9.4-MEASUREMENT OF VIRUS SIZES Flashcards

1
Q

Primary method for direct viral size measurement

A

Electron microscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Technique relating sedimentation rate to viral size/shape

A

Ultracentrifugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Size range of most animal viruses

A

20–300 nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Smallest RNA virus family

A

Picornaviridae (4 kb genome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Smallest DNA virus family

A

Parvoviridae (3.2 kbp genome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bacteriophage size range

A

10–100 nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Staphylococcus bacterial cell size

A

~1000 nm (1 µm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Viral protein protecting nucleic acids from nucleases

A

Capsid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Structural subunits forming viral capsids

A

Capsomeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Symmetrical arrangements of viral capsids

A

Icosahedral/Helical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Envelope acquisition site in host cells

A

Cellular membranes (plasma/nuclear/Golgi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ether-sensitive viral component

A

Lipid envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ether-resistant viral characteristic

A

Non-enveloped capsid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Viral glycoprotein function in entry

A

Receptor binding/membrane fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Viral genome classification basis

A

Nucleic acid type (DNA/RNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

DNA virus with largest genome

A

Poxviridae (375 kbp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

RNA virus with largest genome

A

Coronaviridae (32 kb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Segmented genome example

A

Orthomyxoviruses (Influenza)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Viral lipid envelope composition source

A

Host cell membrane during budding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Glycoprotein analysis method

A

X-ray crystallography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Viral protein initiating replication cycle

A

Uncoating proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Antigenic determinants on viruses

A

Surface glycoproteins/capsid proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Enveloped virus entry mechanism

A

Membrane fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Non-enveloped virus entry mechanism

A

Membrane disruption/lysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Capsid symmetry in herpesviruses

A

Icosahedral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Helical nucleocapsid example

A

Rabies virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Density gradient medium for purification

A

Cesium chloride/sucrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

S value correlation with viral size

A

Larger viruses = higher S (100–1000S)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Viral buoyant density range

A

1.35–1.4 g/cm³ (protein + nucleic acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hydration impact on size measurements

A

Increases apparent size in solution vs. dried state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Freshly dispersed tissue cells with limited lifespan (≤20 passages)

A

Primary cell culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Passaged primary cells retaining diploid chromosomes (≤50 passages)

A

Secondary cell culture (Diploid cell line)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Immortalized cells from tumors with abnormal chromosomes (unlimited growth)

A

Continuous cell line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Example of continuous cell line from cervical cancer

A

HeLa cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Virus-induced cell changes (lysis

A

inclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Adsorption of RBCs to viral hemagglutinin on infected cells

A

Hemadsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

PCR/sequencing to identify viral genetic material

A

Nucleic acid detection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Immunofluorescence/ELISA for viral antigens

A

Viral protein detection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Embryo death in eggs (e.g.

A

encephalitis viruses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Pock/plaque formation in egg membranes (e.g.

A

herpesviruses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Rapid cell destruction (e.g.

A

enteroviruses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Fused multinucleated giant cells (e.g.

A

measles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Swollen cells with nuclear clearing (e.g.

A

CMV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Vacuolated cytoplasm (e.g.

A

SV40)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Viral replication factories visible under microscopy

A

Inclusion bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Intranuclear eosinophilic bodies in herpes infections

A

Cowdry type A inclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Cytoplasmic Negri bodies in rabies-infected neurons

A

Negri bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Intranuclear+cytoplasmic inclusions in measles

A

Warthin-Finkeldey bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Cytoplasmic Guarnieri bodies in smallpox

A

Guarnieri bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Liver cell Councilman bodies in yellow fever

A

Torres bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Rabies virus

A

Negri bodies (cytoplasm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Herpes simplex virus

A

Cowdry type A (nucleus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Variola virus (smallpox)

A

Guarnieri bodies (cytoplasm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

A

Owl’s eye inclusions (nucleus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Measles virus

A

Warthin-Finkeldey bodies (nucleus+cytoplasm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the primary physical method using nucleic acid amplification to quantify viral genomes?

A

Quantitative PCR (qPCR)

57
Q

Which serologic tests use radioactive or enzyme-linked antibodies to detect viral antigens?

A

RIA and ELISA

58
Q

What rapid

A

low-cost assay measures viral hemagglutinin’s ability to clump red blood cells?

59
Q

Which physical method directly visualizes and counts viral particles at high magnification?

A

Electron microscopy

60
Q

What biological assay determines the virus dilution causing disease in 50% of inoculated animals/cells?

