TOT states may last for few seconds or for a few days.

The correct answer is: Blocking

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13
Q

People can only attend to one physical channel of information at a time’-Which theory of attention states this?

Select one:
Broadbent's filter theory of attention
Cocktail party phenomenon
Dichotic listening experiments
Attenuator model of selective attention
Shiffrin and Schneider's divided attention theory
A

Dichotic listening experiments show that alternative information is simultaneously processed and can be attended to if required. Here one kind of information is selected for attention and it is called as selective or focused attention. Broadbent conducted dichotic listening experiments and he suggested that “our mind can be conceived as a radio receiving many channels at once”. He supposed that in brain there exists a type of audio filter in our brain that selects which channel we should pay attention to from the many kinds of sounds perceived. Broadbent proposed that the filter lies between the sensory buffer and short-term store (what is now called working memory) that prevents overloading memory. This is called Broadbent’s filter theory.

The correct answer is: Broadbent’s filter theory of attention

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14
Q

A clinical psychologist performed digit span test and immediately asked the patient to count a three digit number backwards. What is this procedure called as?

Select one:
Brown Paterson Task
Primacy effect
Recency effect
Baddeley and Hitch Task
Cohen and Squire experiment
A

Under normal situations, the duration for which information is held in short term memory is usually 15 to 20 seconds. STM is also very fragile and information is lost quickly. Brown Paterson demonstrated that by 15 seconds the original material is completely forgotten. Brown Paterson task involves introducing distraction (such as counting a three digit number backwards) immediately after the digit span test in order to prevent rehearsal.

The correct answer is: Brown Paterson Task

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15
Q

Which of the following is not a component of the Big Five Theory of personality?

Select one:
Capacity
Agreeableness
Openness
Neuroticism
Extraversion
A

The Big Five are five broad factors (dimensions) of personality traits. They include 1. Extraversion which encompasses more specific traits as talkative, energetic, and assertiveness. 2. Agreeableness which includes sympathtic, kind and affectionate approach. 3. Conscientiousness that includes traits such as being organized, thorough, and planful. 4. Neuroticism which includes traits like being tense, moody and anxious. 5. Openness to Experience which includes traits like having wide interests, being imaginative and insightful.(In short, the Big Five includes five traits, each beginning with the alphabets of the word OCEAN)

The correct answer is: Capacity

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16
Q

Biofeedback can mainly modify which of the following functions?

Select one:
Gastrointestinal function
Cardiovascular function
Musculoskeletal function
Respiratory function
Central nervous system function
A

Biofeedback involves the transmission to subjects of information about biological functions. It can modify cardiovascular function and is a useful method of reducing muscle tension. It is a technique for controlling physiological responses by receiving information about these responses as they occur. Monitoring devices track physiological responses such as heart rate, blood pressure, and muscle tension and provide the person with feedback in the form of light or tone whenever they change the response in the desired direction. With practice, a person can learn to control all sorts of bodily functions predominantly through relaxation (Excerpt retrieved from http://www.abahe.co.uk/biofeedback-definition.html).

The correct answer is: Cardiovascular function

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17
Q

Which of the following is not a part of the Big Five personality traits?

Select one:
Carefulness
Openness
Agreeableness
Neuroticism
Conscientiousness
A

Big Five traits (McCrae and Costa 1992) include OCEAN - Openness, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness and Neuroticism. This has provided a unified framework for trait research. NEO decreases with age; AC increases with age.

The correct answer is: Carefulness

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18
Q

The principle of combining separate pieces of information into one meaningful combination is called

Select one:
Encoding
Primacy effect
Chunking
Sensory storage
Recency effect
A

Chunking is a method of increasing the capacity of short-term memory by combining units or information (usually numbers) into chunks. By doing so, impressive feats of memory can result. For example the numbers 1,5,2,3,5.2,5,8,5,3,7,8 would normally overload our short term memory but if they are arranged into chunks 152, 352, 585, 378, they become a lot more manageable. The capacity of STM according to Miller is 7+/- 2, as evident while testing digit span. By chunking, larger information could be sorted into 7+/- 2 items and effectively stored.

The correct answer is: Chunking

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19
Q

In a scientific experiment, a neutral stimulus (a bell) is paired with a stimulus (food) that produces an autonomic response (salivation). Which of the following learning mechanisms has been employed?

Select one:
Systematic desensitization
Shaping
chaining
Operant conditioning
Classical conditioning
A

Classical conditioning is a basic form of learning. It was first described by Ivan Pavlov working on the conditioned reflex. He was able to take an autonomic reflex (e.g., salivation to food) that was thought to be unconditioned and demonstrated that it could be conditioned to respond to a new stimulus (e.g., a bell) if the new stimulus was presented along with or prior to the unconditioned stimulus (food). After a number of such presentations, the new stimulus (bell) would elicit the autonomic unconditioned response.

The correct answer is: Classical conditioning

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20
Q

The strategies to improve encoding includes all except

Select one:
Using imageries
Mnemonics
Using primacy-Recency effects
Cueing
Chunking
A

Strategies to improve encoding include - order and sorting info, chunking, mnemonics, using imageries, adding importance and salience to the info and using primacy-Recency effects. Retrieval can be helped by cueing and reinstatement of learning context. The more similar the retrieval situation is to the encoding situation, the better retrieval. This is called encoding specificity principle.

The correct answer is: Cueing

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21
Q

The most important and common bedside test that is used in demonstrating age-associated memory impairment would be;

Select one:
Delayed recall
Orientation to time and place
Immediate recall
Naming objects
Attention and calculation
A

40% of individuals aged 65 and over show AAMI. Cognitive testing has demonstrated that memory for non-verbal material seems to be more affected by aging than memory for verbal material, and delayed recall is more affected than immediate recall. Here the subject is given a list of 20 words and then ask him or her to recall as many as possible in 20 minutes. Finally, the score is compared with standardised scores for the given age.

The correct answer is: Delayed recall

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22
Q

Learned helplessness has been invoked to explain the aetiology of;

Select one:
Obsessive compulsive disorders
Psychosomatic disorders
Anxiety disorders
Psychotic disorders
Depressive disorders
A

Learned helplessness: This is the tendency of an organism to give up trying to avoid or escape from an unpleasant stimulus because in the past all their attempts at so doing had been frustrated. Dogs were given electric shocks and prevented from escaping but after repeated shocks the dogs would no longer try to escape, even when a fairly obvious means of escape was made available and this was invoked to explain the etiology of depression.

The correct answer is: Depressive disorders

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23
Q

A 45-year-old man was admitted to the acquired brain injury unit with severe memory impairment. Which of the common clinical tests can be used to test his immediate memory?

