1.3.3 Pharmacodynamics Flashcards

1
Q

A new drug A is a non-competitive antagonist at NMDA receptors. If availability of glutamate at the receptor sites is increased experimentally after administering drug A, which of the following can happen?

  • Effect of drug A increases
  • Effect of drug A is partially reversed
  • Effect of drug A is reversed fully
  • Glutamate levels decrease
  • No change takes place
A

Effect of drug A is partially reversed.

Noncompetitive antagonists alter the receptor site in some way so the effects can be reversed only partially by increasing the dose of the agonist drug. Non-competitive antagonism reduces both the potency and the efficacy of agonists.

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2
Q

Drug X produces improvement in depression when given at a dose of 10mg. Drug Y which acts via same mechanism as X produces the same improvement when given at a dose of 20mg. When X and Y are given together Y binds to more receptors in a quicker and stronger fashion than X. Which of the following is true?

  • X and Y are equally efficacious
  • X and Y have equal affinity but different potency
  • X and Y have equal potency but different affinity
  • X is less potent than Y
  • Y has lesser affinity then X
A

X and Y are equally efficacious.

Efficacy refers to how well the drug produces the expected response i.e. the maximum clinical response produced by a drug (‘productivity’).

Efficacy depends on:

  • affinity,
  • potency,
  • duration of receptor action in some cases and
  • kinetic properties such as half life, among other factors
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3
Q

Which of the following has atypical antipsychotic activity?

  • Amisulpiride
  • Amoxapine
  • Chlorpromazine
  • Fluphenazine
  • Promazine
A

Amisulpride has atypical antipsychotic activity as it:

  • produces very low EPSEs,
  • is more D2/3 selective compared to other typicals.
  • But it does not have 5HT2A blockade like other newer atypicals
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4
Q

Which one of the following has antiepileptic activity?

Bupropion
Buspirone
Buspirone
Fluoxetine
Gabapentin
A

Gabapentin

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5
Q

Which of the following increases the risk of withdrawal reactions to therapeutic drugs?

  • Drugs being a partial agonist instead of full agonist
  • Having multiple active metabolites with slow clearance
  • Slow withdrawal of the drug
  • Taking the drug after food
  • The drug having anticholinergic properties
A

The drug having anticholinergic properties.

Paroxetine has anticholinergic properties; withdrawal causes cholinergic rebound symptoms.

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6
Q

Which of the following actions can cause anorgasmia?

  • Alpha 1 agonism
  • Alpha 1 antagonism
  • Antihistaminergic property
  • Beta agonism
  • GABA-A agonism
A

Alpha 1 antagonism

This and 5HT2A/2C stimulation (delayed ejaculation in SSRIs) can cause anorgasmia.

Retrograde ejaculation due to Alpha 1 block, anticholinergic and antihistaminic effects

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7
Q

The enzyme/s that metabolise/s most of the body dopamine:

  • COMT only
  • MAO-A and COMT
  • MAO-A and MAO-B
  • MAO-A and Tyrosine hydroxylase
  • MAO-B and COMT
A

MAO-B and COMT

Dopamine is metabolized in the liver, kidney, and plasma by MAO and COMT. Therefore, inhibition of one or both of these enzymes would decrease dopamine metabolism and result in increased levels of dopamine in the brain.

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8
Q

How much Zuclopenthixol depot is equivalent to 50mg of haloperidol given every 4 weeks?

  • 100mg every 2-4 weeks
  • 20 mg every 2-4 weeks
  • 200mg every 2-4 weeks
  • 20mg every 3 weeks
  • 400mg every 2 weeks
A

200mg every 2-4 weeks.

Using antipsychotic depot conversion chart from POMH (Prescribing Observatory for Mental Health), 200mg / 2 weeks or 400mg/4 weeks of zuclopentixol depot is equivalent to 50mg of haloperidol depot every 4 weeks.

Hal 10 = Zuc 80

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9
Q

A patient with Parkinson’s disease experiences visual hallucinations on levodopa/carbidopa therapy. The most appropriate intervention would be to initiate treatment with which ofthe following medications?

