8 - Gout Flashcards

1
Q

What is purine metabolism?

A

The biochemical process involving the breakdown of purines to produce uric acid.

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2
Q

What is hyperuricemia?

A

A condition characterized by elevated levels of uric acid in the serum.

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3
Q

What are the two types of hyperuricemia?

A
  • Primary hyperuricemia
  • Secondary hyperuricemia
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4
Q

What are common risk factors that precipitate gout?

A
  • High alcohol consumption
  • Diet rich in purines (meat and seafood)
  • Obesity
  • Metabolic syndrome
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5
Q

What are potential clinical manifestations associated with hyperuricemia?

A

Excruciating joint pain, swollen joints, and inflammation.

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6
Q

What is the first step in diagnosing joint pain?

A

A comprehensive history and physical examination.

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7
Q

What is a monoarticular arthropathy?

A

Acute inflammatory change in a single joint.

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8
Q

What is the classic joint for a monoarticular presentation of gout?

A

The great toe.

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9
Q

What laboratory findings support a diagnosis of gout?

A
  • Elevated serum uric acid level
  • Attack of monoarticular arthritis with rapid onset
  • Pain and erythema in the joint
  • Culture negative upon aspiration
  • Finding of a subcortical cyst without erosion on radiography
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10
Q

What is pseudogout?

A

Arthritis caused by calcium pyrophosphate crystals, often mimicking gout.

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11
Q

What are the key characteristics of gout?

A

Often monoarticular, severe pain, swelling, and typically involves lower extremities.

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12
Q

What lifestyle changes are recommended for managing chronic gout?

A
  • Weight loss
  • Smoking cessation
  • Increased exercise
  • Reduced intake of sugar-sweetened drinks and alcohol
  • Diet rich in plant proteins and vegetables
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13
Q

What is the pKa of uric acid?

A

5.5.

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14
Q

What is the primary site of purine degradation?

A

The liver.

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15
Q

Fill in the blank: The end product of purine degradation is _______.

A

uric acid

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16
Q

True or False: Gout can be triggered by cool external environments.

A

True

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17
Q

What are the symptoms of reactive arthritis?

A

Associated with iritis and urethritis, often following a bacterial infection.

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18
Q

What are common organisms causing septic arthritis?

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae
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19
Q

What does the presence of monosodium urate (MSU) crystals in the joint indicate?

A

A diagnosis of gout.

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20
Q

What is the significance of a history of dietary indulgence in relation to gout?

A

Diet rich in purines and alcohol can precipitate gout attacks.

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21
Q

What are the common presentations of osteoarthritis?

A

Typically asymmetric, affecting larger joints such as knees and hips.

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22
Q

What is the relationship between hyperuricemia and metabolic syndrome?

A

Conditions like obesity, dyslipidemia, insulin resistance, and hypertension increase the risk of gout.

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23
Q

What type of crystals are found in gout?

A

Needlelike monosodium urate (MSU) crystals.

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24
Q

What is the role of temperature and pH in the formation of MSU crystals?

A

Temperature and pH affect the solubility and crystallization of uric acid.

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25
Q

What is the typical presentation of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Symmetrical involvement of smaller joints, often with morning stiffness.

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26
Q

What does the acronym PRPP stand for?

A

5-Phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate.

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27
Q

What is the typical age group affected by gout?

A

More common in males, often affecting those over 40.

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28
Q

What dietary components are associated with increased risk of gout?

A
  • Alcohol
  • Fructose
  • Sugar-sweetened soft drinks
  • Meat
  • Seafood
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29
Q

What is the common characteristic of arthritis in systemic lupus erythematosus?

A

Typically not inflammatory and can present with a characteristic rash.

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30
Q

What is the impact of lifestyle changes on gout management?

A

Can significantly reduce the frequency of gout attacks.

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31
Q

What is the primary site of degradation of purines?

A

Liver

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32
Q

What are the end products of purine nucleoside metabolism in humans?

A

Uric acid

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33
Q

Which enzyme converts uric acid into allantoin in most mammals?

A

Uricase

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34
Q

What is the main intermediate in purine degradation?

A

Xanthine

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35
Q

How are adenosine and guanosine metabolized?

A

They are converted to xanthine

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36
Q

What is the role of adenosine deaminase (ADA) in the body?

A

Essential for immune function and regulating extracellular adenosine signaling

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37
Q

What is the final step in purine degradation?

A

Formation of uric acid by xanthine oxidase

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38
Q

What can dysregulation of purine metabolism lead to?

A

Hyperuricemia and gout

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39
Q

What are potential causes of primary hyperuricemia?

A
  • Inborn error of metabolism
  • Genetic defects
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40
Q

What is secondary hyperuricemia?

