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A & P 1 Flashcards

1
Q

<p>Q8. Attchment of muscle to bone</p>

A

<p>Tendon </p>

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2
Q

<p>Q8. Describe tendon</p>

A

<p>Fibrous (dense regular) connective tissue ropes or bands attach skeletal muscle to bones</p>

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3
Q

<p>Q8. What type of connective tissue is a tendon</p>

A

<p>Dense regular connective tissue</p>

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4
Q

<p>Q8. Define periosTeum</p>

A

<p>Peri: around; osteo: bone; dense, white, fibrous membrane covers bone except at joint surfaces (or the articular cartilage) and its associated blood vessels. Periosteum is sleeve-like around the bone. the muscle tendon fibers interlace with the periosteal fibers and some penetrate into the bone itself (acting as an anchor).</p>

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5
Q

<p>Q8. Describe the continuous fibrous network of the muscles, tendons and bones.</p>

A

<p>The connective tissue components of muscle (epi-, peri-, endo-mysium) are continuous with similar wrappings around collagen ropes in the tendon. the extension of these wrapping and the ropes are continuous with the periosteum and the bone itself; theis makes bones part of the continuous FIBROUS network.</p>

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6
Q

<p>Q8. How do the bone-forming cells of the periosteum enable bone to grow; in thickness or in length?</p>

A

<p>In thickness.</p>

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7
Q

<p>Q8. Functions of the periosteum?</p>

A

<p>Bone growth in thickness; protects the bone; assists in fracture repair; helps nourish the bone tissue; and serves as an atachment poiint for ligaments and tendons.</p>

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8
Q

<p>Q8. Describe long bones.</p>

A

<p>Long hollow shafts with expanded articular ends. They are slightly curved for strength, and consist mostly of conpact bone tissue, whis is dense and has few spaces, but they also contain considerable amounts of spongy bone tissue, which has larger spaces.</p>

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9
Q

<p>Q8. Examples of long bones</p>

A

<p>Femur (thigh), tibia and fibula (leg), phalanges(toes), humerus (arm), ulna and radius (forearm), phalanges (fingers).</p>

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10
Q

<p>Q8. Describe short bones</p>

A

<p>Cube or box shaped; as broad as they are long. They consist ofspongy bone except at the surface, where there is a thin layer of compact bone.</p>

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11
Q

<p>Q8. Examples of short bones</p>

A

<p>Carpels, tarsals</p>

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12
Q

<p>Q8. Describe flat bones</p>

A

<p>Broad, thin with flattened edge. OFTEN CURVED AND CONTAINS RED BONE MARROW IN ADULTS. (Composed of two nearly parallel plates of compact bone enclosing a layer of spongy bone. flat bones afford considerable protection and provide extensive areas for muscle attachment.</p>

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13
Q

<p>Q8. Examples of flat bones</p>

A

<p>Sternum, ribs, scapula, cranial bones, pelvis, clavicle</p>

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14
Q

<p>Q8. Describe irregular bones</p>

A

<p>Various shapes and sizes, and cannot be grouped in flat, short or long. They also vary in the amount of spongy and compact bone present.</p>

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15
Q

<p>Q8. Examples of irregular bones</p>

A

<p>Vertebrae, certain facial bones, calcaneus (heel bone).</p>

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16
Q

<p>Q8. Describe sesamoid bones</p>

A

<p>Completely enveloped in a tendon. They are not always completely ossified and measure only a few millimeters in diameter except for the two patelae (kneecaps). Sesamoid bones vary in number from person to person except for the patellae. Sesmoid bones protect tendons from excessive wear and tear.</p>

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17
Q

<p>Q8. Examples of sesamoid bones</p>

A

<p>Patella (the largest), pisiform, and some others that are not present in everyone.</p>

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18
Q

<p>Q8. What is the axial skeleton?</p>

A

<p>Includes the skull, auditory ossicles, hyoid, spinal column, and ribs</p>

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19
Q

<p>Q8. How many bones are in the axial skeleton</p>

A

<p>80 bones</p>

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20
Q

<p>Q8. What is the appendicular skeleton?</p>

A

<p>Bones of the limbs and girdles (pectoral and pelvic).</p>

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21
Q

<p>Q8. How many bones are in the appendicular skeleton?</p>

A

<p>126 bones</p>

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22
Q

<p>Q8. How many bones are the human skeleton total</p>

A

<p>206 bones</p>

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23
Q

<p>Q8. How many ribs are there?</p>

A

<p>24 ribs; 12 pair</p>

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24
Q

<p>Q8. Define pronation</p>

A

<p>Turning the forearm and hand down or away</p>

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25

Q8. Define supination

Turning forearm and hand up or forward.

26

Q8. How is skeletal muscle attached to bone?

Via tendons

27

Q8. What is the relationship between the periosteum and the muscle connective tissue coverings?

The connective tissue components of muscle (epi-, peri-, endo- mysium) are continuous with similar wrappings around collagen ropes in the tendon. The extension of these wrappings and the ropes themselfves are continuous with the periosteum and the bone iteself; this makes bones pare of the contiuous FIBROUS network.

28

Q8. What are the various types of bones?

Long, short, flat, irregular, and sesamoid.

29

Q8. Name the 3 regions of the long bone

Diaphysis, epiphysis, and metaphysis.

30

Q8. What is the diaphysis?

The shaft or body of the bone.

31

Q8. What is epiphysis?

The ends of long bones.

32

Q8. What is metaphysis?

The space in between the diaphysis and epiphysis where growth takes place before puberty.

33

Q8. What are the 2 coverings of the long bone?

Periosteum and articular cartilage

34

Q8. What is the Periosteum on a long bone?

Sleeve-like membrane around diaphysis.

35

Q8. What is the hyaline covering over joint surfaces of epiphysis?

Articular cartilage

36

Q8. What are the two cavity terms of the long bone?

Medullary cavity and endosteum.

37

Q8. Describe the medullary cavity of the long bone.

Tube-like hollow space inside diaphysis, also called the marrow cavity.

38

Q8. What is the medullary cavity filled with in adults?

Yellow bone marrow, filled with fat.

39

Q8. What is the medullary cavity filled with in children?

Red bone marrow, filled with blood cells.

40

Q8. Describe endosteum.

(Within) A thin membrane that lines the medullary cavity. This layer contains a single layer of bone-forming cells and a small amount of connective tissue.

41

Q8. What are the two types of bone marrow?

Red and yellow

42

Q8. Which type of bone marrow produces ALL blood cells?

Red

43

Q8. Describe yellow bone marrow.

Mainly adipose cells, stores triglycerides (a potential energy reserve. )

44

Q8. What type of tissue is bone tissue?

Hard connective tissue

45

Q8. What type of cells are in bone tissue?