  • Amisulpride
  • Aripiprazole
  • Olanzapine
  • Quetiapine
  • Risperidone
A

Quetiapine.

Atypical antipsychotic, especially quetiapine, have a reduced likelihood of causing adverse drug-induced parkinsonism and therefore a possible role in treating psychotic symptoms in patients with Parkinson’s, including the hallucinations induced by levodopa/carbidopa.

Aripiprazole has no evidence base yet for this use.

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10
Q

Excitotoxicity secondary to glutaminergic overstimulation results in neuronal damage. This is the basis of treating patients with neurodegenerative disorders with which of the following medications?

  • Donepezil
  • Galantamine
  • Memantine
  • Risperidone
  • Selegiline
A

Memantine.

The hypothesis that glutamate-mediated neurotoxicity is involved in the pathogenesis of AD is increasingly being favoured;

Glutamate receptors are overactive, and N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonists have therapeutic potential for the treatment of AD and other neurological disorders.

Memantine is a noncompetitive NMDA antagonist that is considered a neuroprotective drug.

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11
Q

Endogenous substrates for monoamine oxidase (MAO) isoenzymes include

  • Acetylcholine,dopamine,and epinephrine.
  • Epinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin.
  • Histamine, acetylcholine, and serotonin.
  • Tyramine, acetylcholine, and dopamine.
  • Tyramine, serotonin, and histamine
A

serotonin, dopamine and norepinephrine are broken down by MAO enzymes.

MAO A is more selective for serotonin while
MAO B is more so for dopamine.

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12
Q

Which of the following is a 5HT1A partial agonist?

  • Amisulpride
  • Aripiprazole
  • Buspirone
  • Pramipexole
  • Risperidone
A

Buspirone

This is an azaspirondecandione, a non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic.

Buspirone’s mechanism of action is related to 5HT partial agonism.

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13
Q

Which of the following is a partial D2 agonist?

  • Amisulpride
  • Aripiprazole
  • Buspirone
  • Pramipexole
  • Risperidone
A

Aripiprazole is a dopamine D2 receptor partial agonist with

partial agonist activity at serotonin 5HT1A receptors and

antagonist activity at 5HT2A receptors

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14
Q

Which of the following is a noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor?

  • Agomelatine
  • Fluoxetine
  • Paroxetine
  • Reboxetine
  • Risperidone
A

Reboxetine = the first selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor used in the treatment of depression, mainly acts by binding to the norepinephrine transporter and blocking the reuptake of extracellular norepinephrine

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15
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the receptor profile of trazodone?

  • It is a mixed serotonin antagonist/agonist.
  • It is a serotonin agonist
  • It is a serotonin antagonist
  • It is a serotonin, dopamine and norepinephrine agonist
  • It is a serotonin, dopamine and norepinephrine antagonist
A

It is a mixed serotonin antagonist/agonist.

Trazodone is a multifunctional drug:

it is a hypnotic at low doses and an antidepressant at high doses due to the manner in which different multifunctional binding properties apply at different doses.

Trazodone’s most potent binding property is 5-HT2A antagonism. Its ability to block Serotonin reuptake transporters (SERT) is 100 fold less potent than its ability to block 5- HT2A receptors.

Trazadone is categorized as “serotonin antagonist-reuptake inhibitor”.

At lower doses it acts as 5HT2A antagonist; though at higher doses it acts as SERT blocker.

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16
Q

A 27-year-old man who is taking mirtazapine for generalized anxiety disorder and major depression experiences significant sedation at a dosage of 7.5 mg/day. Which neurotransmitter receptor is most likely being affected?

  • 5HT Type 2 receptors
  • 5HT type 3 receptors
  • Histamine Type 1 receptors
  • Muscarinic type 1 receptors
  • Nictonic receptors
A

5HT Type 2 receptors.

Blockade of 5HT2 receptors by mirtazapine helps improving the quality of sleep in depressed patients.