A

Hyperuricemia driven by an underlying disorder

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41
Q

What medication is commonly used to treat hyperuricemia in gout patients?

A

Allopurinol

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42
Q

What is the mechanism of action of allopurinol?

A

Inhibits xanthine oxidase

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43
Q

What dietary changes can help manage gout?

A
  • Limit purine-rich foods
  • Limit alcohol intake
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44
Q

What is the first-line treatment during an acute gout attack?

A

Corticosteroid treatment

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45
Q

What are common side effects of colchicine?

A
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Diarrhea
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46
Q

What is required for chronic management of gout?

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitors or uricosuric agents

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47
Q

What can chronic uric acid elevation lead to in joints?

A

Urate crystal formation and tissue damage

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48
Q

What is the appearance of MSU crystals under polarized light microscopy?

A

Strongly negatively birefringent and needle-shaped

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49
Q

How is uric acid processed in the kidneys?

A

Filtered by glomerulus and reabsorbed in the proximal tubule

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50
Q

What can lead to the formation of uric acid stones?

A

Low pH in urine and chronic urate nephropathy

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51
Q

What are high-yield concepts related to hyperuricemia and gout?

A
  • Elevated serum urate may not cause gout
  • Gout commonly affects the great toe
  • Decreased uric acid excretion promotes hyperuricemia
  • Increased purine-rich food enhances attack risk
  • Normal serum urate can occur during gout attacks
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52
Q

What are the characteristics of choreoathetosis?

A

Involuntary writhing movements

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53
Q

What is dystonia?

A

A movement disorder characterized by involuntary muscle spasms

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54
Q

What is the purine salvage pathway?

A

A pathway for cells to recycle purine bases from nucleotide degradation

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55
Q

What could hyperuricemia and uric acid crystals in urine suggest in a pediatric patient?

A

Possible hematologic malignancy

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56
Q

What is choreoathetosis?

A

Involuntary writhing movements.

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57
Q

Define dystonia.

A

A movement disorder characterized by involuntary rapidly contractile muscle spasms.

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58
Q

What is the purine salvage pathway?

A

A pathway in which cells salvage and recycle purine bases that are released from nucleotide degradation.

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59
Q

What is a significant laboratory finding in the case presented?

A

Hyperuricemia and uric acid crystal in the urine.

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60
Q

What can hyperuricemia indicate in a child?

A

Possible hematologic malignancy due to high cellular turnover.

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61
Q

What diagnosis was ultimately made for the child?

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome due to a deficiency of hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT).

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62
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

A

X-linked recessive trait.

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63
Q

What biochemical measurement supports the diagnosis of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

A

Measuring the level of HGPRT and confirmed with gene analysis.

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64
Q

What are common symptoms of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

A

Gout, renal calculi, loss of muscle control, dysarthria, and moderate psychomotor retardation.

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65
Q

What is the consequence of HGPRT deficiency?

A

Inability to salvage hypoxanthine or guanine.

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66
Q

What are the two major pathways for purine synthesis?

A

De novo and salvage pathways.

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67
Q

Which organ is the major site for de novo purine synthesis?

A

Liver.

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68
Q

What is PRPP?

A

5′-phosphoribosyl-1′-pyrophosphate.

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69
Q

What activates PRPP synthetase?

A

Inorganic phosphate.

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70
Q

What inhibits PRPP synthetase?

A

Purine-5′-ribonucleotides, particularly AMP and GMP.

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71
Q

What is the rate-limiting step in de novo purine nucleotide synthesis?

A

Formation of phosphoribosylamine (PRA) by glutamine PRPP-amidotransferase (GPAT).

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72
Q

What is the role of glutamine in purine synthesis?

A

It donates an amide group to form phosphoribosylamine (PRA).

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73
Q

What is the energy cost for producing one IMP molecule?

A

Five ATP.

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74
Q

What regulates the synthesis of AMP and GMP from IMP?

A

Reciprocal regulation; GTP favors AMP synthesis, ATP favors GMP synthesis.

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75
Q

How are purines synthesized via the salvage pathway?

A

Using purine bases obtained from the liver and degradation of RNA, which are converted to nucleotides by phosphoribosyltransferases.

76
Q

What is the role of adenine phosphoribosyltransferase (APRT)?

A

Converts adenine to AMP.

77
Q

What is the significance of HGPRT in purine synthesis?

A

Catalyzes the formation of GMP and IMP from guanine and hypoxanthine, respectively.

78
Q

What are the neurological symptoms associated with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

A

Spasticity, mental retardation, aggression, and self-mutilation.

79
Q

What medication is prescribed to control hyperuricemia in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

A

Allopurinol.

80
Q

What are xanthomas?

A

Cholesterol-rich deposits in the skin and cutaneous manifestations of hyperlipidemia.

81
Q

What is hematuria?