4 type of cells; osteogenic, osteoblasts, osteoclasts, osteocytes

46

Q8. What is an osteogenic cell?

(Stem cell) bone creating cells. Found in the endosteum and lining Haversian canals. Undergoes cell division to form osteoblasts.

47

Q8. What is an osteoblast?

Bone-building. Daughter cells of osteogenic cells. Builds (creates) bone matrix, secrete collagen fibers.

48

Q8. What is osteoclast?

(Bone breakdown) bone erosion to release minerals. (Opposite of osteoblasts. )

49

Q8. Describe osteocytes.

(Mature bone cells) semi-retired osteoblasts. Maintain bone tissue (daily metabolism).

50

Q9. Compact bone lies over what type of bone?

spongy bone

51

Q9. Most of the bone tissue of the diaphysis (the shaft of the long bone) is composed of what type of bone?

compact bone

52

Q9. What is the function of compact bone?

to support, to protect, and to resist stress.

53

Q9. What is another name for Haversian systems?

an osteon

54

Q9. What is an osteon?

cylindrical shaped structural units with little space between them; these units or osteons, are literally cemented together to create the structural framework of compact bone.

55

Q9. What purpose does the unique structure of the osteon serve?

permits delivery of nutrients and removal of waste products from metabolically active but imprisoned bone cells?

56

Q9. Are bone cells alive?

yes

57

Q9. how is an osteon formed?

osteoblasts (the "bone-building" bone cell) secrete collagen and minerals in a ring surrounding the cell.

58

Q9. What are other names for the central canal of the osteon?

also called the Haversian canal OR the osteonic canal.

59

Q9. What is the central canal of the osteon?

the hollow, longitudinal running canal that houses the blood vessels, lymphs, and nerves for bone.

60

Q9. Define concentric lamellae.

rings (like rings in a tree trunk) of hard calcified matrix

61

Q9. what is the hard calcified matrix of bone tissue made of?

crystallized mineral salts (50%), collagen fibers (25%), and water (25%)

62

Q9. What does lacunae mean?

little lakes

63

Q9. define lacunae in bone?

spaces in between the rings of concentric lamellae, that contain fluid and osteocytes

64

Q9. What does canaliculi mean?

little streams

65

Q9. What are canaliculi in bone?

they connect lacunae and contain offshoots of osteocytes (which connect to the bloodstream to get nutrients.)

66

Q9. What is another name for bone tissue?

osseous tissue

67

Q9. Which bone cells initiate the process of calcification?

osteoblasts, the bone-building cells

68

Q9. When a cell name ends in "-cytes", what does that mean in regards to its function in the tissue? (in all types of tissue.)

it maintains the tissue

69

Q9. Overall, about ____% of the skeleton is compact bone and ____% is spongy bone.

80, 20

70

Q9. Each osteon is a tube-like cylinder that consists of a central canal with its concentrically arranged __________, __________, ____________, and __________.

lamellae, lacunae, osteocytes and canaliculi

71

Q9. Osteons in compact bone tissue are aligned in the same direction along _______ of _________.

lines of stress

72

Q9. Does spongy bone tissue (cancellous tissue) contain osteons?

no

73

Q9. Spongy bone is also called what?

Cancellous bone

74

Q9. What does spongy bone consist of?

lamellae arranged in an irregular lattice of thin columns called trabeculae.

75

Q9. What does trabeculae mean?

little beam

76

Q9. Describe trabeculae.

needle-like bony spicules, lattice work, that forms spongy bone.

77

Q9. Where is spongy bone tissue found?

most of short, flat, irregular bones, the epiphysis of long bones, and is deep to the compact bone of the diaphysis (near the medullary cavity).

78

Q9. What is the function of spongy bone tissue?

stores RED bone marrow and provides support

79

Q9. How is spongy bone different from compact bone?

spongy bone is light and compact bone is heavier, spongy bone has NO osteons, its lacunae and canaliculi are irregular, the rings of the matrix are oval shaped instead of round,and the osteocytes are located on the superficial surfaces of the trabeculae instead of deep within the osteons. (??)

80

Q9. Spongy bone (cancellous bone) lies between two layers of compact bone. T or F

True, much like sandwich filling

81

Q9. Both _____________ of spongy bone tissue and ____________ of compact bone tissue are arranged along lines of stress, and their orientation differs between individual bones according to the nature and magnitude of the applied load (force). (i.e. dancer vs. couch potato.)

trabeculae, osteons

82

Q9. Define fracture.

any break in the continuity of a bone.

83

Q9. Fractures are named according to what?

their severity, the shape or position of the fracture line, or even the physician who first described them. Some fractures are described by combining several terms.

84

Q9. What happens during a fracture?

break in the continuity of the bone. Tear and destroys blood vessels that carry nutrients to the osteocytes. vascular damage initiates the repair sequence.

85

Q9. What happens to dead bone tissue?

its either removed by osteoclastic resorption or it serves as scaffolding for specialized repair tissues called CALLUS.

86

Q9. What are the main types of fractures we should know?

open (compound), closed (simple), comminuted, greenstick, impacted, pott's fracture, colles' fracture, (and stress fracture)

87

Q9. What is an open (compound) fracture?

the broken ends of the bone protrude through the skin.

88

Q9. What is a closed (simple) fracture?

does not break the skin.

89

Q9. What is a comminuted fracture?

the bone splinters at the site of impact, and smaller bone fragments lie between the two main fragments. shattered. most difficult fracture to treat.

90

Q9. What is a greenstick fracture?

partial fracture where one side is broken and the other side bends. occurs only in children. like a green stick of a plant.

91

Q9. What is an impacted fracture?

one end of the fractured bone is forcefully driven into the interior of the other

92

Q9. What is Pott's fracture?

a fracture of the distal end of the lateral leg bone (fibula), with serious injury of the distal tibial articulation.

93

Q9. What is Colles' fracture?

a fracture of the distal end of the lateral forearm bone (radius) in which the distal fragment is displaced posteriorly.

94

Q9. What is a stress fracture?

fracture, without visibly breaking; a series of microscopic fissure in bone that forms without any evidence of injury to other tissues

95

Q9. What causes stress fractures?

in healthy adults, repeated, strenuous activites such as running, jumping or aerobic dancing. also in bones with disease processes that disrupt normal bone calcification, such as osteoporosis.

96

Q9. What is lordosis?

sway back; exaggerated lumbar curve (such as with pregnancy.

97

Q9. What is Kyphosis?

hunchback; abnormal thoracic curve (dowagers' hump)

98

Q9. What is scoliosis?

abnormal side to side curvature ("S" or "C"), can be structural or functional

99

Q9. the repair of bone fracture involves what 4 steps?