A

Endpoint dilution (ID₅₀) assay

61
Q

Which widely used biological method quantifies infectious virus via clear zones in cell monolayers?

A

Plaque assay

62
Q

What technique identifies infected cells by detecting viral antigens with fluorescent antibodies?

A

Immunofluorescence assay

63
Q

Which egg-based method quantifies viruses through pock formation on membranes?

A

Chorioallantoic membrane (CAM) assay

64
Q

What initial step concentrates viruses from body fluids using ammonium sulfate or PEG?

A

Precipitation purification

65
Q

Which purification method separates viruses by size using sucrose gradients?

A

Density gradient centrifugation

66
Q

What criteria confirm a particle as a virus (must show identical properties across preparations)?

A

Antigenic/biological consistency and host-independent nucleic acid

67
Q

What laboratory hazard arises from homogenizing infected tissues or using broken glassware?

A

Aerosol exposure

68
Q

Why is mouth pipetting prohibited in viral labs?

A

To prevent ingestion of infectious material

69
Q

Which viruses retain infectivity after heating at 50-60°C for 30 minutes?

A

Hepatitis B virus and polyomaviruses

70
Q

What salt stabilizes picornaviruses against thermal inactivation?

A

1M MgCl₂

71
Q

Which viruses survive acidic conditions (e.g.

A

stomach pH)?

72
Q

What radiation type most effectively inactivates viruses by damaging nucleic acids?

A

Ultraviolet (UV) light

73
Q

How does ether susceptibility distinguish enveloped from non-enveloped viruses?

A

Enveloped viruses lose infectivity due to lipid membrane disruption

74
Q

Which detergent solubilizes viral envelopes without disrupting capsids?

A

Nonionic detergents (e.g.

75
Q

What chemical inactivates viruses by cross-linking nucleic acids while preserving antigenicity?

A

Formaldehyde

76
Q

Why are viruses resistant to standard antibacterial antibiotics?

A

They lack bacterial targets (e.g.

77
Q

Which sterilant is used for heat-sensitive equipment in virus labs?

A

Ethylene oxide gas

78
Q

What skin disinfectant is effective against most enveloped viruses?

A

70% ethanol

79
Q

Which vaccine inactivation method uses UV-activated nucleic acid-binding dyes?

A

Photodynamic inactivation (e.g.

80
Q

How does qPCR overestimate infectious virus counts?

A

It detects non-infectious genomes/defective particles[^1][^3]

81
Q

What advanced method quantifies single viral particles via nanopore size detection?

A

Tunable Resistive Pulse Sensing (TRPS)[^1]

82
Q

Which ELISA variation offers highest specificity for viral antigen detection?

A

Sandwich ELISA[^1][^2]

83
Q

What is the key limitation of hemagglutination assays?

A

Low sensitivity for low-titer samples[^2][^8]

84
Q

Why do chemical/physical methods fail to distinguish infectious from inactivated viruses?

A

They detect viral components (protein/DNA) indiscriminately[^3][^5]

85
Q

Which biosafety practice prevents cross-contamination during viral culture?

A

Use of HEPA-filtered biosafety cabinets[^4][^7]

86
Q

What is the initial step where viral proteins bind to cell surface receptors like CD4 or sialic acid?

A

Attachment

87
Q

Which penetration method involves the virus merging its envelope with the host cell membrane?

A

Membrane fusion

88
Q

How do non-enveloped viruses like poliovirus typically enter host cells?

A

Direct penetration across plasma membrane

89
Q

What process separates viral nucleic acid from capsid proteins after entry?

90
Q

Where do most DNA viruses (e.g.

A

herpesviruses) release their genomes for replication?

91
Q

Where do RNA viruses like picornaviruses typically replicate their genomes?

92
Q

Which viruses require virion-packaged RNA polymerase to transcribe mRNA?

A

Negative-sense RNA viruses (e.g.

93
Q

What mechanism allows HIV to enter cells via both CD4 and chemokine receptors?

A

Co-receptor-dependent entry (CXCR4/CCR5)

94
Q

Which receptor does rhinovirus use to attach to respiratory epithelial cells?

95
Q

What is Epstein-Barr virus’s primary receptor for B-cell entry?

A

CD21 (complement receptor)

96
Q

How do enveloped viruses like influenza acquire their lipid membranes?

A

Budding from host cell membranes

97
Q

What occurs during morphogenesis of helical nucleocapsids?

A

RNA genome incorporation during capsid assembly

98
Q

Why do non-enveloped viruses often cause cell lysis during release?

