1.3.4 Adverse Effects Flashcards

1
Q

A patient presents to you on the ward with a ‘muscle spasm’ on his neck. He was started on 5mg Haloperidol (bd) few days ago. What is the most likely problem?

  • Acute dystonia
  • Akathisia
  • Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
  • Parkinsonism
  • Tardive dyskinesia
A

An acute dystonic reaction consists of sustained, often painful muscular spasms, producing twisting abnormal postures.

50% occur within 48 hours of administering an antipsychotic for the first time.

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2
Q

Which of the following is the most common adverse effect of valproate?

  • Ataxia
  • Diarrhoea
  • Hair loss
  • Persistent elevation of hepatic transaminases
  • Reversible thrombocytopenia
A

Diarrhoea.

Nausea, vomitting, dyspepsia and diarrhea are the most common adverse effects of valproate.

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3
Q

In managing the hypertensive crisis associated with monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors and the ingestion of food with tyramine, the agent of choice is:

  • Carvedilol
  • Chlorpromazine
  • Phentolamine
  • Propranolol
  • Reserpine
A

Phentolamine = reversible nonselective alpha adrenergic antagonist.

Hypertensive crisis during MAOI use can be managed using:

  • Phentolamine or
  • Phenoxybenzamine.

Phenoxybenzamine - irreversible nonselective alpha adrenergic antagonist.

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4
Q

A 36-year-old woman with schizoaffective disorder, living at a psychiatric rehabilitation unit is admitted to a medical ward for treatment of a suspected intestinal infection resulting in dehydration, vomiting and fever. Her psychiatric condition has been managed with a stable dose of clozapine for the last 9 months. At the medical ward, she appears confused with reduced orientation to time and appears lethargic. She also has stiffness and some rigidity in movements. The most appropriate recommendation at this stage would be to

  • Add a benzodiazepine
  • Add an anti epileptic
  • Add Benztropine
  • Discontinue clozapine
  • Switch to a typical antipsychotic
A

Discontinue clozapine

Atypical NMS can present in this manner.

Benzatropine is an anticholinergic drug used in patients to reduce the side effects of antipsychotic treatment, such as parkinsonism and dystonia.

Benzatropine is also a second-line drug for the treatment of Parkinson’s disease. It improves tremor, but not rigidity and bradykinesia. Benzatropine is also sometimes used for the treatment of dystonia, a rare disorder that causes abnormal muscle contraction, resulting in twisting postures of limbs, trunk, or face.

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5
Q

A trainee doctor working at a medical ward asks your advice whilst on call. She is requesting an assessment for an agitated and hallucinating inpatient on the medical ward. She reports that he appears flushed with a hot and dry skin, mydriasis, rapid pulse and diminished bowel sounds. Which of the following is the best suggestion for you to make at this stage?

  • Administer atropine
  • Discontinue anticholinergic drugs
  • Prescribe diazepam
  • Prescribe haloperidol.
  • Prescribe IM olanzapine
A

Discontinue anticholinergic drugs.

Anticholinergic delirium constitutes a medical emergency.

Symptoms of anti- cholinergic delirium include:

  • hot, dry skin;
  • dry mucous membranes;
  • dilated pupils;
  • absent bowel sounds; and
  • tachycardia.

Physicians must first determine and remove the offending agent because patients are at a high risk for cholinergic crisis.

Atropine can be used to treat anticholinergic delirium symptoms once the agent has been removed.

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6
Q

Which of the following is true with regard to the side effects of escitalopram when compared to citalopram?

  • Escitalopram and citalopram have similar side-effect profiles
  • Escitalopram is associated with fewer sexual side effects
  • Escitalopram is associated with greater cardiovascular effects
  • Escitalopram is associated with greater gastrointestinal effects.
  • Escitalopram is associated with greater weight gain.
A

Escitalopram and citalopram have similar side-effect profiles.

Citalopram is a racemate consisting of a 1:1 mixture of the R(–)- and S(+)-enantiomers.