1. formation of fracture hematoma 2. fibrocartilaginous callus formation 3. bony callus formation 4. bone remodeling

100

Q9. describe "formation of fracture hematoma"

blood vessels crossing the fracture are broken... as blood leaks from the torn ends of the vessels, it forms a clot around the site of the fracture. this clot is called fracture hemotoma.... usually forms 6 to 8 hours after injury. osteoclasts begin to remove the dead or damaged tissue in and around the fracture hemotoma, which may last up to several weeks.

101

Q9. describe "fibrocartilaginous callus formation"

fibroblasts from the periosteum invade the fracture site and produce collagen fibers. also, cells from the periosteum develop into chondroblasts and begin to produce fibrocartilage in this region. these events lead to the development of the fibrocartilaginous callus. this takes about 3 weeks.

102

Q9. Define fibrocartilaginous callus.

a mass of repair tissue consisting of collagen fibers and cartilage that bridges the broken ends of the bone.

103

Q9. describe "bony callus formation"

in areas closer to well-vascularized healthy bone tissue, osteogenic cells develop into osteoblasts, which begin to produce spongy bone trabeculae. the trabeculae join living and dead portions of the original bone fragments. in time, the fibrocartilage is converted to spongy bone, and the callus ihs then referred to as a callus. this lasts about 3 to 4 months.

104

Q9. Describe "bone remodeling"

the final phase of fracture repair. dead portions of the original fragments of broken bone are gradually reabsorbed by osteoclasts. compact bone replaces spongy bone around the periphery of the fracture.

105

Q9. What type of tissue is bone tissue?

connective tissue

106

Q9. What is the matrix of bone tissue?

25% water, 25% collagen fibers, and 50% crystallizated mineral salts

107

Q9. What is an example of a suture joint?

cranial bones

108

Q9. What structural classification are sutures?

fibrous

109

Q9. What is teh functional class. of sutures?

synarthroses

110

Q9. What is the movement of sutures?

its very subtle (none, according to the text)

111

Q9. What is an example of a gomphoses joint?

teeth

112

Q9. What is teh structural class. of the gomphoses?

fibrous

113

Q9. What is the functional class. of gomphoses?

synarthroses

114

Q9. What is synarthroses?

(together, joint); IMMOVABLE

115

Q9. Which classification of joint is immovable?

synarthrosis (syn = together, arth = joint)

116

Q9. Which classification of joint is slightly movable?

amphiarthroses

117

Q9. Which classification of joint is freely moveable?

diarthroses

118

Q9. All synovial joints are ____________?

diarthroses

119

Q9. What mneumonic is used to remember the classification of joints?

S. A. D. (synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses)

120

Q9 What is the movement of gomphoses?

none

121

Q9. What is an example of synchondroses?

1st sternocostal joint; epiphyseal plate

122

Q9. What type of cartilaginous joint is the synchondroses joint?

hyaline cartilage

123

Q9. What is the structural and functional classifications and movement of synchondroses?

cartilaginous, synthroses, none

124

Q9. What is an example of a syndesmoses joint?

interoseous membrane and some ligament structures

125

Q9. What is the interoseous membrane?

the ligament that connects the ulna and radius OR the tibia and fibula. this is considered a JOINT because it connects the two bones.

126

Q9. What are the structural and functional classifications and the movement of syndesmoses?

fibrous, amphiarthroses, limited

127

Q9. What is an example of a symphyses joint?

symphysis pubis and intervertebral discs

128

Q9. What type of cartilaginous joint is the symphyses joint?

fibrocartilage

129

Q9. Where do all symphyses joint occur?

in the midline of the body

130

Q9. What are the structural and functional classifications and the movement of the symphyses joint?

cartilaginous, amphiarthroses, and limited

131

Q9. The knee, elbow, shoulder, hip, etc are what type of joint?

freely movable (diarthroses)

132

Q9. The freely movable joint is described by what 3 types of axis?

uniaxial, biaxial, multiaxial

133

Q9. What are the structural and functional classification and movement of the freely movable joint?

synovial, diarthroses, freely movable

134

Q9. What is a suture joint?

between cranial bones of the skull; interlocking bones held together by a thin fibrous layer of connective tissue

135

Q9. The tooth and socket joint is a ___________ joint?

gomphosis

136

Q9. What are the 3 classifications of fibrous joints?

syndesmoses, suture, gomphoses

137

Q9. The structural classification, fibrous joint, has what type of movement?

very limited or fixed

138

Q9. Name the joints that are structural classification fibrous?

suture, gomphoses, syndesmoses

139

Q9. What are the 3 structural classifications of joints?

fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial

140

Q9.What are the 2 types of cartilaginous joints?

synchondroses, symphyses

141

Q9. The synovial joint contains a _____________ joint capsule

fluid-fiilled

142

Q9. Hyaline cartilage is only found in long bones until _____________.

puberty

143

Q9. What are the 4 types of tissues

epithilial, connective, muscle, nervous

144

Q9. What are the 3 types of connective tissue?

fibrous, fluid and skeletal

145

Q9. What type of connective tissue contains fibroblasts (fiber-producing cells)?

dense fibrous connective tissue

146

Q9. What does the dense fibrous connective tissue contain?

fibroblasts, mostly collagen, some elastin and a few reticular fibers

147

Q9. Fiber producing cells are called what?

fibroblasts

148

Q9. Describe and give an example of dense fibrous connective tissue.

collagen fibers are arranged regularly in parallel bundles, such as tendons and ligaments

149

Q9. Describe and give an example of dense irregular connective tissue.

random and intertwined, collagen fibers are packed closely together, irregular arranged, such as in the dermis, periosteum and scar tissue.

150

Q9. Name 3 types of cartilage

hyaline, fibrocartilage, elastic

151

Q9. What type of cell does cartilage contain?

just one type; chondrocyte

152

Q9. Describe chondrocyte.

mature cartilage maintaining cells.

153

Q9. Is cartilage avascular or vasular?

avascular, no blood supply

154

Q9. Describe the matrix of cartilage

chondroitin sulfate, a rubbery base.

155

Q9. What type of connective tissue is cartilage?

skeletal connective tissue

156

Q9. The strength of cartilage is due to its _______ fibers, and its resilience (ability to assume its original shape after deformation) is due to the ___________ ____________.

collagen, chondroitin sulfate

157

Q9. Describe hyaline cartilage.

"glassy" (low collagen) shiny; most prevelant type of cartilage found in the body,

158

Q9. Where is hyaline cartilage found?

support rings of respiratory tubes, and ENDS OF LONG BONES (ARTICULATING SURFACES); within the joint cavity

159

Q9. Describe fibrocartilage.

stongest, most durable; rigid

160

Q9. Where is fibrocartilage found?

shock absorbers found between vertebrae at disk, in knee joint, pubic symphysis

161

Q9. Describe elastic cartilage.

contains a large number of very fine elastic fibers, therefore a HIGH DEGREE OF FLEXIBILITY, maintains shape and gives support

162

Q9. Where is elastic cartilage found?

in the external ear, larynx (voice box), epiglottis.

