9 - Altered Mental Status Flashcards

1
Q

What does altered mental status (AMS) encompass?

A

A broad range of disorders leading to a change in cognition or level of consciousness.

Clinical presentations include stupor, delirium, and coma.

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2
Q

What is dementia in relation to AMS?

A

A chronic form of AMS that develops over a prolonged period and is predominant in the elderly.

While not usually life-threatening, it can cause numerous complications.

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3
Q

Why is it important to identify the underlying etiology of AMS?

A

The differential diagnosis is vast and patients are often unable to provide an accurate history.

Family members or caregivers should be included when obtaining history.

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4
Q

What are common causes included in the differential diagnosis of acute AMS?

A
  • Trauma
  • Infection
  • Psychiatric disorders
  • Vascular issues
  • Structural problems
  • Hypoxic disorders
  • Metabolic disorders

This chapter emphasizes metabolic derangements.

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5
Q

What symptoms did the 25-year-old man exhibit in the case study?

A
  • Stuporous state
  • Incoherent rambling
  • Repetitive vomiting
  • Weight loss
  • Excessive fluid intake
  • Dry mucus membranes
  • Poor skin turgor
  • Mild hypoxia

He also exhibited Kussmaul respirations and tachycardia.

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6
Q

What were the laboratory findings for the patient?

A

Urinalysis showed a pH of 5.5, 4+ ketone bodies, and a specific gravity of 1.035.

EKG revealed sinus tachycardia with peaked T waves.

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7
Q

What is a key term associated with metabolic acidosis in the context of diabetes?

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).

Characterized by hyperglycemia, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis.

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8
Q

What is the primary cause of the problems observed in diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

Insulin deficiency.

This leads to an acute stress response despite high blood glucose levels.

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9
Q

How is glucose homeostasis maintained in the fed state?

A

Insulin promotes glucose uptake and storage while counterregulatory hormones facilitate glucose release.

Key hormones include glucagon, epinephrine, cortisol, and growth hormone.

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10
Q

What happens to glucose after a meal?

A
  • Beta cells secrete insulin
  • Insulin promotes glucose uptake in adipose and skeletal muscle
  • Excess glucose is stored as glycogen
  • Some glucose is converted to fatty acids

GLUT4 transporter is insulin-dependent for glucose uptake.

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11
Q

What roles do insulin and glucagon play in glucose metabolism?

A

Insulin promotes glycogen synthesis and glycolysis, while glucagon promotes glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.

They have opposing activities in maintaining plasma glucose levels.

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12
Q

What happens to pyruvate in the fasting state?

A

Pyruvate is converted to oxaloacetate instead of acetyl CoA due to high NADH levels and glucagon signaling.

This pathway supports gluconeogenesis.

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13
Q

What is the structure of insulin?

A

A polypeptide hormone produced by the beta cells of the Islets of Langerhans, consisting of two chains (A and B) linked by disulfide bridges.

C-peptide is released alongside insulin and indicates insulin production.

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14
Q

What stimulates insulin secretion from the pancreas?

A
  • Glucose
  • Amino acids
  • Gastrointestinal hormones

Incretins also promote insulin secretion in anticipation of glucose increases.

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15
Q

How does glucagon affect insulin secretion?

A

Glucagon stimulates insulin secretion to promote glucose utilization.

Insulin also inhibits glucagon release.

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16
Q

What enzymes are involved in gluconeogenesis?

A
  • Pyruvate carboxylase
  • Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
  • Glucose 6-phosphatase

These enzymes facilitate the conversion of substrates to glucose.

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17
Q

What is the result of glucagon signaling in the liver?

A

Promotes gluconeogenesis and inhibits glycolysis by affecting key enzymes.

It prevents the conversion of newly made PEP back to pyruvate.

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18
Q

What is the role of pyruvate kinase in metabolism?

A

Pyruvate kinase is inhibited by glucagon and epinephrine signaling to prevent the conversion of PEP back to pyruvate.