17
Q

A 85-year-old lady with a history of cerebrovascular disease, atrial fibrillation, and prior myocardial infarction presents with moderately severe agitated depression with features of self neglect. She is taking warfarin, lisinopril, and has been on maximum dose of venlafaxine for last 4 weeks with moderate effect. The most appropriate intervention to manage the depression is

  • Add a benzodiazepine
  • Add mirtazapine
  • Electro convulsive therapy
  • Prescribe trazodone
  • Trial of sertraline after stopping venlafaxine
A

Mirtazapine

  • works well in combination with venlafaxine; it will be the ideal choice in the above scenario.
18
Q

Which of the following compounds have a partial agonistic property as a major mechanism of therapeutic action?

  • Amisulpride
  • Buprenorphine
  • Diazepam
  • Naloxone
  • Naltrexone
A

Buprenorphine is a partial agonist at mu receptors.

19
Q

Which of the following has no evidence based support when prescribing antidementia drug donepezil? It:

  • Improves neuropsychiatric symptoms
  • Improves the amount of daily activities in some patients
  • Reduces caregiver burden
  • Reduces the progression of cognitive decline
  • Reduces time to institutionalisation
A

Reduces time to institutionalisation.

There is strong evidence that donepezil has efficacy against the three major domains of Alzheimer’s disease symptoms, namely:

  • functional ability,
  • behavior, and
  • cognition.

The strongest evidence is for improvement or less deterioration in global outcomes and cognition in the short to medium term.

There is limited evidence that improved global outcomes are maintained in the long term and clear evidence to support long-term maintenance of cognitive benefits.

Also, donepezil appears to maintain function in the long term and there is some level 1 and 2 evidence of improved or limited deterioration in behavior or mood in the short to medium term.

Despite donepezil’s effects on major symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease, its impact on patients’ quality of life has not been consistently demonstrated, perhaps reflecting the difficulty of assessing this aspect in this patient population.

Donepezil may also lessen caregiver burden.

There is limited and conflicting weak evidence that long-term donepezil treatment delays time to institutionalization.

20
Q

Which of the following medications has been found to be effective in patients with premature ejaculation?

  • Flunarizine
  • Fluoxetine
  • Flupentixol
  • Fluphenazine
  • Trifluoperazine
A

Fluoxetine.

Due to the inhibitory effects of serotonin on the central ejaculatory reflex, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are useful in the treatment of Premature Ejaculation.

These inhibitors have been shown to delay ejaculation in multiple placebo-controlled randomized studies and is the most common class of medications used to treat PE currently.

21
Q

Poor response to lithium prophylaxis is predicted by

  • classic mania
  • family loading of bipolar spectrum disorders
  • obsessional symptoms
  • rapid cycling
  • secondary mania
A

rapid cycling.

The phenotype of lithium responders tend to differ from that of other mood stabilisers.

Patients with:
- episodic pattern,
- no comorbidity (especially no panic attacks and substance abuse),
- significantly higher familial risk of bipolar disorder and
- absence of rapid cycling pattern,
are some of the indicators for therapeutic response to lithium.

22
Q

Which of the following types of drug molecules mimic endogenous chemical transmission?

  • Agonists
  • Antagonists
  • Irreversible enzyme inducers
  • Non-competitive antagonists
  • Partial agonists
A

Agonists.

Most antagonist drugs are competitive in nature, are displaced from their binding site by agonists so that at high doses the agonist can still exert maximum effect and cause a shift to the right in the dose response curve for the agonist.

Agonists are drugs that mimic endogenous transmission.

Partial agonist can partially antagonise the effect of full agonists. Buprenorphine, buspirone and aripiprazole are all partial agonists.

23
Q

Which of the following acts on presynaptic receptors as main mechanism of action?

  • Clonidine
  • Diazepam
  • Donepezil
  • Phenelzine
  • Propronalol
A

Clonidine is a sympatholytic medication, which is classified as a centrally acting α2 adrenergic agonist.

It has specificity towards the presynaptic α2 receptors in the vasomotor center in the brainstem.

24
Q

Which of the following atypical antidepressants have dopaminergic and noradrenergic actions?

  • Bupropion
  • Mianserin
  • Mirtazapine
  • Reboxetine
  • Venlafaxine
A

Bupropion is an atypical antidepressants have dopaminergic and noradrenergic actions and it has been advocated by NICE for smoking cessation

25
Q

Which antidepressant is a presynaptic alpha-2 antagonist and now classified as NaSSA?