163

Q9. How are joints classified?

structure ("what is it", holding it together, what type of connective tissue) and function (the degree of movement permitted)

164

Q9. What does a tendon connect?

muscle to bone

165

Q9. What does a ligament connect?

bone to bone

166

Q9. Define articulation.

a joint; a point of contact between bones

167

Q9. Synovial joints are all of our bigger or smaller joints?

bigger; but synovial joints also include smaller joints such as the knuckle joints

168

Q9. Distinguish the 3 structural classification and 3 functional classifications of joints

structural: fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial; functional: synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses

169

Q9. Describe the subtypes of fibrous joints.

SYNDESMOSES: includes interosseus membrane (ligament) tibia/fibula, radius/ulna; SUTURE: between cranial bones of the skull, interlocking bones held together by a thin fibrous layer of connective tissue; GOMPHOSIS: tooth and socket joint

170

Q9. Can you distinguish the two types of cartilaginous joints, based on type of cartilage and location in body?

SYNCHONDROSES: cartilage joint found between sternum and 1st rib, and the epiphyseal plate (hyaline cartilaged); SYMPHYSES: padded fibrocartilage which permits slight movement, found only in the midline of the body (fibrocartilage)

171

Q9. Can you identify cellular and extracellular components of cartilage?

CELLULAR: chondrocytes (mature cartilage maintaining cells); EXTRACELLULAR: the matrix - chondroitin sulfate (a rubbery base) and collagen fibers within

172

Q9. Distinguish the three different types of cartilage based on differences in their matrix and in their locations in the body.

HYALINE CARTILAGE: shiny, ground substance with fine collagen fibers and many chondrocytes; located at the ends of bones, anterior ends of ribs, nose, parts of larynx, etc. FIBROCARTILAGE: chondrocytes scattered among bundles of collagen fibers within the matrix; located mainly in the midline of the body, pubic symphysis, intervertebral discs. ELASTIC CARTILAGE: chondrocytes located in a threadlike network of elastic fibers within the matrix; located in the external ear, larynx, epiglottis.

173

Q9. What is blood cell production?

hematopoiesis

174

Q9. What is the primary hormone involved in regulating blood calcium levels, causing increase in blood calcium levels?

PTH

175

Q9. What is the disorder characterized by decreased bone mass and susceptibility to fracture?

osteoporosis

176

Q9. What is another term for osteogenisis, or the formation of bone?

ossification

177

Q9. Name the area of the bone where blood cell formation takes place.

red marrow

178

Q9. __________ is the mature bone cell that maintains bone tissue.

osteocyte

179

Q9. What is the diaphysis?

the shaft of the long bone

180

Q9. What type of bone tissue contains few space and forms units called osteons?

compact bone

181

Q9. Another name for osteon is __________.

Haversian system

182

Q9. Identify the parts of a long bone.

BONE REGIONS: diaphysis (shaft/body); epiphysis (ends); and metaphysis (in between the epiphysis and diaphysis); COVERINGS: periosteum (membrane around diaphysis); articular cartilage (hyaline covering over joint surfaces of epiphysis; CAVITY: medullary cavity (inside diaphysis); endosteum (membrane lining medullary cavity)

183

Q9. What is endochondrial ossification?

bone formation spreads from the center to the ends. bone increases lengthwise from the diaphysis to epiphysis.

184

Q9. What is intramembranous ossification?

formation and growth of flat bones

185

Q9. What are the different types of bone cells?

osteogenic, osteoblast, osteocyte, and osteoclast

186

Q9. What is red bone marrow? Function?

connective tissue, produces ALL blood cells

187

Q9. What is yellow bone marrow? Function?

consists mainly of adipose cells, which stores triglycerides, a potential chemical energy reserve.

188

Q9. What are the 6 functions of bones?

support, protection, assistance in movement, mineral homeostasis, blood cell production, triglyceride storage

189

Q9. Distinguish between the structure of spongy and compact bone regarding osteons and their contents.

SPONGY: no osteons, instead trabeculae (irregular lattice of thin columns), which contain lacunae that contain osteocytes and canaliculi. COMPACT: osteons (structure of compact bone, tubelike cylinder), which contains lacaunae that contain osteocytes and canaliculi AND a centralc canal and is concentrically arranged lamellae.

190

Q9. Distinguish between the structure of spongy and compact bone regarding concentric lamellae.

SPONGY: no concentric lamellae. COMPACT: rings of hard calcified matrix (mineral salts and collagen fibers)