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19
Q

What is the energy requirement for gluconeogenesis?

A

Gluconeogenesis requires 6 high-energy phosphate bonds to convert 2 pyruvate molecules to 1 glucose molecule.

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20
Q

What process provides energy for gluconeogenesis during fasting?

A

The energy for gluconeogenesis in the fasting state is obtained from the beta-oxidation of fatty acids.

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21
Q

What happens to acetyl CoA during fasting?

A

Acetyl CoA accumulates from beta-oxidation and is diverted toward ketogenesis when it exceeds the capacity for oxidation through the TCA cycle.

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22
Q

What is the pathophysiology of hyperglycemia with ketosis in diabetes?

A

Diabetes is characterized by insulin deficiency or resistance, leading to increased hepatic glucose output and decreased glucose uptake by tissues.

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23
Q

What are the main causes of hyperglycemia in type I diabetes?

A

The main causes include a severe deficiency of insulin and increased counterregulatory hormones.

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24
Q

What is the effect of cortisol in diabetes?

A

Cortisol promotes protein catabolism in muscles to supply substrates for gluconeogenesis.

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25
Q

What clinical signs indicate diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

Signs include hyperglycemia, ketoacidosis, dehydration, and electrolyte loss.

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26
Q

What is the clinical significance of Kussmaul breathing?

A

Kussmaul breathing is a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis, where the body attempts to remove CO2.

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27
Q

What is the net result of diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

The net result is hyperglycemia, ketoacidosis, dehydration, and renal dysfunction.

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28
Q

What is the definition of anion gap?

A

Anion gap measures the difference between serum positively and negatively charged ions, calculated as AG = [Na+] − ([Cl−] + [HCO3−]).

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29
Q

What does an elevated anion gap indicate?

A

An elevated anion gap indicates the presence of unmeasured anions, often associated with metabolic acidosis.

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30
Q

What are the causes of lactic acidosis?

A
  • Hypoxia * Heart failure * Liver failure * Hypoglycemia * Chronic alcoholism * Vigorous exercise
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31
Q

What metabolic changes occur with alcohol metabolism?

A

Alcohol metabolism alters intermediary metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.

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32
Q

What are the enzymes involved in ethanol metabolism?

A
  • Alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) * CYP2E1 * Catalase
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33
Q

What is the effect of chronic alcohol consumption on ethanol metabolism?

A

Chronic alcohol consumption induces CYP2E1, increasing the capacity for ethanol metabolism.

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34
Q

Fill in the blank: In type II diabetes, tissues become _______ to insulin.

A

[insulin resistant]

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35
Q

True or False: Ketone bodies are formed from glucose metabolism.

A

False

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36
Q

What is the consequence of osmotic diuresis in diabetes?

A

Osmotic diuresis leads to dehydration and electrolyte loss, resulting in hyponatremia.

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37
Q

What is the immediate treatment for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

Immediate treatment includes insulin administration, fluid, and electrolyte replacement.

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38
Q

What is the clinical impression for a patient with acute gastrointestinal symptoms and mental status changes?

A

The clinical impression suggests possible infection, dehydration, and acute metabolic disorder.

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39
Q

What laboratory findings indicate metabolic acidosis in the patient?

A

Laboratory findings indicate elevated lactate and ketone bodies.

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40
Q

What is the likely cause of hypoglycemia in the patient with a history of alcohol abuse?

A

The likely cause is impaired gluconeogenesis due to alcohol metabolism.

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41
Q

What is the normal range for anion gap?

A

The normal range for anion gap is 8-16 mEq/L.

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42
Q

What enzyme primarily metabolizes ethanol?

A

Alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) metabolizes about 85% of ethanol.

This is the main enzyme responsible for ethanol oxidation in the liver.

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43
Q

What is the role of CYP2E1 in ethanol metabolism?