Select one:
Recall of last meal
Recall of distant personal events
Recall of items after 5 minutes
Recall of recent topics in news
Digit span
A

The terms used in psychology and psychiatry are somewhat different which could lead to some confusion. The terms used in psychology are short term memory (immediate memory in psychiatry) and long-term memory (recent memory and remote memory in psychiatry). Digit span tests immediate memory (STM). Recollection of a name and an address after 5 minutes is seen as a test of recent memory (which, in fact, is a part of LTM and should not be considered as a test of STM)

The correct answer is: Digit span

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24
Q

Which is a form of negative reinforcement used in the treatment of alcohol dependence?

Select one:
Apomorphine treatment
Aversion therapy using electric shock
Covert sensitization
Disulfiram
Alcoholics anonymous
A

The use of disulfiram - a deterrent agent (also called alcohol-sensitizing drug) - is a form of behavioural modification with negative reinforcement used in the treatment of alcohol dependence.

The correct answer is: Disulfiram

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25
Q

All of the following are true with respect to coping process when faced with a life stressor except

Select one:
In emotion-focused coping the individual alters his emotional self-appraisal to the stressful situation
During primary appraisal the individual evaluates his resources to cope
In problem-focused coping the individual attempts to change the stressful situation
Individuals employ a variety of different strategies to cope
There is no universally best strategy for coping

A

Primary appraisal - the individual evaluates the stressor. Secondary appraisal - the individual evaluates his resources and options available to manage the stressful situation.

The correct answer is: During primary appraisal the individual evaluates his resources to cope

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26
Q

Which of the following theorists proposed six basic emotions?

Select one:
Ekman
Lorenz
Cannon and Bard
James and Lange
Ainsworth
A

According to Paul Ekman, the six basic emotions are sadness, happiness, anger, fear, disgust, and surprise. These emotions combine in different ways to form other emotions, including compassion, boredom, embarrassment, rage, hunger, and more.

The correct answer is: Ekman

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27
Q

Information is held in the long term memory by the process of

Select one:
Rote rehearsal
Elaborative rehearsal
Maintenance rehearsal
Recency effect
Displacement of older memories
A

Rehearsal is supposed to be the transient control process that can aid maintenance of STM and transfer to LTM. Other control processes include encoding, retrieval strategies and decision to remember. Rehearsal may be maintenance/rote rehearsal or elaborative rehearsal where encoding is semantically elaborated or changed. Maintenance rehearsal is simple and refers to the repetition of items in one’s mind and occasionally by verbal repetition (e.g., trying to remember a telephone number). Elaborative rehearsal involves more extensive understanding of the meaning of the material, a process involving long-term memory. It is proposed that rehearsal can take place at three levels of processing. Shallow processing where surface features are only rehearsed, phonemic processing where sound features are rehearsed or semantic processing where deeper encoding and meaning related associations are made. A higher level of processing depends on time available and nature of the material processed.

The correct answer is: Elaborative rehearsal

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28
Q

Which of the following refers to the formation of initial memory traces?

Select one:
Retention
Forgetting
Retrieval
Storage
Encoding
A

In all operations involving memory, three different processes are thought to occur. Encoding; It leads to the formation of initial memory traces and receives information from the outside. The encoding is acoustic in short term memory and semantic in long term memory. Storage: Retention of information and maintenance. Retrieval; Accessing and recovering information from memory stores.

The correct answer is: Encoding

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29
Q

Amnesic syndrome is characterised by a marked impairment in

Select one:
Procedural memory
Working memory
Episodic memory
Semantic memory
Implicit memory
A

The term amnesia refers to episodic memory loss.

The correct answer is: Episodic memory

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30
Q

Which one of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs represents the need to develop a sense of personal worth and competence and the need for recognition by others?

Select one:
Aesthetic and cognitive needs
Physiological needs
Self actualisation needs
Esteem needs
Motivation needs
A

Esteem needs- the need to develop a sense of personal worth and competence and the need for recognition by others. Aesthetic and cognitive needs- These are growth needs involving knowledge, understanding, beauty and symmetry. The need for self-actualisations is the desire to become more and more what one is, to become everything that one is capable of becoming.. According to Maslow, the following characters are seen in self-actualizing people. They are Spontaneous in their ideas and actions, Creative. Interested in solving problems, Appreciate life, Have a system of internalized independent morality and can view all things in an objective manner.

The correct answer is: Esteem needs

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31
Q

A reinforced operant response weakens when the reinforcement is ceased. This is called

Select one:
Stimulus decoupling
Stimulus sensitisation
Extinction
Stimulus discrimination
Stimulus incubation
A

Extinction is typically studied within the Pavlovian fear conditioning framework in which extinction refers to the reduction in a conditioned response (CR; e.g., fear response/freezing) when a conditioned stimulus (CS; e.g., neutral stimulus/light or tone) is repeatedly presented in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus (US; e.g., foot shock/loud noise) with which it has been previously paired.

The correct answer is: Extinction

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32
Q

Which one of the following is a way of measuring personality along the dimensions of extroversion-introversion and neuroticism-stability?

Select one:
Rorschach ink blot test
Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory
Draw a person test
Thematic apperception test
Eysenck Personality Inventory
A

EPI is a way of measuring personality along the dimensions of extroversion-introversion and neuroticism stability. The inventory also includes a lie scale.

The correct answer is: Eysenck Personality Inventory

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33
Q

Mr. X was seen in the psychiatric outpatient clinic. He complains of absent-mindedness and is failing to take medications and keep appointments. This is due to

Select one:
Failure of conditioning
Failure of encoding
Failure of context dependent memory
Failure of prospective memory
Failure of State dependent memory
A

Failure of prospective memory is a common cause of absent mindedness. Prospective memory is the ability to carry out particular actions or perform planned actions and appears to involve the prefrontal lobes of the brain. This is one of the findings/theories of retrieval failure.

The correct answer is: Failure of prospective memory

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34
Q

Which one among the following is not one of the Gestalt principles of perception?

Select one:
Similarity
Continuity
Closure
Familiarity
Proximity
A

The Gestalt principles of perception would include proximity, closure, similarity, continuity and symmetry. According to Gestalt principles, we tend to perceive whole objects rather than parts. The perceptual system in our brains employs these principles to enable us perceive unified forms rather than simple collections of unconnected images.

The correct answer is: Familiarity

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35
Q

According to Ebbinghaus curve, there is a sharp drop in forgetting over

Select one:
First eighteen hours
First seven days
First twenty four hours
First one month
First nine hours
A

Hermann Ebbinghaus plotted the forgetting curve by plotting proportion of words retained in memory against time. The curve shows a sharp drop over the first nine hours and particularly during the first hour. After nine hours, the rate of forgetting slows and declines little thereafter, even after the lapse of 31 days. The main findings from his and other studies are; Forgetting is maximum in the first few hours and the rate of forgetting gets less with time. Forgetting is never complete and some information is retained over longer periods of time, even for life. Recalling the material during the test period increases the probability of remembering items or events. Continuous motor skills such as cycling and swimming etc show no forgetting at all. But discrete motors kills such as typing are lost more quickly.