Non-clinical studies show that the serotonin reuptake inhibitory activity of citalopram is attributable to the S-enantiomer, escitalopram.

Escitalopram is the active S- isomer of the antidepressant citalopram.

It is claimed that Escitalopram has more efficacy and a faster onset of effect than citalopram.

The side effect profile of escitalopram is similar to that of other SSRIs

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7
Q

The principal cause of death following tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is

  • Cardiac arrhythmia.
  • cerebral oedema
  • malignant hypertension
  • respiratory failure
  • seizures
A

Cardiac arrhythmia.

A membrane stabilizing effect can precipitate dysrhythmias and altered myocardial conduction.

This activity occurs from blockade of inward/fast sodium channels, resulting in altered repolarization and conduction.

This effect occurs distal to the AV node, producing a depression of the His-Purkinjie conduction system and a direct negative inotropic effect.

Intravenous sodium bicarbonate is the preferred pharmacologic treatment of choice to reverse TCA-induced cardiac conduction defects.

This is the commonest cause of death in an overdose with TCAs.

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8
Q

Which of the following drugs is contraindicated for a patient receiving a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor?

  • Atropine
  • Budesonide
  • Chlorpromazine
  • Meperidine
  • Trifluoperazine
A

Meperidine is an opioid that can interact with monoamine oxidase inhibitors resulting in serotonin syndrome.

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9
Q

A 34 year old man is being treated with Carbamazepine and Levothyroxine for a rapid cycling bipolar disorder. As his illness was poorly controlled, Clozapine was added after which his condition has stabilized. The patient’s most recent white blood cell count is below 3,000/cu mm. The most appropriate immediate intervention is

  • decrease the dose of clozapine
  • decrease the dose of carbamazepine
  • discontinue the carbamazepine
  • discontinue the clozapine.
  • discontinue the thyroxine
A

discontinue the clozapine.

If there is a red alert (WCC

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10
Q

Which of the following is an important difference between NMS and serotonin syndrome clinically?

  • CPK elevation in serotonin syndrome
  • Hyperreflexia in serotonin syndrome
  • Hypomanic presentation in NMS
  • Presence of myoclonus in NMS
  • Subacute onset in serotonin syndrome
A

Hyperreflexia in serotonin syndrome.

Symptoms such as hyperreflexia and myoclonus are attributed to the enhanced release of serotonin in serotonin syndrome and are not seen in NMS.

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11
Q

Priapism is a dreaded side effect associated with

  • Clomipramine
  • Fluoxetine
  • Imipramine
  • Phenelzine
  • Trazodone
A

Trazodone has been associated with priapism in rare cases; this must be treated urgently to avoid long-term impairment.

Priapism = persistent and often painful erection.

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12
Q

Which antidepressant is contraindicated in closed angle glaucoma?

  • Bupropion
  • Buspirone
  • Mirtazapine
  • Paroxetine
  • Sertraline
A

Paroxetine.

Anticholinergic side effects include dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, blurred vision, and less commonly narrow-angle glaucoma.

These effects are usually dose-related and worse in patients with pre-existing defects.

Paroxetine has significant anticholinergic properties

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13
Q

The cardiotoxic effects of tricyclic antidepressants would include all of the following except

  • Arrhythmias
  • Atrioventricular Block
  • QT Prolongation
  • Reduction in cardiac output
  • ST elevation or depression
A

Reduction in cardiac output.

TCAs affect cardiac conduction; as a result, they have antiarrhythmic properties and can slow cardiac conduction.

These effects are responsible for the cardiotoxicity of TCAs and their danger in overdose.

TCAs do not affect cardiac output, however they should not be used in patients with a preexisting conduction delay greater than a first-degree block or in patients immediately after myocardial infarction.

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14
Q

A specific side effect of Mianserin that requires regular monitoring is

  • anticholinergic activity
  • Bone marrow suppression
  • cardiotoxicity
  • QT prolongation
  • Risk of serotonin syndrome
A

Bone marrow suppression.

Mianserin was the first of the second-generation antidepressants to be developed.