  • Bupropion
  • Buspirone
  • Mirtazapine
  • Reboxetine
  • Venlafaxine
A

Mirtazapine is a presynatic alpha-2 antagonist which increases central neurotransmission by norarenaline and serotonin. It is classified as Noradrenregic and specific serotnergic antagonist- NaSSA.

26
Q

The term “intrinsic activity” of a drug-receptor complex refers to

  • Affinity of the drug to the receptor
  • Efficacy of the resulting functional response
  • Potency of the drug to cause a functional response
  • The efficiency of a drug in reaching the appropriate receptors
  • The receptor action in the absence of the drug molecule
A

Efficacy of the resulting functional response.

Intrinsic activity refers to the capability of a drug-receptor complex to produce the highest functional response (i.e. efficacy).

27
Q

Antipsychotic drug induced akathisia is due to;

  • Dopamine D2 receptor activation in the hippocambus
  • Dopamine receptor supersensitivity
  • High dopamine D2 receptor occupancy in striatum
  • Low dopamine D2 receptor occupancy in striatum
  • Serotonin 5-HT2 receptor blockade
A

High dopamine D2 receptor occupancy in striatum.

Antipsychotic drug induced akathisia is thought to be due to high dopamine D2 receptor occupancy in striatum.

Higher doses of antipsychotic medications are correlated with higher D2 receptor occupancy and worse subjective experience of akathisia.

Most extrapyramidal symptoms are related to D2 receptor occupancy and in particular, akathisia has an important subjective component.

28
Q

Choose the most accurate statement about cannabis

  • 9-delta-tetrahydrocannabinol is the active substance
  • Anandamide is a specific cannabinoid receptor and a naturally occurring antagonist at this receptor
  • Cannabis commonly causes physical dependence.
  • Fatal overdose is reported in several countries
  • Urine tests usually remain positive for up to a week after regular use has ceased
A

9-delta-tetrahydrocannabinol is the active substance.

There are 60 psychoactive cannaboids, the most important of which is 9-delta-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC).

Anandamide is a specific cannabinoid receptor and a naturally occurring agonist at this receptor.

Cannabis is not usually associated with physical dependence.

Urine tests usually remain positive for up to 4weeks after regular use has ceased.

Unlike most other drugs of abuse, there are no reports of fatal overdose from cannabis.

29
Q

Tom is an inpatient on a psychiatric ward. He has a history of psychotic depression and is on combination treatment with antipsychotics and antidepressants. He appears slightly flushed, with dry mouth, dry skin, feeling hot, and confused. He is exhibiting features of

  • Anticholinergic syndrome
  • Idiopathic parkinsonism
  • Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
  • Serotonin syndrome
  • SSRI discontinuation syndrome
A

Anticholinergic syndrome results from the inhibition of cholinergic neurotransmission at muscarinic receptor sites.

Psychotropics such as phenothiazines, tricyclic antidepressants and antiparkinsonian agents have anticholinergic properties.

When they are administered in combination, the action of these drugs becomes additive resulting in anticholinergic syndrome.

Features of a mild organic brain syndrome, which includes disorientation, difficulty in concentrating and impaired short-term memory are seen, especially noticeable at nighttime.

Other physical symptoms include flushing, dry skin and mucosa, mydriasis with loss of accommodation and fever

30
Q

Which of the following is an example of idiosyncratic reaction?

  • Lithium toxicity following a sepsis
  • Renal damage due to lithium
  • SSRI discontinuation syndrome
  • Steven Johnson syndrome on treatment with lamotrigine
  • Tardive dyskinesia due to antipsychotics
A

Steven Johnson syndrome is an idiosyncratic reaction, that could be life threatening.

It is a drug-induced cutaneous reaction.

It is associated with short-term therapy with phenytoin, phenobarbital, lamotrigine and carbamazepine.

The period of increased risk is largely confined to the first 8 weeks of treatment.

The period of increased risk is largely confined to the first 8 weeks of treatment.