A

CYP2E1 metabolizes 10%-15% of ethanol and is induced by chronic alcohol consumption.

It can also metabolize other compounds like acetaminophen.

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44
Q

What is the consequence of increased CYP2E1 expression in chronic alcoholics?

A

It increases the capacity for ethanol metabolism, allowing alcoholics to tolerate higher alcohol levels.

This is why alcoholics can ‘hold’ their liquor better.

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45
Q

What is acetaldehyde converted to in the mitochondria?

A

Acetaldehyde is converted to acetate by aldehyde dehydrogenase (ALDH).

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46
Q

What effect does high NADH/NAD+ ratio have on pyruvate metabolism?

A

It inhibits the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, preventing conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA, and promotes lactate formation.

This can lead to lactic acidosis.

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47
Q

Fill in the blank: The accumulation of NADH inhibits _______ in gluconeogenesis.

A

gluconeogenesis.

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48
Q

What metabolic condition can result from high NADH levels during alcohol metabolism?

A

Hypoglycemia can result from the inhibition of gluconeogenesis.

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49
Q

What is the net result of high NADH levels in the liver during alcohol metabolism?

A

The net result is hypoglycemia, dehydration, and anion gap metabolic acidosis.

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50
Q

What does steatosis in the liver result from?

A

It results from increased lipid production and decreased fatty acid oxidation.

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51
Q

What are the consequences of excess acetyl CoA in the liver?

A

Excess acetyl CoA promotes fatty acid synthesis or ketogenesis, depending on nutritional status.

High NADH favors the formation of beta-hydroxybutyrate.

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52
Q

True or False: Ethanol metabolism leads to increased ketone body synthesis.

A

True.

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53
Q

What is fomepizole?

A

A potent inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase used to prevent toxic metabolite formation.

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54
Q

What does an elevated osmolality gap indicate?

A

It indicates the presence of unmeasured solute in the blood.

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55
Q

What is a common sign of isopropanol poisoning?

A

Ketonemia and ketonuria without acidosis.

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56
Q

What is the primary toxic metabolite of methanol?

A

Formic acid.

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57
Q

What condition can result from methanol ingestion due to its toxic metabolites?

A

Profound metabolic acidosis.

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58
Q

What is the primary effect of formic acid on the body?

A

It inhibits cytochrome c oxidase activity leading to tissue hypoxia.

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59
Q

What is a key symptom of methanol poisoning?

A

Acute visual changes.

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60
Q

Fill in the blank: Ethylene glycol is commonly used as _______.

A

automotive antifreeze.

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61
Q

What type of acidosis does ethylene glycol metabolism cause?

A

Metabolic acidosis.

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62
Q

What is the consequence of propylene glycol toxicity?

A

Lactic acidosis and potential hepatic and renal dysfunction.

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63
Q

What laboratory result indicates severe metabolic acidosis?

A

An extremely low bicarbonate level.

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64
Q

What finding is associated with methanol poisoning regarding the optic nerve?

A

Damage leading to acute visual changes.

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65
Q

What can long-term alcohol abuse lead to in terms of nutritional status?

A

Malnutrition.

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66
Q

What is the first therapeutic intervention in treating methanol ingestion?

A

Instill ethanol under direct supervision.

Ethanol competes with methanol for alcohol dehydrogenase, inhibiting the conversion of methanol to its toxic by-products.

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67
Q

What is the significance of the osmolal gap in acute alcohol toxicity?

A

An osmolal gap >10 mOsm/kg indicates an unmeasured osmotically active molecule, often due to toxic alcohol ingestion.

The osmolal gap develops as the gut absorbs the toxic alcohol into circulation.

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68
Q

What causes the anion gap in toxic alcohol intoxication?

A

The metabolites of toxic alcohols, specifically organic acids, cause the anion gap.

This occurs after the liver metabolizes the toxic alcohols.

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69
Q

True or False: Isopropanol leads to an anion gap with metabolic acidosis.