The correct answer is: First nine hours

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36
Q

Mr. X mentioned that he has vivid memories of where he was, what he was doing and was even able to remember other fine details, when he heard the news of suicide bombing of the twin towers in 2001. These memories have been termed as

Select one:
Selective memory
Flashbulb memories
Autobiographical memory
Procedural memory
Semantic memory
A

Episodic memory is autobiographical, self-focussed spatio-temporal memory. Flashbulb memory is a special episodic memory where people remember clearly where and what they were doing at times of specific global events like September 11, 2001, etc.

The correct answer is: Flashbulb memories

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37
Q

In a behavioural technique, actual exposure to feared stimulus takes place for a substantial amount of time, so the accompanying anxiety response fades away. This is called

Select one:
Aversive conditioning
Covert reinforcement
Covert sensitisation
Flooding (in vivo)
Implosion (in vitro)
A

Implosion is ‘in vitro’, - imaginary exposure in behavioural therapy.

The correct answer is: Flooding (in vivo)

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38
Q

In a Pavlovian conditioning paradigm, the bell is ringed before the food is presented. But the bell continued till salivation appeared. This is called

Select one:
Backward conditioning
Pseudoconditioning
Forward conditioning
Trace conditioning
Simultaneous conditioning
A

In forward conditioning, the conditioned stimulus is presented before the unconditioned stimulus, and the combined stimuli persist until the unconditioned response is elicited during the pairing.

The correct answer is: Forward conditioning

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39
Q

The brain region thought to be responsible for majority of working memory functions is

Select one:
Cerebellum
Dorsal thalamus
Frontal lobe
Hippocampus
Temporal lobe
A

Several event-related functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) studies have found persistent frontal-lobe activity during retention intervals of delayed response tasks (a WM task). The parietal lobe is also important for this function.

The correct answer is: Frontal lobe

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40
Q

A Lotto player thinks that more he loses, the more chances that he wins later. So he keeps playing the Lotto. This is best described as

Select one:
Social loafing
Base rate fallacy
Entrapment
Gambler's fallacy
Availability heuristics
A

Gambler’s fallacy: an outcome is due as it has not happened for some time. So a gambler thinks that more he loses, the more chances that he wins later.

The correct answer is: Gambler’s fallacy

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41
Q

Raven’s progressive matrices test is used to assess

Select one:
Premorbid intelligence
Frontal lobe functions
General intellectual ability
Visuospatial ability
Attentional bias
A

Raven’s Progressive Matrices (often referred to simply as Raven’s Matrices) are multiple-choice intelligence tests of abstract reasoning that provide culturally unbiased IQ estimates. Rey Osterrieth test comprises of copying a complex figure initially and then reproducing it from immediate and delayed recall that tests both visual memory and constructional ability

The correct answer is: General intellectual ability

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42
Q

Which of the following can test abstract reasoning?

Select one:
Digit symbol substitution test
Clock drawing test
Trail making test
n-back test
Goldstein's card sorting test
A

The Goldstein-Scheerer Color Form Sorting Test was initially designed to test abstract reasoning (concept formation rather than the simple identification of abstract rules). Wisconsin card sorting test is a descendant of Goldstein task nd it tests concept identification rather than formation

The correct answer is: Goldstein’s card sorting test

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43
Q

Which of the following behavioural treatment is useful in trichotillomania?

Select one:
Massed negative practice
Exposure and response prevention
Habit reversal
Biofeedback
Imaginal flooding
A

Habit reversal training (HRT) is a behavioral treatment package useful in tics and other OCD spectrum disorders such as trichotillomania, nail biting, thumb sucking, and skin picking, etc.

The correct answer is: Habit reversal

44
Q

A medical student becomes more comfortable in the anatomy laboratory after several weeks of exposure to it. Which of the following explains this process?

Select one:
Positive reinforcement
Habituation
Negative reinforcement
Modeling
Classical conditioning
A

The decline in responsiveness or reaction to the repeated presentation of a stimulus is known as habituation.

The correct answer is: Habituation

45
Q

Which of the following psychological theories is not concerned with the faculties of memory and forgetting?

Select one:
Trace decay theory
Hierarchy theory
Interference theory
Repression
State dependent learning
A

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory is a theory of motivation/drives and not a theory of memory.

The correct answer is: Hierarchy theory

46
Q

Which of the following is a feature of Type A personality?

Select one:
High competitiveness
Being relaxed
Being patient
Evading stress
Easy-going without time pressure
A

Friedman and Rosenman introduced Type A / Type B personality classification. Type A persons show impatience, excessive time consciousness, insecurity, high competitiveness, hostility and aggression and are incapable of relaxation. They may be high achievers and workaholics. Type B persons are relaxed and easy-going; creative, often self-analyze and evade stress but cope poorly when under stress.

The correct answer is: High competitiveness

47
Q

Mr. Z was admitted to a neuropsychiatric unit with a diagnosis of an amnesic syndrome. He was referred to psychology for psychometric testing. Which of the following would be unimpaired in formal testing?

Select one:
Episodic memory of recent past
Anterograde memory
New learning
Immediate memory
Delayed recall
A

Various disorders can give rise to amnesic syndromes (E.g. hypoxia, herpes encephalitis) and the features would include 1. Unimpaired immediate memory. 2. The presence of anterograde amnesia- inability to acquire new information (impaired delayed recall) 3. The presence of retrograde amnesia of variable extent and severity 4. Unimpaired global intellectual abilities 5. Unimpaired implicit memory

The correct answer is: Immediate memory

48
Q

When carried out in imagination, Immediate exposure to elements at the top of the hierarchy without any gradation of anxiety-inducing stimuli is termed as;

Select one:
Implosion
Covert sensitisation
Avoidance
Flooding
Discriminative stimulus
A

Immediate exposure to elements at the top of the hierarchy without any gradation of anxiety-inducing stimuli is called as ‘flooding’ when carried out in vivo and called as ‘implosion therapy’ when done through imagination.

The correct answer is: Implosion

49
Q

Which one among the following statements is true about classical conditioning?

Select one:
Classical conditioning occurs when a new stimulus is repeatedly paired with a conditioned stimulus.
Classical conditioning was first demonstrated by skinner
Classical conditioning takes place irrespective of the nature of the unconditioned stimulus
Classical conditioning is a slow process depending on repeated presentations of the stimulus
In classical conditioning, the responses are often autonomic

A

In classical conditioning, the responses are often autonomic. E.g Salivation response. Classical conditioning occurs when a new stimulus is repeatedly paired with a unconditioned stimulus (UCS) which is known to elicit a given unconditioned response (UCR). This results in the new stimulus becoming able to elicit the same response. Ivan Pavlov first demonstrated this.