191
Q1. Define anatomy.
(to cut) the study of the structure of the human body; "the study of the bits when you cut up the body"
192
Q1. The study of the body's function is _________.
physiology
193
Q1. What is the study of disease?
pathology
194
Q1. Describe metabolism.
all the chemical processes occurring in the body
195
Q1. What is "responsiveness"?
the ability to detect and respond to changes in internal or external environment
196
Q1. What are the 2 types of movement; inside and outside the body?
locomotion, internal motion
197
Q1. What is movement in regards to locomotion?
body movement
198
Q1. Blood pumping is an example of what type of movement?
internal motion
199
Q1. Define exchange in terms of bodily movement.
trading; movement of substances
200
Q1. Name the 3 types of substance exchange in the body.
absorption, excretion, secretion
201
Q1. Absorption is the movement of materials _______ the organisms or its parts
into
202
Q1. Describe the difference between excretion and secretion.
EXCRETION is the movement of material OUT of the organism; SECRETION is the RELEASE of SUBSTANCES from a cell for transportation TO ANOTHER PART OF THE ORGANISM.
203
Q1. Growth can mean several things in regards to the body. Describe several.
the organism getting larger; multiplying; or producing stuff outside of itself; the number of cells or the size of cells can increase; the amount of extracellular material can increase.
204
Q1. Either the formation of new cells for growth, repair, or replacement; or the formation of a new individual is what?
Reproduction
205
Q1. Define differentiation.
the process by which unspecialized cells become specialize.
206
Q1. List in order from smallest to largest the levels of organization of the body.
chemical, organelles, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism
207
Q1. The ____________ level, which includes atoms and molecules, acts as the basic building blocks of life.
chemical
208
Q1. The specialized structures, such as the nucleus, mitochondria, and lysosomes, that perform specific functions are called what?
organelles
209
Q1. What does organelle mean?
little organ
210
Q1. Molecules combine to form structures at the __________ level of organization.
cellular
211
Q1. Cells are the basic ___________ and __________ units of an organism.
functional and structural
212
Q1. Define tissue.
a collection of similar cells and the stuff between the cells.
213
Q1. What are the 4 basic types of tissue
epithelial, connective, muscular, nervous
214
Q1. What happens at the organ level of organization?
different kinds of tissues join together to form body structures.
215
Q1. Define organ.
structures that usually have a recognizable shape, are composed of two or more different types of tissues, and have specific functions.
216
Q1. What happens at the system level?
related organs that have a common function and work together.
217
Q1. How many systems are there in the body?
11
218
Q1. What is the largest level of organization?
organism
219
Q1. Define organism.
all the systems of the body combined
220
Q1. The whole is more than the sum of the parts is ____________.
emergence
221
Q1. Define unity.
there are constants that run through every level of organization
222
Q1. At every new level of organization, increasing new properties ____________.
emerge
223
Q1. What is "the reference point; body forward, head forward, palms forward, toes forward"?
anatomical position
224
Q1. Lying face up is what?
supine
225
Q1. Define prone.
lying face down
226
Q1. Closer to the head
superior
227
Q1. Define farther from the head.
inferior
228
Q1. What is medial?
closer to the midline
229
Q1. farther from the midline is ___________.
lateral
230
Q1. Closer to the trunk is ___________.
proximal
231
Q1. Define distal.
farther from the trunk.
232
Q1. Proximal and distal are in reference to the ________ only.
limbs
233
Q1. What are the 2 other names for the hip bone?
coxal bone, inominate bone
234
Q1. What are the 3 parts of the coxal bone?
ilium, ischium, pubis
235
Q1. What portion of the coxal bone is the anterior, inferior?
pubis
236
Q1. What portion is the superior part of the coxal bone?
ilium
237
Q1. What portion is the posterior part of the coxal bone?
ischium
238
Q1. What is another name for the thigh bone?
femur
239
Q1. What is another name for the knee cap?
patella
240
Q1. What is the medial leg bone?
tibia
241
Q1. What is the lateral leg bone?
fibula
242
Q1. What is a way to remember which bone is which in the leg?
a fib is a small lie... the fibula is the small bone that lies on the outside (of the truth).
243
Q1. Distinguish the leg from other portions of the lower extremity
the leg consists of the tibia and fibula; the other portions are the femur and patella, and then the bones of the bones of the ankle and foot.
244
Q1. Name the 30 bones of the lower limb (extremity).
femur, patella, tibia, fibula, 7 tarsels, 5 metatarsels, 14 phalanges
245
R. What is stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum and what is it required for?
calcium ion, muscle contraction
246
R. Where is the sarcoplasmic reticulum found?
in muscle tissue
247
R. Where is the location of red blood cell formation?
spongy bone.
248
R. Where and what is the mesentery?
the membrane that anchors the intestines to the posterior abdominal wall, and is part of the peritoneum
249
R. What is the peritoneum?
the largest serous membrane in the body that lines the wall and covers the organs in the abdominal cavity
250
R. Describe the make-up, function and location of both dense regular fibrous connective tissue AND dense irregular fibrous connective tissue.
DENSE REGULAR FIBROUS CONNECTIVE TISSUE - consists mainly of collagen fibers arranged in parallel bundles; fibroblasts present in rows between bundles / provides strong attachment between various structures / forms tendons, most ligaments, and aponeuroses. DENSE IRREGULAR FIBROUS CONNECTIVE TISSUE - consists of randomly arranged collagen fibers and a few fibroblasts / provides strength / deep fascia, dermis, scars, and more.
251
R. What are the 3 communicating networks?
fascial (or fibrous), neural, fluid
252
R. What is the language of the fluid network?
chemical
253
R. What is the language of the fibrous network?
mechanical
254
R. What is the language of the neural network?
electrical
255
R. How do the 3 communicating networks work together?
the skin and fascia of the fascial/fibrous network are filled with sensory receptors and other nerves (neural net) and detect information which it conveys to the muscles (to contract, move, pull on the bones), which cause chemicals to be released into the fluid network.
256
R. What makes up the fascial/fibrous network?
muscles, bones, skin, hair
257
R. What makes up the fluid network?
blood, vessels, lymph
258
R. What makes up the neural network?
nervous system
259
R. Define contralateral.
opposite side
260
R. Define bilateral.
both sides
261
R. What does ipsilateral mean?
same side
262
Q10. The most mobile, most numerous, and most complex joints are ______________.
synovial joints
263
Q10. A majority of joints between bones in the _____________ skeleton are synovial joints.
appendicular
264
Q10. The unique characteristic of a synovial joint is the presence of a space called the __________ __________ between articulating bones.
synovial cavity
265
Q10. Synovial joints are all classified funtionally as _____________, which means they are freely moveable.
diarthroses
266
Q10. The layer of hyaline cartilage covering the bones at a synovial joint is called what?
articular cartilage
267
Q10. What is the function of the articular cartilage?
reduces friction between bones in the joint during movement and helps to absorb shock.
268