It lacked the amine reuptake inhibitory and MAOI actions of the first-generation drugs and also lacked the cardiotoxicity and anticholinergic activity of the TCAs.

However, it was sedative (antihistaminic), caused postural hypotension (alpha-1 blockade) and also caused blood dyscrasias and agranulocytosis in a small number of patients. This has limited the use of mianserin in recent years.

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15
Q

Which one among the following is a common side effect of MAOIs

  • Bone marrow suppression
  • Cardiac arrhythmias
  • Hepatocellular jaundice
  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • Postural hypotension
A

Postural hypotension.

Common side effects of MAOIs would include insomnia, postural hypotension, peripheral oedema, restlessness, nausea, dizziness, sexual difficulties, sweating and tremor.

Rare side effects would include hepatocellular jaundice, Peripheral neuropathy, bone marrow suppression, and cardiac arrhythmias .

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16
Q

Cheese Reaction is one of the most common and dangerous side-effects of

  • Atypical Antipsychotics
  • MAOIs
  • SNRIs
  • SSRIs
  • TCAs
A

MAOIs.

The gut MAO-A generally breaks down the tyramine in the diet. If tyramine enters the circulation in large amounts, this results in a release of noradrenalin from endogenous storage sites, causing a sudden and fatal rise in blood pressure. This can take place when an individual taking MAO-A inhibitors (that reduces the activity of gut MAO) ingests large quantities of foods containing tyramine.

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17
Q

Agranulocytosis as a side effect of Clozapine occurs most commonly during the

  • First 18 weeks of treatment
  • First 28 weeks of treatment
  • First 48 weeks of treatment
  • First 8 days of treatment
  • First 8 weeks of treatment
A

80% of the cases develop during the first 18 weeks of treatment but may occur at any time.

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18
Q

Weight gain as a side effect of antipsychotics is caused due to all of the following mechanisms except

  • 5HT2-a antagonism
  • 5HT2-c antagonism
  • H-1 antagonism
  • Hyperprolactinaemia
  • Increased serum leptin leading to leptin desensitisation.
A

5HT2-a antagonism.

The suggested mechanisms for weight gain as a side effect of antipsychotics include 5HT2-c antagonism, H-1 antagonism, hyperprolactinaemia and increased serum leptin as a result of secondary leptin desensitisation.

19
Q

Which one among the following is a common and early side effect of lithium?

  • Coarse Tremor
  • Fine tremor
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
  • Weight gain
A

Fine tremor.

Lithium has been shown to be effective in the treatment of bipolar affective disorder where it reduces both the number and severity of relapses.

The mechanism of action of lithium remains unclear, but appears to reduce the neurotransmitter-induced activation of second messenger systems.

The effect may be via G-proteins and can affect adenylate cyclase and phosphatidylinositol cycle.

Early and common side effects include:
- fine tremors, polyuria, polydipsia, nausea, and bad metallic taste and transient raised leucocyte and platelet count.

Propranalol can be useful in the treatment of lithium-induced tremors.

20
Q

A reduction in akathisia symptoms may not be seen on treatment with

  • Anticholinergics
  • Clonazepam (low dose)
  • Cyproheptadine
  • Propranolol
  • Trazadone
A

Anticholinergics.

A reduction in akathisic symptoms may be seen with Propranalol, Clonazepam (low dose), Cyproheptadine, Trazadone, and Mianserin. Anticholinergics are generally unhelpful.

21
Q

The toxic confusional state caused by antipsychotics is mainly due to which of the following mechanisms?

  • All of the above
  • Alpha adrenergic blockade
  • Histaminergic receptor blockade
  • Muscarinic receptor blockade
  • Nicotinic receptor blockade
A

Muscarinic receptor blockade.

It also causes dry mouth, difficulty urinating, constipation, and blurred vision.

22
Q

A patient with known diagnosis of depression does not want to get obese. Drugs acting on which of the following receptors should be avoided?

  • 5HT-2A
  • 5HT-2C
  • 5HT3
  • Alpha adrenergic
  • Dopamine D2 receptors
A

5HT-2C.