The correct answer is: In classical conditioning, the responses are often autonomic

50
Q

Which one among the following statements regarding needs and motivation is incorrect?

Select one:
according to Yerkes-Dodson curve, there is an inverted U-shaped relationship between arousal (motivation) and performance level
According to Canon’s homeostatic theory, changes in homeostatic system triggers processes aimed at restoration of system
According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, Needs at the previous level need to be satisfied before one can progress to the next level
According to Drive reduction theory, motivation of behaviour is to decrease the arousal associated with basic drives
In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, cognitive needs precede esteem needs

A

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs: Maslow is best known for his hierarchy of needs in which he proposed that basic needs such as the physiological needs of hunger and thirst must be satisfied before the higher needs (such as esteem and self actualisation) can be achieved. Physiological needs, safety needs, Love and belongingness needs, esteem needs, Cognitive needs, Aesthetic needs and self-actualisation needs. Cannon postulated the homeostatic drive theory. According to this theory, changes in homeostatic system triggers processes aimed at restoration of system. Basic needs (biological needs), being self-regulating, function homeostatically. According to Yerkes-Dodson curve, there is an inverted U-shaped relationship between arousal (motivation) and performance level. As the level of emotional arousal increases, so does performance efficiency, to an optimum level. As the emotional arousal increases above this point, performance starts to deteriorate The drive reduction theory by Hull: According to this theory, motivation of behaviour is to decrease the arousal associated with basic drives e.g. thirst but doesn’t explain curiosity motives and the theory is generally rejected.

The correct answer is: In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, cognitive needs precede esteem needs

51
Q

Which of the following best describes Ribot’s law in memory disturbances?

Select one:
In organic amnesia remote memory content is lost before recent content.
In organic amnesia recent memory content is lost before remote content.
In dissociative amnesia anterograde amnesia is dense.
In organic amnesia anterograde amnesia cannot occur without retrograde loss.
In dissociative amnesia recent memory content is lost before remote content.

A

Ribot’s Law refers to progressive amnesia as a temporal gradient going from the most recent to the oldest memories

The correct answer is: In organic amnesia recent memory content is lost before remote content.

52
Q

Flynn effect refers to which of the following phenomenon?

Select one:
Increasing IQ with successive generations
Changes of IQ with cultural variations
If an IQ test is repeated on the same individual the score increases
Changes of IQ with language
If IQ of parents is high, then the IQ of the child is high.

A

Flynn effect refers to the generational increase in IQ scores. Flynn suggested that IQ tests do not measure intelligence but rather correlate with a weak causal link to intelligence (Flynn, 1987). Based on the presence of the effect on nonverbal tests such as the Raven’s Matrices, Flynn believed that the generational IQ increase is due an improved problem-solving capacity rather than actual gain in intelligence.

The correct answer is: Increasing IQ with successive generations

53
Q

Increase in the strength of the response following brief but repeated exposure to the stimulus is called

Select one:
Stimulus generalisation
Habituation
Incubation
Extinction
Stimulus preparedness
A

Extinction occurs when the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus. It is a concept in classical conditioning. It can be delayed by random reinforcement during the acquisition phase. Incubation refers to increase in the strength of a response following brief but repeated exposures to a stimulus. In habituation, the successive presentation of a stimulus, which elicits a response eventually, leads to decrease in the intensity of that response. Stimulus generalisation is a concept in classical conditioning. It refers to the process by which CR gets generalised to other stimuli that are similar to the CS. The fear that a child with a spider phobia shows towards insects is an example of stimulus generalisation. Humans are biologically predisposed to react with fear to certain stimuli. This is stimulus preparedness and here conditioning occurs more quickly and more resistant to extinction in the case of such prepared stimuli e.g. snake phobias.

The correct answer is: Incubation

54
Q

Which of the following is an inaccurate statement concerning sensory memory?

Select one:
Sensory memory is modality specific
Each sense has its own sensory memory e.g. iconic (visual), echoic (auditory) etc.
Information is processed in sensory memory.
It has a large capacity but gets disrupted by inflow of new information in same modality
Information that is attended to is transferred to short-term memory store and information that is not selected for processing is rapidly lost.

A

Sensory memory: This is modality specific, has a large capacity but gets disrupted by the inflow of new information in the same modality. Each sense has its own sensory memory e.g. iconic (visual), echoic (auditory), etc. Iconic mode lasts for 0.5 seconds while echoic mode lasts for 2 seconds. No processing is involved in sensory memory. Information that is attended to is transferred to short-term memory store, and information that is not selected for processing is rapidly lost.

The correct answer is: Information is processed in sensory memory.

55
Q

Which one among the following statements is true?

Select one:
Positive reinforcement reduces the likelihood of a behaviour occurring
Negative reinforcement reduces the likelihood of a behaviour occurring
Intermittent reinforcement schedules result in acquired behaviours that are more resistant to extinction than behaviours induced by continuous reinforcement
Partial reinforcement leads to rapid acquisition and slower extinction of a response
In negative reinforcement, presentation of an aversive stimulus weakens the response

A

Partial reinforcement leads to a slower acquisition and slower extinction of a response. In negative reinforcement, removal of an aversive stimulus strengthens the response while in punishment presentation of an aversive stimulus weakens the response. Food, water-primary reinforcers, which are thought to act through the reduction of basic drives/needs. Money, tokens, fame-secondary reinforcers and they derive their reinforcing qualities through association with primary reinforcers.

The correct answer is: Intermittent reinforcement schedules result in acquired behaviours that are more resistant to extinction than behaviours induced by continuous reinforcement

56
Q

Cognitive processing during social learning includes all except

Select one:
Motivation to act
Judgement
Semantic encoding of observed behaviour
Attention
Retention and rehearsal
A

Cognitive processing during social learning involves various domains: 1. Attention to observed behaviour is the basic element in learning. 2. Visual image and semantic encoding of observed behaviour memory 3. Memory permanence via retention and rehearsal 4. Motor copying of the behaviour and imitative reproduction 5. Motivation to act.

The correct answer is: Judgement

57
Q

Which of the following would demonstrate declarative memories?