Q10. What are the 2 layers of the joint capsule (or the articular capsule)?
outer fibrous membrane,inner synovial membrane
269
Q10. What does the outer fibrous membrane of the joint capsule usually consist of?
dense, irregular connective tissue (mostly collagen fibers)
270
Q10. What is the inner synovial membrane composed of?
areolar connective tissue with elastic fibers
271
Q10. The fibers of some fibrous membranes are arranged in parallel bundles that are highly adapted for resisting strains. Such fiber bundles are called ___________.
ligaments
272
Q10. The strength of ligaments is one of of the principle mechanical factors that holds ________ close together in a synovial joint.
bones
273
Q10. What is another name for the articular discs?
menisci
274
Q10. Define menisci.
pads of fibrocartilage that lie between the articular surfaces of the bones and are attached to the fibrous capsule.
275
Q10. a small, cushion-like sacs (purses) filled with synovial fluid, found between moving parts (shoulder, knees, elbow) are called __________.
bursa
276
Q10. What is the function of a bursa?
makes movement easier by alleviating friction in some joints
277
Q10. An acute or chronic inflammation of a bursa is called ___________, usually caused by irritation from repeated, excessive exertion of a joint.
bursitis
278
Q10. What does a tendon do?
attach muscle to bone
279
Q10. What type of tendon is broad and flat?
aponeurosis
280
Q10. What are 3 types of synovial joints?
uniaxial (monaxial), biaxial, multiaxial (triaxial)
281
Q10. Define uniaxial (or monaxial).
one axis, one plane
282
Q10. A hinge joint and a pivot joint are 2 types of ___________ joints.
uniaxial (monaxial)
283
Q10. Describe a hinge joint.
permit only back and forth movement (flexion and extension)
284
Q10. Give some examples of hinge joints.
elbow, knee
285
Q10. A ___________ joint is where a rounded or pointed surface of one bone articulates with a ring formed partly by another bone and partly by a ligament.
pivot
286
Q10. Does a pivot joint create the yes or the no head movement?
no
287
Q10. Give some examples of the pivot joint.
atlantoaxial (C1/C2), and proximal radius/ulna
288
Q10. Define biaxial.
2 axes, 2 planes
289
Q10. The saddle joint and the condyloid joint are the 2 types of _________ joints.
biaxial
290
Q10. Describe a saddle joint.
the articular surface of one bone is saddle-shaped, and the articular surface of the other bone fits into the "saddle" as a sitting rider would.
291
Q10. What is unique about a saddle joint?
ONLY 1 in each thumb. (metacarpal/trapezium), gives us opposable thumbs and the ability to grasp objects.
292
Q10. Give an example of a saddle joint.
in the thumb, between the metacarpal and the trapezium of the carpus.
293
Q10. Describe a condyloid (ellipsoidal) joint.
the convex oval-shaped projection of one bone fits into the oval-shaped depression of another bone, and permits movement around 2 axes.
294
Q10. A condyloid joint created the yes or the no head movement.
yes
295
Q10. Give an example of the condyloid joint.
occiput/atlas and radius/carpals
296
Q10. Define multiaxial (triaxial).
3 or more axes and 3 or more planes
297
Q10. The ball & socket joint and the gliding joint are the 2 types of __________ joints.
multiaxial (triaxial)
298
Q10. Describe a ball and socket joint.
our most moveable joints; consists of the ball-like surface of one bone fitting into a cuplike depression of another bone, permitting movements around 3 axes, flexion/extension, abduction/adduction, and rotation.
299
Q10. Give an example of a ball and socket joint.
shoulders, hips
300
Q10. What is distinctive about the glenohumeral (shoulder) ball and socket joint?
its more moveable and less stable than hip joint.
301
Q10. The _____________________ (hip joint) ball and socket joint is more stable and less moveable than the shoulder joint.
acetabulofemoral
302
Q10. Describe a gliding joint.
Also called a planar joint. articulated surfaces are flat or slightly curved; back and forth, and side to side movements.
303
Q10. Give examples of a gliding joint.
between carpal bones at the wrists; between tarsal bones at the ankle
304
Q10. Name 3 major synovial (diarthrotic) joints.
shoulder, hip, knee
305
Q10. What is significant about the he knee joint?
it is the least stable; and the main brunt barer
306
Q10. What is another name for the knee joint?
tibiofemoral joint
307
Q10. The largest and most complex joint of the body, actually a modified hinge joint consisting of 3 joints within a single synovial cavity, is the ______ joint.
knee
308
Q10. Describe the articular capsule of the knee joint (tibiofemoral joint).
no complete, independent capsule unites the bones. the ligamentous sheath surrounding the joint consists mostly of muscle tendons or their expansions.
309
Q10. What is the patellar ligament?
continuation of the common tendon of insertion of the quadriceps femoris muscle that EXTENDS FROM THE PATELLA TO THE TIBIAL TUBEROSITY.
310
Q10. What is another name for menisci?
articular discs
311
Q10. What are the menisci of thee knee?
2 fibrocartilage discs between the tibial and femoral condyles that help compensate for the irregular shapes of the bones and circulate synovial fluid.
312
Q10. What are the 2 menisci of the knee called?
medial meniscus and lateral meniscus
313
Q10. Where are the menisci of the knee located
between the tibial and femoral condyles
314
Q10. The broad, flat ligament on the medial surface of the joint that extends from the medial condyle of the femur to the medial condyle of the tibia.
the tibial (or medial) collateral ligament
315
Q10. strong, rounded ligament on the lateral surface of the joint that extends from the lateral condyle of the femur to the lateral side of the head of the fibula
the fibular (or lateral) collateral ligament
316
Q10. What is the ACL?
anterior cruciate ligament
317
Q10. What is the function of the ACL?
limits hyper-extension of the knee and prevents the anterior sliding of the tibia on the femur.
318
Q10. Where is the anterior cruciate ligament?
extends posteriorly and laterally from a point anterior to the intercondylar area of the tibia to the posterior part of the medial surface of the lateral condyle of the femur
319
Q10. What is the PCL?
posterior cruciate ligament
320
Q10. What is the function of the PCL?
prevents the posterior sliding of the tibia on the femur, especially when the knee is flexed. This is very important when walking down stairs or a steep incline.
321
Q10. Where is the PCL located?
extends anteriorly and medially from a depression on the posterior intercondylar area of the tibia and lateral meniscus to the anterior part of the lateral surface of the medial condyle of the femur.
322
Q10. What is another name for dislocation?
luxation
323
Q10. Describe a dislocation.
when the bone is pulled out, or displaced, from the socket
324
Q10. What is the most common dislocated joint?
shoulder, because the socket is quite shallow and the bones are held together mainly by supporting muscles.
325
Q10. What is subluxation?
partial dislocation
326
Q10. A forceful wrenching of joints, joint/ligament unit, is called a ______.
sprain
327
Q10. What is the difference between a strain and a sprain?
SPRAIN: joint/ligament unit STRAIN: muscle/tendon unit
328
Q10. Describe the attachment of skeletal muscle to bone.
muscle attached to bone via tendons which starts as endomysium, through perimysium, and epimysium, through the main tendon into the periosteum, and within the bone tissue itself
329
Q10. What are factors affecting contact and range of motion at synovial joints?
whether it is a uniaxial, biaxial or multiaxial joint; excercise; regular stretching; diet
330
Q10. What is synarthroses?
functional classification of joints: immovable