A

False.

Isopropanol is metabolized to acetone rather than organic acids, resulting in an osmolal gap without metabolic acidosis.

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70
Q

What is the role of fomepizole in treating toxic alcohol ingestion?

A

Fomepizole inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase, preventing the conversion of toxic alcohols to harmful metabolites.

It is often used when ethanol is not available.

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71
Q

What are the high-yield concepts related to toxic alcohols?

A
  • Toxic alcohols are metabolized along the same pathway as ethanol.
  • Metabolic products of toxic alcohols cause tissue damage.
  • Ethanol slows the formation of toxic metabolites.
  • Ethanol infusion can be therapeutic in the absence of fomepizole.
  • Osmolal and anion gaps indicate toxic alcohol ingestion.
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72
Q

What is asterixis?

A

Rhythmic spastic flapping of the hands as a pathognomonic sign of encephalopathy.

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73
Q

Define hepatic encephalopathy.

A

Mental status changes associated with cirrhosis and metabolic liver failure due to the accumulation of ammonia.

74
Q

What is noncirrhotic hyperammonemia?

A

Encephalopathy resulting from failure in the urea cycle to remove ammonia from the system.

75
Q

Fill in the blank: Urea is synthesized in the liver from ammonia produced by the breakdown of _______.

A

amino acids.

76
Q

What is the function of the urea cycle?

A

It produces arginine, ornithine, and citrulline and removes toxic ammonium ions and free ammonia.

77
Q

What happens if there are defects in any of the enzymes of the urea cycle?

A

Accumulation of toxic levels of ammonia occurs.

78
Q

What might one attribute as the cause for this sudden change in mental status?

A

A family history of an ill-defined death of a previous male child suggests a genetic cause. The sudden change combined with hypothermia and flaccidity indicates a metabolic emergency.

79
Q

What does the severely decreased BUN in the neonate indicate?

A

It could be caused by a low protein diet, malnutrition, or sudden liver failure.

80
Q

What tests are requested to investigate sudden liver failure?

A

Liver function enzymes (LFTs), prothrombin time (INR), and serum ammonia levels.

81
Q

What do normal albumin levels rule out?

A

Protein deficiency.

82
Q

What do slightly elevated transaminases indicate in the context of liver function?

A

While they are slightly elevated, normal bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, along with normal prothrombin time, make acute hepatic failure unlikely.

83
Q

What does an elevated serum ammonia level suggest?

A

It brings a urea cycle disorder to the forefront.

84
Q

What is the normal ammonia level range in neonates?

A

40-75 μmol/L.

85
Q

What can the accumulation of ammonia lead to?

A

Hepatic encephalopathy due to toxic effects on the CNS.

86
Q

What laboratory analyses are ordered to identify the urea cycle defect?

A

Amino acid analysis in plasma for citrulline and glutamine, and organic acid analysis in urine for orotic acid.

87
Q

What does elevated orotic acid in urine and low citrulline indicate?

A

Ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) deficiency.

88
Q

What is the relationship between OTC deficiency and hepatic encephalopathy?

A

OTC deficiency leads to failure of ammonia removal, causing sudden changes in neuronal function.

89
Q

What are common presentations of urea cycle disorders in neonates?

A

Feeding difficulties, lethargy, hyperventilation, hypothermia, seizures, elevated serum ammonia, and depressed BUN.

90
Q

What can unmask OTC deficiencies in older children and adults?

A

Metabolic stress such as infection or protein overload.

91
Q

What happens to the brain and liver if ammonia accumulation goes uncorrected?

A

Damage to white matter with myelin deficiency and neuronal loss in the CNS, and acute inflammatory process with microvesicular steatosis in the liver.

92
Q

What does protein turnover refer to?

A

The synthesis and breakdown of proteins.

93
Q

What happens to the nitrogen balance in illness?

A

It tips to the negative.

94
Q

What are the two mechanisms used to eliminate excess protein?