The mechanism by which weight gain occurs during treatment with psychotropics is poorly understood, but the broader receptor affinities of the agents and their

  • antagonism of histamine H1 and
  • serotonin 5-HT2C receptors have been implicated.
23
Q

From the following list choose the pair of medications wherein the former producing side-effects that are ameliorated by the second drug.

  • citalopram-hyoscine
  • clozapine-frusemide
  • Phenytoin-danazol
  • reboxetine-doxazosin
  • Zopiclone-atomoxetine
A

Reboxetine-Doxazosin.

Urinary hesitancy can be an uncomfortable side effect during treatment with antidepressants such as the selective noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor reboxetine.

The use of selective a1A-adrenoceptor antagonists such as doxazosin or tamsulosin can treat the urinary hesitancy – especially in the elderly with associated prostate enlargement.

24
Q

Postural hypotension as a side effect of tricyclic antidepressants are related to:

  • 5-HT2 Blockade
  • Alpha adrenergic blockade
  • Anticholinergic effect
  • Antihistaminergic effect
  • Beta blockade
A

Alpha adrenergic blockade.

Postural hypotension, dizziness, tachycardia and arrhythmias are caused due to alpha-adrenergic blockade.

5-HT2c Blockade is related to weight gain.

25
Q

The sexual side effects caused by SSRI antidepressants are related to the consequence of stimulating which of the following receptors?

  • 5HT-1 and 2 receptors
  • 5HT-1 receptors
  • 5HT-2 and 3 receptors
  • 5HT-2 receptors
  • 5HT-3 receptors
A

5HT-2 receptors.

Clinically significant consequences of stimulating:

  • 5HT1-a receptors –> antidepressant actions, anti obsessive-compulsive disorder properties, anti panic and anti social phobia properties and antibulimia properties.
  • 5HT2 receptors –> agitation, akathisia, anxiety, panic attacks, insomnia and sexual dysfunction.
26
Q

Which of the following receptors is involved in hypersalivation that occurs during clozapine therapy?

  • Alpha adrenergic
  • Beta adrenergic
  • Histaminic
  • Muscarinic
  • Nicotinic
A

Muscarinic.

The pharmacological basis of clozapine-related hypersalivation remains unclear. Suggested mechanisms include muscarinic M4 agonism, adrenergic alpha 2 antagonism and inhibition of the swallowing reflex.

27
Q

A 31 year old patient was started on antipsychotic medication for the first time. He developed fluctuating BP, hyperthermia, confusion, urinary incontinence and has raised creatinine kinase. The diagnosis is

  • Acute dystonia
  • Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
  • Parkinsonism
  • Tardive dyskinesia
  • Tardive dystonia
A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

The neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare, but life-threatening, idiosyncratic reaction to a neuroleptic medication.

The syndrome is characterized by fever, muscular rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction.

28
Q

Commonest side effect of methylphenidate is:

  • Diarrhoea
  • Headaches
  • Insomnia
  • Psychosis
  • Tics
A

Insomnia.

The most common side effects with methylphenidate are nervousness, agitation, anxiety, and insomnia.

29
Q

Which of the following psychotropics is relatively contraindicated when ACE inhibitors are prescribed?

  • Lithium
  • Lorazepam
  • Olanzapine
  • Risperidone
  • Valproate sodium
A

Lithium.

A number of drugs may interact with ACE inhibitors.

In particular, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), diuretics and lithium (leads to increased serum levels of lithium).

30
Q

Which of the following is not a recognised side effect of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors?

  • Anorexia
  • Muscle cramps
  • Nausea
  • Seizures
  • Urinary retention
A

Urinary retention.

The most common cholinergic side effects of AChEIs involve the gastrointestinal tract.

These side effects are usually mild and have been reported to occur in approximately 20% of patients taking these medications.

Among the side effects reported in the package inserts of currently available AChEIs are:
-nausea (11%-47%), vomiting (10%-31%), diarrhea (5%-19%), and anorexia (4%-17%).