331
Q10. Slightly moveable is what functional classification of joints?
amphiarthrosis
332
Q10. Describe the structure of synovial joints.
the joint capsule (articular capsule) made up of 2 layers, outer fibrous membrane and inner synovial membrane; articular cartilage (hyaline cartilage); joint (synovial) cavity; ligaments; menisci
333
Q10. Name the 6 types of synovial joints.
hinge, pivot, saddle, condyloid, ball and socket, gliding (planar)
334
Q10. Describe the structure of bursae.
saclike structures that resemble joint capsules because they consist of connective tissue lined by a synovial membrane, filled with a small amount of synovial fluid.
335
Q10. Describe a tendon sheath.
tubelike bursae that wrap around tendons which experience considerable friction.
336
Q10. Name the 3 major synovial joints.
glenohumeral (shoulder), acetabulofemoral (hip), tibiofemoral (knee)
337
Q10. What are the anatomical components of the shoulder joint?
articular capsule; coracohumeral ligament; glenohumeral ligaments; transverse humeral ligament; glenoid labrum; bursae
338
Q9. Which bone cell undergoes mitosis?
osteogenic cell
339
Q9. All EXTENSORS attach to ___________ epicondyle of the humerous.
lateral
340
Q9. All FLEXORS attach the __________ epicondyle of the humerous.
medial
341
Q9. Which cell maintains the matrix of cartilage?
chondrocyte
342
Q9. Which type of cartilage has a high collagen content?
fibrocartilage
343
R. Where is the location of the symphysis?
all symphyses occur in the midline of the body.
344
R. Define a symphysis.
a cartilaginous joint in which the ends of the articulating bones are covered with hyaline cartilage, but the bones are connected by a broad, flat disc of fibrocartilage
345
R. Give an example of a symphysis
pubic symphysis, intervertebral joints, junction of manubrium/sternum
346
R. Which hamstring has 2 heads?
biceps femoris
347
R. Where is the long head of biceps femoris compared to the short head? & where does it originate?
Superior, & origin is the Ischial tuberosity
348
R. What is the origin of the short head of biceps femoris?
Lateral Lip of the Linea aspera of the femur
349
R. What is the origin of all the hamstrings
Ischial tuberosity
350
R. What are the names of the 3 hamstrings
biceps femoris, Semitendinosus and Semimembranosus
351
R. What is the proximal attachment for the semitendinosus and semimembranosus?
Ischial tuberosity
352
R. What is the inferior distal attachment for biceps femoris
head of the fibula
353
R. What is the insertion of the semitendinosus
proximal shaft anterior tibia " pes anserimus"
354
R. Posterior medial condyle of tibia is insertion for which muscle
semimembranosus
355
R. What are the actions of the hamstrings
flex the knee and extend the hip
356
R. What does Latissumus Dorsi mean
Latissimus-widest, dorsi-back
357
R. What is the origin and proximal attachment for Latissimus Dorsi
Spinous processes T8 - L5, sacrum and iliac crest | (external lip, posterior portion) via the thoracolumbar aponeurosis
358
R. What is the distal attachment for latissimus dorsi
medial lip of the bicipital groove of the humerus
359
R. ADduction of humerus at shoulder is an action of what muscle
Latissimus dorsi
360
R. How many actions does Latissimus dorsi have
3, ADduction of humerus at shoulder, medial rotation of humerus (hooking a bra) , extension of humerus at shoulder
361
R. What are the 3 actions of Latissimus dorsi
ADduction of humerus at shoulder, medial rotation of humerus (hooking a bra) , extension of humerus at shoulder
362
R. What does Trapezius mean
4 sided diamond
363
R. Which muscle is superficial to the other back muscles
Trapezius
364
R. What is the proximal attachment for Upper Trapezius
Superior nuchal line, EOP, nuchal ligament (strap of connective tissue that crossed C2-C7)
365
R. What is the distal attachment of the upper trapezius
Lateral third of the clavicle
366
R. Elevation and upward rotation of the shoulder girdle are actions of what muscle
upper trapezius
367
R. Ligamentum nuchae (around C6) and spinous processes of C7-T3 [nuchal ligment] is the proximal attachment for which muscle
middle trapezius
368
R. Lower trapezius proximal attachment is where
spinous processes of T4-T12
369
R. The proximal attachment of the entire trapezius muscle runs from the____ to_____
EOP to T12 of spinous processes
370
R. The acromion process and spine of the scapula are distal attachment of what muscle
middle trapezius
371
R. What is the distal attachment of lower trapezius
tubercle of the spine of the scapula
372
R. What is the action of middle trapezius
Retraction of the scapula
373
R. Depression of the scapula is and action of ___
lower trapezius
374
R. How many thoracic vertebrae
12
375
R. Where is the general location of the DELTOID?
on the lateral side of the upper arm under the shoulder
376
R. What does DELTOID mean?
triangle, shaped-like
377
R. How many sections of the DELTOID are there, and what are they called?
3; anterior, middle, posterior
378
R. What is the proximal attachment of the Anterior DELTOID?
lateral 1/3 of clavicle ("key")
379
R. What is the proximal attachment of the Middle DELTOID?
Acromium of Scapula ("top of shoulder")
380
R. What is the proximal attachment of the Posterior DELTOID?
Spine of Scapula
381
R. Distal attachment of DELTOID
All distally attach to the DELTOID tuberosity of the humerous.
382
R. How many actions should we know for DELTOID?
7
383
R. What are the anterior DELTOID actions?
1. flexion of humerous at shoulder 2. medial rotation of humerous at shoulder 3. horizontal aDduction
384
R. What is the action that all 3 sections of the DELTOID do together?
aBduct the humerous at the shoulder
385
R. What are the posterior DELTOID actions?
1. extension of the humerous at the shoulder 2. lateral rotation of the humerous at the shoulder 3. horizontal aBduction
386
R. Go to page 67 in TG to see a pic of DELTOID.
you rock =)
387
R. The origin of the DELTOID is identical to the insertion of the _____________.
trapezius
388
R. Where is the general location of the MASSETER?
connecting the cheek bone with the jaw bone
389
R. What does MASSETER mean?
chewer
390
R. Where is the origin of the MASSETER?
zygomatic arch
391
R. Where is the insertion of the MASSETER?
angle and ramus of the mandible
392
R. What is the action of the MASSETER we should know?
elevation of the mandible (closes jaw)
393
R. What are the 2 cautions when massaging the MASSETER?
1. paratoid glands; may be infected and painful. don't assume its just a sensitive masseter 2. TMJD; many of the symptoms of TMJD have a soft tissue component, however TMJD may require dental or surgical care.
394
R. The MASSETER is the _____________ muscle in the body for its size.
strongest
395
R. The MASSETER has _____ bellies and _____ heads.
2, 2
396
R. The attachments of the MASSETER are described essentially the same way, the distinction is their ____________.
depth.
397
R. See a pic of the MASSETER on page 250 of TG.
i just saw a perfect rainbow =)
398
R. What are the 4 components of the URINARY SYSTEM?
2 kidneys (right and left), 2 ureters (right and left) , urinary bladder, urethra
399
R. The path of the URINARY SYSTEM: Urine formed by the ___________, passes first into the ____________, then into the ___________ ___________ for storage, and finally through the ___________ for elimination from the body.
kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, urethra
400
R. Where is the general location of the FLEXOR CARPI RADIALIS?
diagonal across the anterior side of the forearm
401
R. What does FLEXOR CARPI RADIALIS mean?
flexion, wrist, pertaining to the radius
402
R. Proximal attachment of FLEXOR CARPI RADIALIS?
medial epicondyle of humerus
403
R. Distal attachment of FLEXOR CARPI RADIALIS?