A
  • Conversion to energy * Urea cycle for ammonia removal.
95
Q

How does glutamine act as a nitrogen shuttle?

A

It transports ammonia from peripheral tissues to the liver.

96
Q

What role do kidneys play concerning ammonia?

A

They both remove and produce ammonia.

97
Q

What do enterocytes in the intestine do with glutamine?

A

Convert it to glutamate and ammonia.

98
Q

What is the role of alanine in the urea cycle?

A

It is carried to the liver where it is deaminated to pyruvate.

99
Q

What are transaminases?

A

Enzymes that facilitate the transfer of amino groups from amino acids to alpha-keto acids.

100
Q

What is the significance of ALT and AST in liver disease?

A

They are markers used to determine hepatocellular injury.

101
Q

How does the urea cycle eliminate ammonia?

A

Each urea molecule contains 2 nitrogens, both provided by glutamate.

102
Q

What are the two transaminases used to determine hepatocellular injury in liver disease?

A

ALT and AST

103
Q

What does damage to hepatocytes result in?

A

Spilling of ALT and AST into the general circulation

104
Q

How many nitrogens does each urea molecule contain?

A

2 nitrogens

105
Q

What is the source of one nitrogen in urea?

A

Free ammonium from glutamate or glutamine

106
Q

Where does the urea cycle occur?

A

In the liver

107
Q

How many molecules of energy-rich phosphate are required to synthesize one molecule of urea?

A

Four molecules

108
Q

What is the first step of the urea cycle?

A

Synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate

109
Q

What enzyme catalyzes the synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate?

A

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (CPSI)

110
Q

In which cellular compartment does CPSI reside?

A

Mitochondria

111
Q

What is the role of N-acetylglutamate (NAG) in the urea cycle?

A

Allosteric regulator of CPSI

112
Q

What does OTC deficiency represent?

A

The most commonly seen inborn error in urea cycle disorders

113
Q

What is the effect of arginine on the urea cycle?

A

Stimulates synthesis of NAG and increases production of carbamoyl phosphate

114
Q

What are the two ammonia-scavenging drugs used to treat urea cycle disorders?

A

Sodium benzoate and phenylbutyrate

115
Q

What condition can lead to excess orotic acid in the urine?

A

Urea cycle disorders, especially OTC deficiency

116
Q

What enzyme deficiency leads to hereditary orotic aciduria?

A

Uridine monophosphate synthetase

117
Q

How does ammonia relate to the development of encephalopathy?

A

It becomes a neurotoxin when excess in serum and crosses the blood-brain barrier

118
Q

Which cell type in the CNS detoxifies ammonia?

119
Q

What is the consequence of elevated ammonia levels in the brain?

A

Neurological impairment

120
Q

What immediate remedies are used for a urea cycle disorder?

A

Infusion of dextrose, correction of electrolyte and acid-base abnormalities, dialysis

121
Q

What is the committed step of the urea cycle?

A

Combining ammonium ion with bicarbonate to form carbamoyl phosphate

122
Q

What is the result of failure to remove ammonium ions from the body?

A

Accumulation in the CNS

123
Q

What is a key finding in urea cycle disorders?

A

Elevated serum ammonia levels with low BUN

124
Q

What does the presence of megaloblastic anemia indicate in relation to orotic aciduria?

A

Differentiates hereditary orotic aciduria from urea cycle disorders

125
Q

What happens to the balance between excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters with rising ammonia levels?

A

It is disrupted, leading to neural tissue injury

126
Q

What is the significance of the dark purple urine in the case of the 33-year-old woman?

A

Indicates possible porphyria or urea cycle disorder

127
Q

What happens during the synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate?

A

Ammonium ion combines with bicarbonate and ATP

128
Q

What is the clinical presentation of OTC deficiency?

A

Elevated ammonia and low BUN in the serum

129
Q

What is the role of glutamate dehydrogenase in the CNS?