Select one:
Knowledge of how to drive a car
Knowledge of how to ride a bike
Knowledge of capital of different countries
Knowledge of how to swim
Knowledge of how to write a letter
A

Declarative memory refers to the recollection of events, facts and information. It has two components; episodic and semantic memory. It is tested by tests of recall and recognition. Episodic memory; refers to memories for events and personal experiences from the past. It contains memory for specific episodes in one’s life, and it is also sometimes known as autobiographical memory. The semantic memory includes factual knowledge of the world and is concerned with remembering facts, ideas and concepts. Non declarative memory; refers to a collection of abilities and skills that has been acquired previously. It is made of procedural memory for skills and habits, priming, classical conditioning and non-associative learning

The correct answer is: Knowledge of capital of different countries

58
Q

A 55-year-old heavy alcoholic was admitted to the medical ward after sustaining a major fall. He has severe Anterograde amnesia and extensive retrograde memory loss. However his working memory and procedural memory are unimpaired. What is his most likely diagnosis?

Select one:
Psychogenic amnesia
Transient organic amnesia
Korsakoff's syndrome
Wernicke's encephalopathy
Early stages of Alcoholic dementia
A

Korsakoff’s syndrome: It is a form of an amnesic syndrome often occurring in patients with a history of severe alcohol abuse leading to thiamine deficiency. The patient may have severe Anterograde amnesia and extensive retrograde memory loss. This retrograde memory loss includes autobiographical memory loss with relative sparing of the most distant memories. Working memory and procedural memory are unimpaired. The pathological features are mostly found in paraventricular and periaqueductal grey matter, thalamus and mamillary bodies.

The correct answer is: Korsakoff’s syndrome

59
Q

Which of the following is correct concerning sensory memory?. Sensory memory has

Select one:
Small capacity but memories are unprocessed and of long duration (>0.5s)
Small capacity and memories are unprocessed and of very short duration (0.5s)
Large capacity but memories are processed and of very short duration (

A

Sensory memory retains the transient impression of a sensory stimulus even after the stimulus itself has ceased. Imagine, seeing an object. Even after the object has disappeared, it may still be vivid in your memory. It has a large capacity, but objects are unprocessed.

The correct answer is: Large capacity but memories are unprocessed and of very short duration (

60
Q

Strongest learning occurs when the delay is;

Select one:
More than 0.5 seconds
More than 5 seconds
Less than 5 seconds
Less than 0.5 seconds
More than 0.05 seconds
A

Longer the interval, poorer the learning.

The correct answer is: Less than 0.5 seconds

61
Q

Which one among the following is a secondary emotion?

Select one:
Fear
Joy
Love
Sadness
Anger
A

Primary emotions-anger, disgust, joy, anticipation, fear, acceptance, surprise and sadness (classified by Plutchik) . Secondary emotions include love, contempt, submission and disappointment.

The correct answer is: Love

62
Q

Which one among the following statements is false about modelling?

Select one:
Modelling can Lead to aggression
Modelling can also lead to social facilitation and can result in skilled behaviour
Modelling can increase the pain threshold and anxiety threshold.
Observational learning is more likely to occur if the model has some characteristics in common with the observer
Modelling refers to the learning that takes place spontaneously by observing the behaviour of another person

A

Modelling can also lead to social facilitation, can result in skilled behaviour, can lower the pain threshold and anxiety threshold. Observational learning is more likely to occur if the model has some characteristics in common with the observer. Other Effective models for observational learning include competency of the model, perceived high status and possess social influence or power.

The correct answer is: Modelling can increase the pain threshold and anxiety threshold.

63
Q

Which of the following test can be used to determine pre-morbid intelligence of a 70-year-old coal miner who shows signs of cognitive impairment?

Select one:
National Adult Reading Test
Rey-Osterrieth Complex figure test
Minnesota Multiphasic inventory
Wechsler's Adult Intelligence Test - block design subtest
Trail making test B
A

To determine premorbid IQ NART - National Adult Reading Test can be used. Other tests include Weschler’s test for Adult reading, Barona demographic equation method and matrix reasoning subtest of WAIS-R.

The correct answer is: National Adult Reading Test

64
Q

The socio-psychological approach is adopted by which of the following theories of motivation?

Select one:
Maslow's hierarchy of needs
Drive reduction theory
Arousal reduction theory
Needs theory
Homeostatic theory
A

The Homeostatic drive theory (Cannon), Drive reduction theory (Hull) and Arousal reduction theory (Hebb) are all based on biopsychological perspective, which examines the physiological motives such as hunger, thirst etc in humans and animals. They are also called as extrinsic motivation theories. The Needs theory and Goal theory, also called intrinsic motivation theories, are based on sociopsychological approach which addresses the cognitive motives behind people’s complex behaviour in the context of their social situations such as work, family and society. Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs is based on the humanistic approach that tries to explain why people strive to achieve higher and higher goals in an attempt to attain self-fulfillment.

The correct answer is: Needs theory

65
Q

Compulsions provide short-term relief of obsessional anxiety. The learning principle operating here is

Select one:
Positive reinforcement
Negative reinforcement
Reciprocal inhibition
Punishment
Reward orientation
A

Compulsions provide short-term relief of obsessional anxiety via negative reinforcement. When practicing compulsive rituals, anxiety is acutely reduced. This provides a reinforcement to practice the compulsions repeatedly. In other words the termination of the aversive anxiety cued by obsessions, increases or stamps in the compulsive behaviour that removed the anxiety, without addressing the core of obsessions.

The correct answer is: Negative reinforcement

66
Q

Which of the following describes Eysenck’s model of personality traits?

Select one:
Neuroticism, depression, psychoticism
Neuroticism, apathy, psychoticism
Neuroticism, extroversion, introversion
Neuroticism, extraversion, psychoticism
Neuroticism, introversion, psychoticism
A

Eysenck’s theory is also called the three-factor theory or the P-E-N theory. The three higher-order factors are extraversion-introversion; neuroticism-stability and psychoticism-impulse control. His work asserts that the P-E-N dimensions are biologically based and largely heritable.

The correct answer is: Neuroticism, extraversion, psychoticism

67
Q

Which one among the following cannot be consciously inspected?

Select one:
Autobiographical memory
Semantic memory
Episodic memory
Declarative memory
Non declarative memory
A

Non declarative memory; refers to a collection of abilities and skills that has been acquired previously. This cannot be consciously inspected and does not involve conscious recollection of a previous experience. It is made of procedural memory (memory for motor, perceptual and intuitive cognitive skills- E.g. driving a car, riding a bike), priming, classical conditioning and non-associative learning. Procedural memory often involves skills and is also sometimes known as skills memory.

The correct answer is: Non declarative memory

68
Q

A rat receives positive reinforcement (a food pellet) for pressing a bar that turns on a red light, but not an adjacent bar that turns on a green light. The process that best explains this is

Select one:
chaining
Operant conditioning
Containing
Systematic desensitization
Shaping
A

Operant conditioning, sometimes called instrumental conditioning, was formulated by Thorndike and later developed by Skinner. In operant conditioning, a new behavioral response is learned, as compared with classical conditioning in which a new stimulus is conditioned (learned) to elicit the same response or behavior. In operant conditioning, reinforcement becomes the key stimulus that increases the likelihood that the desired behavior will be repeated or strengthened.