These can be minimized with the use of longer titration periods and the administration of these medications with food.

31
Q

Which one among the following is a common cardiovascular side effect of clozapine?

  • Cardiomyopathy
  • Myocarditis
  • Pericardial effusion
  • Tachycardia
  • Thromboembolism
A

Tachycardia.

Tachycardia is very common in early stages of treatment but usually benign.

Tachycardia if persistent at rest and associated with fever, hypotension or chest pain may indicate myocarditis.

32
Q

The most common side effect of sildenafil is:

  • Bradycardia
  • Hair loss
  • Hypotension
  • Insomnia
  • Nasal stuffiness
A

Nasal stuffiness.

Common side effects of sildenafil citrate (> 2 percent of people) includes:

headache 16%, 
facial flushing-10%, 
indigestion- 7 %, 
nasal congestion- 4 %, 
Urinary tract Infections (UTI) -3 %, 
vision problems- 3%.
33
Q

What percentage of patients on clozapine develop agranulocytosis during the first year of treatment?

1%
10%
15%
20%
5%
A

1%

In an epidemiologic drug registry study in the United Kingdom, it was found that clozapine causes neutropenia in 1.5% to 2.9% of patients treated over a 1-year period, with progression to agranulocytosis in 0.8% of patients

34
Q

Commonest reported side effect of lithium includes

  • EEG changes
  • Pedal oedema
  • Thyroid toxicity
  • Tremors
  • Weight loss
A

Tremors.

GI side effects (nausea, altered taste) and tremors are the most common side effects seen with lithium therapy.

35
Q

Which of the following is a side effect of lithium often noted even when the therapeutic levels in the serum are within normal limits?

  • ECG changes like those seen in hyperkalemia
  • EEG changes indicative of spike wave activity
  • Left shift in White Blood Cell count
  • Peripheral limb oedema
  • Thirst and polyuria
A

Thirst and polyuria.

Prior to starting lithium treatment, patients should be evaluated for renal, thyroid, and cardiac functions, as there are reports of acute changes in cardiac functioning.

Lithium treatment can result in sick sinus syndrome. A baseline electrocardiograph (ECG) is beneficial to monitor any changes after the initiation of therapy.

Lithium may unmask or aggravate Brugada syndrome, a hereditary disease of the cardiac sodium channel with characteristic ECG changes (right bundle branch block and ST segment elevation in right precordial leads), which may lead to cardiac arrest or sudden death.

Lithium should not be administered to patients with Brugada syndrome or a family history of Brugada syndrome.

Otherwise, cardiac adverse events are rare with lithium treatment and result in T wave inversion or flattening (similar to hypokalemia).

Thirst /polyuria are common side-effects, occurring in 2/3rd of patients in some case-series, despite relatively low levels of lithium.

Limb oedema is a very rare side effect.

36
Q

Which of the following statement regarding lithium is NOT true?

  • Coarse tremor is a common side effect
  • ECG changes can be seen even at therapeutic doses
  • Hypothyroidism is more common in middle-aged women talking lithium
  • Oral preparations may have different bioavailability
  • Peripheral limb oedema is a recognised side effect of lithium use
A

Coarse tremor is a common side effect.

Lithium chloride causes a concentration dependent block of the peak sodium current in cardiac pacemakers; but even at therapeutic doses, abnormal ECG can be documented, often with no clinical implications.

Fine hand tremor is a common side effect often seen at lower doses; coarse tremor indicates toxicity.

37
Q

Tom recently underwent an alcohol detoxification programme. Upon achieving abstinence, he was keen on anti-craving treatment and has been started on Acamprosate. Which one among the following is a common side effect of Acamprosate?

  • Constipation
  • Dizziness
  • Hair loss
  • Headache
  • Nausea
A

Nausea.

Acamprosate is well tolerated, though side effects include diarrhoea, abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, also pruritus.

It should be initiated as soon as abstinence has been achieved and should be continued for up to 6 months, with regular monthly supervision.