A

Converts alpha-ketoglutarate to glutamate

130
Q

What is the effect of ammonia on the TCA cycle?

A

Inhibits energy production due to depletion of alpha-ketoglutarate

131
Q

Fill in the blank: The urea cycle is initiated in the _______.

A

Mitochondria

132
Q

Fill in the blank: The enzyme that cleaves arginine to release urea is called _______.

133
Q

What is heme synthesis?

A

Heme synthesis predominates in the liver and erythroid cells of the bone marrow. Heme is then assembled into hemoglobin, myoglobin, and cytochromes.

134
Q

What are hemin and hematin?

A

Pharmacologically stable forms of heme.

135
Q

What is porphyria?

A

A disorder of heme synthesis characterized by a series of eight enzyme-mediated reactions.

136
Q

What are classic pitfalls in the diagnosis of abdominal pain?

A

Disparity between pain severity and absence of findings, such as in:
* Type 1 diabetes with autonomic neuropathy
* Acute cholecystitis with necrotizing gallbladder
* Mesenteric vascular ischemia
* Heavy metal poisoning
* Shingles
* Porphyria

137
Q

What symptoms manifest in acute episodes of porphyrias?

A

Changes in mental status, peripheral neuropathy, severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting.

138
Q

What is the triad suggestive of porphyria?

A

Abdominal pain without an obvious cause, seizure activity, and hyponatremia.

139
Q

How are the porphyrias categorized?

A

Into three groups:
* Acute hepatic porphyrias
* Cutaneous porphyrias
* Those with both acute pain and cutaneous symptoms

140
Q

What is the biochemical basis for porphyrias?

A

Porphyrias result from enzyme deficiencies in the heme synthetic pathway, causing an accumulation of porphyrins and their precursors.

141
Q

What is the committed step in heme synthesis?

A

The reaction catalyzed by δ-aminolevulinate synthase (ALAS), which is pyridoxal phosphate-dependent.

142
Q

What are the 4Ms that induce heme synthesis?

A

Medication, menstruation, malnutrition, maladies.

143
Q

What is the most common porphyria?

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT), which can be acquired or inherited.

144
Q

What is the defective enzyme in porphyria cutanea tarda?

A

Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase deficiency.

145
Q

What treatment is used for porphyria cutanea tarda?

A

Phlebotomy to reduce iron and porphyrin levels.

146
Q

What is the second most common porphyria?

A

Acute intermittent porphyria, which is an autosomal dominant disorder.

147
Q

What is the defective enzyme in acute intermittent porphyria?

A

Porphobilinogen deaminase.

148
Q

What are the symptoms of acute intermittent porphyria?

A

Recurrent attacks of abdominal pain, gastrointestinal dysfunction, and neurologic disturbances.

149
Q

What is the initial treatment for acute porphyrias?

A

Infusion of glucose followed by hematin.

150
Q

What are the consequences of enzyme deficiencies in the heme synthesis pathway?

A

Accumulation of porphyrins and their precursors.

151
Q

Fill in the blank: The heme biosynthetic pathway consists of ______ steps.

152
Q

True or False: The quintessential finding of altered urine color in porphyria is apparent at first.

153
Q

What are the major symptoms of cutaneous porphyrias?

A

Photosensitivity resulting in painful, blistering skin lesions.

154
Q

What is a common risk factor that can trigger acute attacks of porphyrias?

A

Conditions that induce heme synthesis, such as medications, stress, or fasting.

155
Q

What can cause neurological damage in acute intermittent porphyria?

A

Accumulation of ALA (delta-aminolevulinic acid).

156
Q

What is a common misconception about patients with porphyria?

A

That they have psychosomatic pain or are drug-seeking.

157
Q

What laboratory finding is most likely for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis due to lack of insulin?

A

Intracellular potassium level is decreased

Acidosis leads to hydrogen ions entering the cell in exchange for potassium ions, resulting in a net loss of intracellular potassium.