The correct answer is: Operant conditioning

69
Q

A candidate who is attempting his final exam before graduation thinks that he is going to fail the whole exam as he has got one ‘obvious question’ wrong. He is exhibiting

Select one:
Overgeneralisation
Rationalisation
Projection
Denial
Splitting
A

Generalizing a small element to the whole is called overgeneralization- e.g. A depressed schoolteacher thinks “one student in the class is sleeping so the entire class is bored of my lecture.”

The correct answer is: Overgeneralisation

70
Q

Which one among the following statements regarding perception is incorrect?

Select one:
The perceptual set is determined by factors both in the perceiver and in the stimulus.
The perceptual set is influenced by Emotions
Perceptual set’ is the perceptual bias that predisposes the perceiver to notice only certain aspects of a stimulus and to ignore the other aspects.
The perceptual set is influenced by past experiences
Perceptual set predisposes the perceiver to notice all aspects of a stimulus simultaneously

A

The perceptual set is the perceptual bias that predisposes the perceiver to notice only certain aspects of a stimulus and to ignore the other aspects. The perceptual set is determined by factors both in the perceiver and in the stimulus. The factors include the threshold for perception eg cocktail party phenomenon, personality, past experience, emotions (anxious people biased towards perception of threat-related stimuli), individual values (children exaggerate the size of coins), current drive state and environment (Eskimos recognise 100 different kinds of snow).

The correct answer is: Perceptual set predisposes the perceiver to notice all aspects of a stimulus simultaneously

71
Q

Mr. Y is admitted to a medical ward with a diagnosis of delirium. The cognitive deficit that is characteristic of delirium is

Select one:
Long term memory impairment
Disorientation for time
Poor attention span
Visuospatial impairment
Short term memory impairment
A

Delirium occurs in many hospitalized older patients and has serious consequences including increased risk for death and admission to long-term care.Impaired attention is the cardinal feature of delirium.

The correct answer is: Poor attention span

72
Q

A child was told to finish homework tasks before he can play outside. This is based on

Select one:
Cognitive mapping
Reciprocal inhibition
Classical conditioning
Premack's principle
Operant conditioning
A

Premack’s principle states that high-frequency or high-probability behaviours can be used as a reinforcement for low-probability behaviors. To make a person perform an undesirable, low-frequency act, the contingency of a desirable and preferable activity can be tied to the occurrence of the undesirable act. This is what grandmothers do when they say “eat the spinach, I will then give you a candy”.

The correct answer is: Premack’s principle

73
Q

Mr. Z visited his doctor and following his visit he remembered the first few things they had been told better than subsequent information. What is the name of this tendency?

Select one:
Referred effect
Primary effect
Recency effect
Primacy effect
Preliminary effect
A

Serial position effect: While memorising and recollecting a list of words both Primacy and Recency effects are seen. In free recall experiments, materials that were presented first are better recalled than items in the middle, which is called as primacy effect. Also items that are presented towards the end of the list are more likely to be remembered, which is called as Recency effect. Primacy is supposed to be due to LTM as consolidation has occurred in the sufficient time between learning the first word and testing recall. Recency is due to STM where last heard words are freshly retained.

The correct answer is: Primacy effect

74
Q

Mr. Y has amnesia following traumatic brain injury involving the hippocampus. Which of the following would be spared?

Select one:
None of the above
Episodic memory
Procedural memory
Semantic memory
Autobiographical memory
A

Non declarative memory cannot be considered as a system and is a collection of memory for a variety of tasks. One key finding has been that in patients with damage to the hippocampus and associated structures these skills are spared.

The correct answer is: Procedural memory

75
Q

The traits included in ‘big five’ theory include all except

Select one:
Conscientiousness
Neuroticism
Psychoticism
Openness
Extraversion
A

OCEAN stands for Openness, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness, Neuroticism.

The correct answer is: Psychoticism

76
Q

A parrot was given a new cage. When the parrot touched a lever in the cage, it received an electric shock. It did not touch the lever again. The learning process that has occurred here is;

Select one:
Observational learning
Shaping
Negative reinforcement
Chaining
Punishment
A

In behaviourism, punishment refers to the consequence for undesired behavior. Punishment can be either negative or positive, depending on the nature of the consequence.

The correct answer is: Punishment

77
Q

Which of the following test is a measure of nonverbal intelligence?

Select one:
Sternberg triarchic abilities test
General aptitude test battery
Standford binet test
Raven's progressive matrices
Weschler's adult intelligence scale
A

Raven’s Progressive Matrices are used in the assessment of general cognitive abilities in children and adult. The Progressive Matrices usefully provide an assessment of non-verbal ability, an important feature in ethnically diverse populations

The correct answer is: Raven’s progressive matrices

78
Q

A family has got a new dog. A 3-year-old child in the family is afraid of dogs and would stay in the same room with the dog only if he could sit on his mother’s lap and had his favourite ice cream. Select the learning theory principle employed here

Select one:
Reciprocal inhibition
Avoidance learning
Classical conditioning
Operant conditioning
Extinction
A

This scenario is an example of reciprocal inhibition (Wolpe). This principle states that two opposing emotions cannot stay together for long time - one will reciprocally inhibit the other. Comfort with mother and ice-cream conflicts with discomfort produced by the dog - eventually the dog stops eliciting discomfort. This principle underlies most psychological therapies for anxiety disorders.

The correct answer is: Reciprocal inhibition

79
Q

A person cannot have two opposing physiological states at the same time. For example, it is not possible to be relaxed and anxious simultaneously. In learning theory, this notion is called

Select one:
Stimulus preparedness
Learned helplessness
Reciprocal inhibition
Cognitive dissonance
Participant modelling
A

When anxiety and a relaxed state are co-existent, then anxiety reduces - this is called as reciprocal inhibition.

The correct answer is: Reciprocal inhibition

80
Q

A group of subjects studying molecular biology were asked to solve Multiple choice questions. What mode of retrieval is this?

Select one:
Recall
Reintegration
Reconstruction
Re-learning
Recognition
A

Modes of retrieval (LTM transferred onto STM) are through 1.Recognition (solving MCQs) 2.Recall (actively searching and reproducing), 3.Reintegration/reconstruction (recollection of past experiences based on certain cues). An eyewitness testimony is a reconstructive memory, which is a mode of retrieval from long-term memory. However, a reconstructive memory of events as in eyewitness testimony is affected by the type of questioning asked to elicit the memory.