base of 2nd and 3rd metacarpals
404
R. The tendon of FLEXOR CARPI RADIALIS for the distal attachment runs through the ________ _________ and __________ to the flexor retinaculum.
carpal tunnel, deep
405
R. All FLEXORS run diagonally on the anterior ____________, and proximally attach to the ___________ epicondyle of humerus.
forearm, medial
406
R. What are the 3 actions of FLEXOR CARPI RADIALIS we should know?
1. wrist flexion 2. elbow flexion 3. radial deviation (aBduction of wrist)
407
R. See pic of FLEXOR CARPI RADIALIS on page 140 - 141.
=)
408
R How many joints does the FLEXOR CARPI RADIALIS cross?
2, wrist, elbow
409
R. Sebaceous glands produce sebum. What is sebum?
Oil
410
R. Sudoriferous glands produce what?
sweat, 2 types, eccrine and apocrine
411
R. Cerumen is another name for ______
earwax
412
R. 3 types of connective tissue coverings of skeletal muscle (deep fascia) are
epimysium, perimysium & endomysium
413
R. The epimysium is a covering around the _____ muscle.
entire
414
R. What do "epi", "peri" and "endo" mean?
epi-means upon, peri-means around, endo-means within
415
R. Tough connective tissure that envelops muscle fascicle is what?
perimysium
416
R. The delicate CT membrane covering around individual and highly specialized skeletal muscle fibers is called the __________
endomysium
417
R. An ____________ is one of the 4 types of bone cells and its function as a mature bone cell is to maintain bone tissue.
osteocyte
418
R. Osteocytes are located in the __________ of compact bone.
lacanea
419
R. Syndesmoses is an example of a ____________ joint type.
fibrous
420
R. Give an example of a syndesmoses joint.
interosseus membrane (ligament) tibia/fibula, radius/ulna
421
R. What is the functional classification of the syndesmoses joint?
amphiarthroses
422
R. Name the components of the Axial skeleton.
skull, hyoid, spinal column, ribs
423
R. What is an epiphyseal plate?
the layer of hyaline cartilage located in the metaphyses that allows the diaphysis of the bone to grow in length. When bones stop growing in adulthood, the plate is replaced by bone and an epiphyseal line is left.
424
R. The bones of the limbs and girdles make up the ____________ skeleton.
appendicular
425
R. How many bones make up the Appendicular skeleton?
126
426
R. How may bones total in skeleton?
206
427
R. Where is an epiphyseal plate located?
between the diaphysis and epiphysis of the long bone
428
R. The matrix of bone is made up of ____ and ____ ______.
Fibers (collagen) and ground substance-calcium and phosphate, (also some magnesium, sodium, sulfate and fluoride)
429
R. Collagen fibers are part of the matrix of bone? True or False
true
430
R. What are the two main types of Nervous tissue cells?
neurons (the conducting units) and neuroglia (support and nourish cells)
431
R. Anatomy is the study of_______?
the STRUCTURE of the human body
432
R. Physiology is the study of body _____?
Body function
433
R. Osteoarthritis is a ________ disease.
Degenerative
434
R. Rheumatoid arthritis is an __________ disease.
Auto Immune
435
R. Name the 3 body planes we should know.
sagital, coronal, transverse
436
R. What does the coronal plane divide?
into anterior and posterior
437
R. What movement happens in the coronal plane?
aBduction and aDduction
438
R. What does the sagittal plane divide?
right and left
439
R. What movement happens in the sagittal plane?
flexion and extension
440
R. What does the transverse plane divide?
superior and inferior
441
R. What movement happens in the transverse plane?
horizontal aBduction and horizontal aDduction
442
R. How many types of muscle tissue are there?
3
443
R. What are the 3 types of muscle tissue?
cardiac, skeletal, smooth
444
R. Describe cardiac muscle tissue: location, texture, movement.
heart, striated, involuntary
445
R. Describe skeletal muscle tissue: location, texture, movement.
attached to skeleton, striated, voluntary
446
R. Describe smooth muscle tissue: location, texture, movement.
tubes and hollow organs, smooth, involuntary
447
R. What is the function of the sarcomere?
the basic CONTRACTILE UNIT of the muscle fiber.
448
R. What is the function of the sarcomere?
the basic CONTRACTILE UNIT of the muscle fiber.
449
R. What is a serous membrane?
a membrane that lines a body cavity that does not open to the exterior.
450
R. The external layer of an organ is formed by a ____________ membrane.
serous
451
R. Where is serous membrane located?
external layer of organs; the membrane that lines the pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal cavities.
452
R. Where are stem cells located?
found in blood and fertilized eggs.
453
R. Where are stem cells located?
found in blood and fertilized eggs.
454
R. What is a lateral maleolus?
the outer ankles.
455
R. A _________ is objective evidence of disease that can be observed or measured; seen.
sign
456
R. A _________ is a subjective change in the body function not apparent to an observer, such as pain or nausea, that indicated the presence of a dis-ease.
symptom
457
R. A sprain involves what?
tear to ligaments
458
R. Define a strain?
stretched or partially torn muscle
459
R. Aging and joints: With aging, a _______________ in synovial fluid, thinning of _____________ _____________, and decreased _______________ of ligaments occur.
decrease, articular cartilage, flexibility
460
R. What are the wrist bones called?
carpels
461
R. What are the 3 layers of deep fascia that form a tendon from deep to superficial?
enodmysium, perimysium, epimysium
462
R. What forms the periosteum?
dense IRREGULAR connective tissue
463
R. _______________ are the bone cells that breakdown bone to release minerals.
osteoclasts
464
R. Beneath the dermis lies a loose ________________ layer, rich in fat and areolar tissue. This is called the __________________.
subcutaneous, hypodermis
465
R. Muscular ___________ is a wasting away of muscles. Individual muscle fibers decrease in size because of progressive loss of myofibrils.
atrophy
466
R. An increase of cell size without cell division is called _______________.
hypertrophy
467
R. ________________ is an abnormal increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ, often associated with cancer.
hyperplasia
468
R. What are the levels of organization starting with the smallest.
chemical, ((organelles)), cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism
469
R. A collection of similar cells and extracellular matrix is called ______________.
tissue
470
R. Atoms and molecules are a part of the ______________ level of organization, and are considered the basic building blocks of life.
chemical
471
R. All the systems functioning together make of the ________________ level of organization
organism
472
R. ____________ are the structures in the body that have some specific function, and are made of of 2 or more tissues.
organs
473
R. There are 11 ____________, and they combine organs to work together in the body.
systems
474
R. An ____________ is to a cell what an organ is to your body.
organelle
475
R. A single motor neuron and the fibers it stimulates is referred to a __________ ____________.
motor unit.
476
R. Stimulation of one somatic motor neuron causes all the ____________ _____________ in that motor unit to contract at the same time.
muscle fibers
477
R. Fewer muscle fibers in a motor unit means ________ precise movements.
more
478
R. _________ muscle fibers in a motor unit means less precise movements, like in the gastrocs.
more (or many)
479
R. What type of cartilage is found in symphysis joints, and in the knee joint.
fibrocartilage
480
R. What is the strongest and most durable of the 3 types of cartilage?
fibrocartilage

SSMT Class 221 (9 decks)

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