38
Q

A 63-year-old man has a long-standing history of mood disorder. He is also taking Ramipril for hypertension. Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause a possible interaction?

  • Amitriptyline
  • Bupropion
  • Fluoxetine
  • Lithium
  • Venlafaxine
A

Lithium.

Ramipril is ACEI.
ACEI can reduce thirst –> mild dehydration & increase renal sodium loss, –> increased sodium reabsorption by the kidney —> increase in lithium plasma levels –> lithium toxicity.

ACEi can also precipitate renal failure. Therefore, if ACEi are co-prescribed with lithium, more frequent monitoring of e-GFR and plasma lithium is required.

39
Q

Which of the following is not a feature of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?

  • Bradycardia
  • Diaphoresis
  • Incontinence
  • Rigidity
  • Tremor
A

Bradycardia.

Bradycardia is not a feature of NMS. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can occur at anytime during treatment with neuroleptics.

It consists of tetrad of extreme hyperthermia, severe muscular rigidity and confusion, and autonomic fluctuations (BP and pulse rate).

Other clinical features of neuroleptic malignant syndrome includes the following diaphoresis, dysphagia, tremor, shuffling gait, tachycardia, dyspnoea, incontinence, delirium progressing to lethargy, stupor, coma

40
Q

Fetal Ebstein’s anomaly is associated with which of the following psychotropic medication?

  • Carbamazepine
  • Gabapentin
  • Lamotrigine
  • Lithium
  • Sodium valproate
A

Lithium.

Lithium use during pregnancy has a well-known association with the cardiac malformation Ebstein’s anomaly (relative risk is 10-20 times more than control, but the absolute risk is low at 1:1000). The period of maximum risk to the foetus on exposure is 2-6 weeks after conception.

41
Q

Tom is on clozapine for treatment resistant psychosis. He is embarrassed about hypersalivation and wet-pillows every morning. The most likely mechanism of this adverse event is:

  • M4 receptor agonism and alpha 1 receptor antagonism
  • M4 receptor agonism and alpha 2 receptor antagonism
  • M4 receptor antagonism and alpha 1 receptor antagonism
  • M4 receptor antagonism and alpha 2 receptor antagonism
  • M4 receptor antagonism and alpha 2 receptor antagonism
A

M4 receptor agonism and alpha 2 receptor antagonism.

Clozapine increases salivation through its muscarinic M4 receptor activation and/or blockade of alpha2-adrenoceptors, or by causing a distortion in swallowing reflex (possibly via M3).

The M1 and M4 receptor subtypes predominate in various secretory glands.

Clozapine is antagonistic at M1, M2, M3, and M5 receptor subtypes, but in vitro findings indicate that it is a full agonist at the M4 receptor.

As a result, clozapine’s stimulation of the M4 receptors in salivary glands leads to an increase in secretions.

Agonism at the M4 receptor seems unique to clozapine and does not occur with other atypical anti-psychotics.

Treatment options include chewing gum, reducing the dosage of clozapine, or prescribing pharmacologic agents such as anticholinergics or alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists.

42
Q

Rabbit syndrome presenting with mouth tremors is a result of

  • 5HT2A receptor blockade
  • 5HT2C receptor blockade
  • D1 receptor blockade
  • D2 receptor blockade
  • D4 receptor blockade
A

D2 receptor blockade

The rabbit syndrome is a tremor affecting the lips and perioral muscles and occurs late in the course of antipsychotic treatment. It is considered as a form of extrapyramidal symptom related to D2 receptor blockade.

43
Q

A 32-year-old woman with schizophrenia is taking an antipsychotic medication. She has amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. This is due to blockade of D2 receptors in which of the following pathways?

  • Mesocortical pathway
  • Mesolimbic pathway
  • Niagrostriatal pathway
  • Papez circuit
  • Tuberoinfundibular pathway
A

Tuberoinfundibular pathway.

This woman is experiencing features of hyperprolactinaemia that includes amenorrhoea, galactorrhoea and loss of sexual interest. It occurs due to D2 blockade in the tuberoinfundibular pathway.