A

Lack of budding mechanism requiring membrane disruption

99
Q

What determines the glycoprotein composition of viral envelopes?

A

Host cell membrane type used for budding

100
Q

Which viral release method preserves host cell viability?

A

Budding (e.g.

101
Q

What distinguishes (+)ssRNA viruses’ replication strategy from (-)ssRNA viruses?

A

Direct mRNA translation vs. requiring RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

102
Q

How do DNA viruses exploit host cellular machinery?

A

Using host DNA/RNA polymerases for genome replication

103
Q

What role do nonstructural proteins play in viral replication?

A

Facilitating genome replication/transcription (e.g.

104
Q

Which step follows uncoating and precedes assembly in viral replication?

A

Genome replication/transcription

105
Q

Why do retroviruses require reverse transcription before replication?

A

To convert RNA genomes into integration-competent DNA

106
Q

What structural feature enables rabies virus to bind acetylcholine receptors?

A

Glycoprotein spikes (G protein)

107
Q

How do picornaviruses protect their RNA during uncoating?

A

Partially uncoat while releasing RNA into cytoplasm

108
Q

Which viral family requires nuclear export of mRNA for protein synthesis?

A

DNA viruses (e.g.

109
Q

What triggers syncytium formation in paramyxovirus infections?

A

Fusion protein-mediated cell-cell membrane merging

110
Q

How do segmented RNA viruses ensure genome packaging accuracy?

A

RNA-RNA interactions between genome segments

111
Q

What advantage do lysogenic viruses gain by integrating into host DNA?

A

Latent persistence and vertical transmission

112
Q

What are the primary person-to-person viral transmission routes exemplified by coronaviruses?

A

Direct contact (droplets/aerosols)

113
Q

Which viruses spread via respiratory droplets/aerosols (e.g.

A

sneezing)?

114
Q

What transmission route involves HPV and HIV through intimate contact?

A

Sexual transmission13

115
Q

How do herpes simplex and EBV spread through non-sexual contact?

A

Hand-mouth/eye or mouth-mouth contact14

116
Q

Which viruses transmit via contaminated blood products?

A

Hepatitis B

117
Q

What is the primary route for enteroviruses and hepatitis A?

A

Fecal-oral transmission15

118
Q

How do noroviruses spread via inanimate objects?

A

Fomite transmission (e.g.

119
Q

Which animal-borne viruses transmit through bites?

A

Rabies virus (via saliva)15

120
Q

How do hantaviruses spread from rodents to humans?

A

Aerosolized excreta in confined spaces15

121
Q

What arthropods transmit flaviviruses like dengue?

A

Mosquito vectors (Aedes species)15

122
Q

What is the human-arthropod cycle in viral transmission?

A

Direct transmission between humans and vectors (e.g.

123
Q

What defines tangential infection in zoonotic cycles?

A

Accidental human infection from animal-arthropod cycles (e.g.

124
Q

How does arthropod-to-arthropod transmission occasionally infect humans?

A

Spillover during vector feeding (e.g.

125
Q

What environmental changes increase arbovirus emergence?

A

Urbanization disrupting arthropod habitats15

126
Q

How do multiple sexual partners influence viral spread?

A

Facilitates HIV/HPV transmission through increased exposure13

127
Q

Why do poor socioeconomic conditions exacerbate viral diseases?

A

Limited sanitation/healthcare access (e.g.

128
Q

How does global travel contribute to pandemics?

A

Introduces endemic viruses to naïve populations (e.g.

129
Q

What food-handling practice prevents hepatitis A transmission?

A

Proper cooking and avoiding fecal contamination65

130
Q

How does healthcare accessibility impact viral control?

A

Reduces vaccine-preventable diseases (e.g.

131
Q

What enables viruses to bypass host immunity?

A

Rapid mutation (e.g.

132
Q

Why are public health measures critical for respiratory viruses?

A

Limits airborne/droplet spread through masking/distancing24

133
Q

What vertical transmission method occurs during birth?

A

Intrapartum exposure to maternal fluids (e.g.

134
Q

Which virus requires C-sections to prevent neonatal transmission?

A

Herpes simplex virus (active genital lesions)57

135
Q

How does breastfeeding transmit viruses vertically?

A

Through infected breast milk (e.g.

136
Q

What distinguishes airborne from droplet transmission?

A

Particle size (<5µm aerosols vs. >5µm droplets)12

137
Q

Why are non-enveloped viruses resistant to desiccation?

A

Stable capsids survive on fomites (e.g.

138
Q

What transmission route involves contaminated needles?

A

Percutaneous exposure (e.g.