158
Q

What is the most likely working diagnosis for a 37-year-old man with altered mental status, normal blood glucose, and elevated serum ammonia after high protein intake?

A

Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency

The patient is obtunded with normal serum glucose and has mild cerebral edema, suggesting a urea cycle disorder.

159
Q

What is the most appropriate next step in the management of a patient with accidental methanol ingestion?

A

Administration of fomepizole

Fomepizole inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase, preventing the formation of toxic metabolites from methanol.

160
Q

What pharmacotherapy is most appropriate for a patient with acute intermittent porphyria presenting with reddish urine?

A

Hemin

Reddish urine indicates porphobilinogen accumulation, which is treated with hemin.

161
Q

What is the most likely explanation for hypoglycemia in a 45-year-old man with alcohol abuse?

A

Increased NADH/NAD ratio inhibiting gluconeogenesis

Ethanol metabolism increases NADH, blocking substrates needed for gluconeogenesis.

162
Q

What is the most likely metabolic change after administering glucose and thiamine to a patient in the emergency department?

A

Increase in triacylglycerol synthesis

Excess NADH from glucose metabolism promotes fatty acid synthesis.

163
Q

What enzyme deficiency is likely in a 1-month-old child with megaloblastic anemia and orotic aciduria?

A

UMP synthase (UMPS)

The child’s symptoms and lab findings suggest orotic aciduria due to UMPS deficiency.

164
Q

What laboratory finding is expected in a child with calcium oxalate crystals and altered mental status?

A

Increased anion gap

Ethylene glycol toxicity leads to metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap.

165
Q

What is the underlying cause of acid-base disorder in an elderly female with hyperglycemia and normal BUN?

A

Gluconeogenesis

The patient presents with diabetic ketoacidosis due to insulin deficiency.

166
Q

What enzyme is deficient in a patient with elevated levels of δ-aminolevulinic acid and psychiatric symptoms?

A

Porphobilinogen deaminase

This enzyme deficiency leads to acute intermittent porphyria, presenting with psychiatric symptoms.

167
Q

What is the relationship between insulin and glucagon in diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

The ratio of insulin to glucagon is very low in this situation, leading to metabolic acidosis.

168
Q

What causes the metabolic acidosis in diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

Increased degradation of triacylglycerols and fatty acids due to insulin insufficiency.

169
Q

What leads to the synthesis of ketone bodies in diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

Accumulation of acetyl CoA from beta-oxidation.

170
Q

True or False: Glycogenolysis contributes to acid-base disorder in diabetic ketoacidosis.

171
Q

What amino acid is primarily carried from muscle breakdown during diabetic ketoacidosis?

172
Q

What is the effect of gluconeogenesis in insulin insufficiency?

A

Increases the osmolal gap but does not increase the anion gap.

173
Q

What enzyme deficiency is associated with acute intermittent porphyria (AIP)?

A

Porphobilinogen deaminase

174
Q

What are the 4Ms that initiate attacks of acute intermittent porphyria?

A
  • Maladies
  • Menstruation
  • Medication
  • Malnutrition
175
Q

What laboratory results are significant for diagnosing acute intermittent porphyria?

A

Increased levels of δ-aminolevulinic acid and porphobilinogen.

176
Q

What happens with low aldehyde dehydrogenase levels?

A

Accumulation of acetaldehyde leading to facial flushing, nausea, hypotension, headache, and fatigue.

177
Q

What condition may cause abdominal pain after a fatty meal?

A

Lipoprotein lipase deficiency

178
Q

What is a key symptom of lipoprotein lipase deficiency?

A

Abdominal pain due to pancreatitis.

179
Q

What disorder is caused by ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) deficiency?

A

Urea cycle disorder

180
Q

What are the symptoms associated with late-onset OTC deficiency?

A

Altered mental status and hyperammonemia with orotic aciduria.