The correct answer is: Recognition

81
Q

George has a history of anxiety disorder. On visiting a church, he developed a sense of familiarity because his stored memories were brought into his consciousness. This phenomenon is called

Select one:
Jamais vu
Recognition
Retrospective falsification
DeJa vu
False memory syndrome
A

Recognition refers to the retrieval of stored information from memory upon presenting cues that are previously learned. It is often contrasted with recall, which involves reproduction of remembered information without cues. The difference between recall and recognition is striking. While individuals may be able to recall some items that have been learned, they can recognize many more. (Ref: Oxford Dictionary of Psychology- Pg 643)

The correct answer is: Recognition

82
Q

Timeout refers to a technique that is aimed at

Select one:
Generalising a learnt behaviour
Reducing desirable behaviour
Increasing unwanted behaviour
Learning new behaviour
Reducing unwanted behaviour
A

Time out or loss of privileges are used as negative reinforcement strategies to reduce unwanted behaviours in children

The correct answer is: Reducing unwanted behaviour

83
Q

Which one among the following refers to the act of bringing past experiences as they happened into conscious awareness?

Select one:
Recall
Relearning
Recognition
Reintegration
Recollection
A

The process of recalling an entire memory from a partial cue, like remembering a speech upon hearing the first few words, is called reintegration.

The correct answer is: Reintegration

84
Q

The concept of motivated forgetting is based on the psychoanalytic concept of

Select one:
Denial
Regression
All of the above
Repression
Displacement
A

The theory of motivated forgetting suggests that we forget things because unconsciously we want to.

The correct answer is: Repression

85
Q

The commonest cause of long-term forgetting is

Select one:
Failure in encoding at the time of the input
Retrieval failure
Failure of transfer of information from short term to long term memory
Failure of transfer of information from long term to short term memory
Failure in encoding at the time of retrieval

A

The cause of long-term forgetting may be due to; Failure in encoding at the time of the input, failure of transfer of information from short-term to long term memory and retrieval failure (more commonly).

The correct answer is: Retrieval failure

86
Q

Mr. X was admitted to an intensive medical care unit following a severe head injury. On formal cognitive testing, he was unable to recall salient experiences in the days and weeks before the injury. What type of amnesia is this?

Select one:
Hysterical amnesia
Post traumatic amnesia
Retrograde amnesia
Transient global amnesia
Anterograde amnesia
A

The loss of episodic memories that were stored before brain damage had occurred is known as retrograde amnesia. Many patients may have lost the ability to form or retain new episodic memories, a condition called anterograde amnesia. Transient global amnesia is caused by transient cerebral ischemia causing a temporary lack of blood supply to the regions of the brain concerned with memory functions. The main features include sudden onset of severe anterograde amnesia with a retrograde amnesia for the preceding days or weeks. Sometimes amnesic episodes may occur in patients who have had no brain injury but who have suffered a traumatic or emotionally disturbing life event, and it is called hysterical amnesia.

The correct answer is: Retrograde amnesia

87
Q

The modification of memories in terms of one’s general attitude is called

Select one:
False memory syndrome
Semantic memory
Repressed memory
Flashbulb memory
Retrospective falsification
A

Unconscious distortion of memory, as dictated by one’s present psychological needs, is called as Retrospective Falsification. People who retrospectively falsify a story also tend to embellish the positive and delete the negative aspects of the situation. Example: During marital conflicts argument ensues over the partners’ differing recollections of their original verbal exchanges.

The correct answer is: Retrospective falsification

88
Q

The memories closest to a disruptive event are most vulnerable to loss. This is called

Select one:
Senile hypothesis
Dwarf hypothesis
Ribot's hypothesis
Moral hypothesis
Glutamate hypothesis
A

Consolidation is perhaps most often suggested as an explanation for the gradient in retrograde amnesia (Alvarez and Squire, 1994; Mc Clelland et al. , 1995; Murre, 1996) . After damage to the hippocampal memory system, patients tend to lose more of their recent than of their remote memories (Kim and Fanselow, 1992; Kopelman, 1989; Squire, 1992) . This pattern will here be referred to as the Ribot gradient after Theodule Ribot, who first suggested that recent memories might be more vulnerable to brain damage than remote memories (Ribot, 1881) . The Ribot gradient can be explained by assuming that memories are first dependent on a hippocampal memory system for their retrieval. Through consolidation memories gradually become stored in the neocortex, making them independent of the hippocampal system (Squire and Alvarez, 1995; Squire et al. , 1984) . If the hippocampal system is damaged, recent memories are lost as they still depend on that system. Old memories have already been stored in the neocortex through consolidation and are thus spared. [Meeter and Muller 2004, Psychiatric Bulletin]

The correct answer is: Ribot’s hypothesis

89
Q

Choose the most unstructured test from the following list

Select one:
Sentence Completion Test
Stanford Binet Test
Rorschach Inkblot test
Thematic Appreception Test
Weschler Memory Scale
A

The Rorschach Inkblot Test is a method of psychological evaluation in which subjects’ perceptions of ten standardized inkblots are recorded and then analyzed. Some psychologists use this test to try to examine the personality characteristics and emotional functioning of their patients.

The correct answer is: Rorschach Inkblot test

90
Q

Which among the following is defined as the basic building block or unit of intelligent behaviour?

Select one:
Adaptation
Assimilation
Equilibration
Accommodation
Schema
A

A schema is defined as the basic building block or unit of intelligent behaviour. Schemas consist of organised past experiences to understand future experiences. We have physical schemas such as bike riding schema and mental schemas such as addition, multiplication and division schema

The correct answer is: Schema

91
Q

The storage of information in pure form without specification of time and place is called

Select one:
Semantic memory
Episodic memory
Absolute memory
Schemas
Declarative memory
A

Semantic memory is an important part of declarative memory and is concerned with remembering facts, ideas and concepts. It refers to what is known rather than when and how the knowledge was acquired. Eg in answering a question ‘what is the capital of Scotland’, one is using semantic memory. Most abstract knowledge consists of material drawn from semantic memory (Ref: Psychological basis of psychiatry; Thambirajah- 162)

The correct answer is: Semantic memory

92
Q

Which one among the following is not correctly paired?

Select one:
Pavlov-Classical conditioning
Thorndike-Law of effect
Tolman-Latent learning
Skinner-Modelling
Kohler-insight learning
A

Modelling is a type of observational learning, explained by the social learning theory, and Bandura is the key name associated with it.

The correct answer is: Skinner-Modelling

93
Q

A dysthymic patient vividly recalled the events that occurred when he was depressed but poorly recalled the events that occurred during happier times. This is an example of

Select one:
Failure of prospective memory
Context dependent memory
Blocking
Encoding failure
State dependent memory
A

State-dependent memory; It is a phenomenon in which the retrieval cue at the time of encoding information is one’s internal state rather than the external context. These might be psychological or physiological (being nervous, drunk, etc.) e.g. a depressed patient will normally tend to focus on events that happened during periods of depression and will have difficulty recalling more positive moments. The other common observation is seen in alcoholics, who when sober cannot recall what occurred when drunk, only to remember again next time when he/she drink too much.

The correct answer is: State dependent memory

94
Q

Intelligent behaviors arise from a balance between analytical, creative and physical abilities. This notion refers to which of the following?

Select one:
Sternberg's theory
Spearman's theory
Cyril Burt's two factor model
Cattell & Horn intelligence model
Stanford-Binet theory
A

Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory of (Successful) Intelligence contends that intelligent behaviour arises from a balance between analytical, creative and practical abilities, and that these abilities function collectively to allow individuals to achieve success within particular sociocultural contexts (Sternberg, 1999).

The correct answer is: Sternberg’s theory

95
Q

A fear of spiders extending itself to a fear of other insects is an example of what behavioral phenomenon?

Select one:
Stimulus discrimination
Stimulus generalization
Stimulus incubation
Stimulus sensitisation
Stimulus decoupling
A

Stimulus generalization or primary generalization is the tendency for stimuli similar to an original stimulus in a learning paradigm to produce a response approximating that learnt under the original condition. A generalization gradient can be drawn up showing that the more similar the stimuli, the more similar the responses.

The correct answer is: Stimulus generalization

96
Q

A patient has a phobia of escalators and avoids London tube stations as a result. Deep muscle relaxation is paired with a series of imagined scenes that are arranged in a hierarchy from the least to the most anxiety-producing stimuli. This therapy is called

Select one:
secondary reinforcement
cognitive restructuring
cognitive remediation
Systematic desensitization
flooding
A

Systematic desensitization is a behavioral technique developed on basic principles of classical conditioning. Joseph Wolpe developed it as a means of alleviating anxiety. Deep muscle relaxation is paired with a series of imagined scenes that depict situations or objects that are associated with anxiety and thus produce anxiety. The scenes or situations are graded into a hierarchy and the pairing with relaxation proceeds from the most simple to the most severe scenes.

The correct answer is: Systematic desensitization

97
Q

Which of the following is a projective test of personality?

Select one:
Cattell's 16 PF test
Eysenck's personality inventory
Minnesota Multiple Personality Inventory
International personality disorder examination
Thematic Apperception test
A

Murray was the proponent of projective personality tests though the first test produced was Rorschach’s ink blots. Thematic Apperception Test (Murray), Draw-a-person test, sentence completion tests are other examples.

The correct answer is: Thematic Apperception test

98
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the exposure and response prevention treatment for a lady with fear of contamination and repeated washing?

Select one:
Therapist asks her too limit her washing to 4 times per act
Therapist asks her to wash her hands without touching the dirt
Therapist asks her to say ‘STOP’ aloud whenever the fear of contamination is experienced
Therapist asks her to touch the dirty linen but prevents her from washing her hands
Therapist asks her to touch dirty linen before thoroughly washing her hand with antiseptics

A

By asking the patient to touch the linen, the therapist is exposing her to obsession-inducing situations only to prevent the response of hand washing later.

The correct answer is: Therapist asks her to touch the dirty linen but prevents her from washing her hands

99
Q

Which of the following statements is correct concerning people with Type B personalities?

Select one:
They may be high achievers and workaholics
They cope poorly when under stress
All of the above
They show impatience and are incapable of relaxation
They show high competitiveness, hostility and aggression

A

Type A persons show impatience, excessive time consciousness, insecurity, high competitiveness, hostility and aggression and are incapable of relaxation. They may be high achievers and workaholics. Type B persons are relaxed, and easy-going, creative, often self-analyze and evade stress but cope poorly when under stress.

The correct answer is: They cope poorly when under stress

100
Q

If the conditioned stimulus (CS) ends prior to the application of unconditioned stimulus (UCS) it is called

Select one:
Forward conditioning
Delayed conditioning
Trace conditioning
Backward conditioning
Higher order Conditioning
A

In forward or delayed conditioning, the CS is presented before the UCS and remains on while the UCS is presented until the UCR appears. In backward conditioning, the CS is presented after the UCS and widely used in advertising. In higher order conditioning, a new conditioned stimulus is paired with the old conditioned stimulus and the latter thus effectively acts as an unconditioned stimulus .Trace conditioning and higher order conditioning tends to be fairly weak than delayed conditioning.

The correct answer is: Trace conditioning

101
Q

A 59-year-old man played Lotto consistently with the desire to win big one day. He has won small amounts of money on certain occasions. What is the reinforcement schedule demonstrated by his behaviour?

Select one:
Fixed ratio
Variable interval
None of the above
Fixed interval
Variable ratio
A

In variable ratio schedule, every nth response is rewarded on average, but the gap between two rewarded responses may be very small or fairly large; this schedule is found in fishing and gambling. This schedule is very resistant to extinction.

The correct answer is: Variable ratio

102
Q

A psychologist performed paired associates test on a 71-year-old man complaining of memory loss. This test is useful to check

Select one:
Intelligence
Verbal memory
Premorbid IQ
Attention
Visual memory
A

Paired associates test is a test of verbal memory. In this test, subjects are asked to remember a set of related and unrelated pairs of words. Normally, remembering related word pairs is easier than the unrelated pairs. But patients with Alzheimer’s disease or Mild Cognitive Impairment perform equally poorly on both arms of the test. Ref: http://www.apa.org/topics/alzheimers/testing.aspx

The correct answer is: Verbal memory

103
Q

Of all sensory systems, the system least developed at birth is

Select one:
Vision
Smell
Taste
Touch
Balance
A

Of all the senses, sight is the least developed at birth; visual acuity in newborns is about 20/300

The correct answer is: Vision

104
Q

Which of the following best describes flash-bulb memories?

Select one:
Memories of events that happened in broad day-light persisting for longer periods of time
Vivid memories of personal events associated with intense emotional arousal
Instantaneous recall that cannot be sustained for further processing
Recall of images in memory with extreme accuracy and in abundant volume
Instances of knowing something that cannot immediately be recalled

A

The term flashbulb memory (Brown and Kulik, 1977) refers to memories laid down vividly and accurately as a photograph when emotionally important events have occurred e.g. a personal loss event or public disaster such as 9/11.

The correct answer is: Vivid memories of personal events associated with intense emotional arousal

105
Q

A good test for recent memory is to ask patients which of the following?

Select one:
To subtract 7 from 100
Their date of birth
Spell WORLD backwards
What they had to eat for their last meal
Who is the prime minister of UK
A

Recent memory is the ability to remember what has been experienced within the past few minutes (Recall of items after five minutes), hours (Recall of last meal), days (Recall of recent topics in news). Remote memory is the ability to remember events in the distant past (weeks to years). This can be tested by inquiring about important dates in their lives such as date of birth, date of marriage and how many siblings they have.

The correct answer is: What they had to eat for their last meal