A

The presence of red blood cells in the urine.

82
Q

What condition did the 7-year-old boy have?

A

Glycogen storage disease (GSD) type 1A or von Gierke disease.

83
Q

What laboratory findings are associated with von Gierke disease?

A

Hypoglycemia, anemia, anion gap lactic acidosis, hyperuricemia, elevated cholesterol and triglycerides, abnormal liver function tests.

84
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of von Gierke disease?

A

Profound hypoglycemia, lethargy, weakness, hepatomegaly.

85
Q

What is the initial finding during the emergent evaluation of a child with glycogen storage disorder?

A

Hypoglycemia along with hepatomegaly

These findings prompt further investigation into insulin and glucose levels.

86
Q

What does a low insulin level in the face of hypoglycemia suggest?

A

Excludes an insulin-secreting tumor or other causes for elevated insulin levels

This is crucial in diagnosing glycogen storage disorders.

87
Q

What are the physical findings typical of glycogen storage disorder (GSD)?

A

Dysmorphic features of growth retardation and a doll-like facies

These features are due to fat deposition in the cheeks.

88
Q

What is the cardinal manifestation of von Gierke disease?

A

Massive hepatomegaly along with nephromegaly

89
Q

What laboratory findings are consistent with von Gierke disease?

A

Hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, hyperuricemia, hypercholesterolemia, and hypertriglyceridemia

90
Q

What is the role of glycogen in energy metabolism?

A

Provides a rapid source of glucose for energy

Essential for brain and red blood cells which constantly draw upon glucose.

91
Q

How does the liver maintain blood glucose levels during fasting?

A

By glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

92
Q

What enzyme is crucial for converting glucose 6-phosphate to glucose?

A

Glucose-6-phosphatase

93
Q

What is glycogen?

A

An enormous branched chain of glucose molecules linked by glycosidic bonds

94
Q

What enzyme controls glycogen synthesis?

A

Glycogen synthase

95
Q

What is the process of glycogen degradation called?

A

Glycogenolysis

96
Q

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-determining step of glycogenolysis?

A

Glycogen phosphorylase

97
Q

Why is glycogen stored as a branched polymer?

A

To provide a rapid source of glucose and increase solubility

98
Q

Why do muscles store glycogen?

A

For rapid energy during high-demand situations like sprinting

99
Q

Does cardiac muscle store significant amounts of glycogen?

A

No, cardiac muscle stores very little glycogen

100
Q

How is glycogen metabolism regulated hormonally?

A

Through glucagon and epinephrine in fasting/exercise and insulin in the fed state

101
Q

What happens to glycogen synthase during fasting?

A

It is inactivated by phosphorylation

102
Q

What transporter does skeletal muscle use for glucose uptake?

103
Q

What is the role of insulin in glycogen metabolism?

A

Activates glycogen synthase and inactivates glycogen phosphorylase

104
Q

What type of glucose transporter does the liver use?

105
Q

What is the significance of the branching in glycogen structure?

A

Increases the speed of glucose incorporation and release

106
Q

What can result from a defect in the enzyme that forms branches in glycogen?

A

Glycogen storage disease type IV (Andersen disease) leading to severe complications

107
Q

What are negative regulators of glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle?

A

Glucose 6-phosphate and ATP

Excess ATP indicates energy abundance, while glucose 6-phosphate indicates sufficient substrate for glycolysis.

108
Q

What stimulates glycogen synthesis in the liver and muscle?

A

Abundance of glucose 6-phosphate

This signals that there is available substrate for the production of glycogen.

109
Q

What inhibits glycogenolysis in the liver?

A

Glucose

Glucose acts as a negative regulator of glycogen breakdown.

110
Q

What stimulates glycogenolysis in muscle?

A

Increased Ca+2 and AMP

These are markers of energy depletion due to muscle contraction.

111
Q

What are glycogen storage diseases (GSD)?

A

Inherited diseases caused by defective glycogen synthesis, glycogen breakdown, or glycolysis

Pathological presentations may involve liver, muscle, or both tissues.

112
Q

What is the most common muscle-specific GSD?

A

McArdle disease

It results from a defect in muscle glycogen phosphorylase.

113
Q

What are the biochemical markers indicative of exercise intolerance in muscle glycogen disorders?

A

Lactate, myoglobin, and creatinine

Strenuous exercise uses glycogenolysis, leading to increased lactate production.

114
Q

What are the three key questions to decipher glycogen storage diseases?

A
  1. Which enzyme is affected?
  2. Is the amount or structure of glycogen altered?
  3. Which tissues are affected?
115
Q

What is the defect in von Gierke disease (type 1 GSD)?

A

Mutation in the G6PC gene leading to glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency

This enzyme is responsible for converting glucose 6-phosphate into glucose and inorganic phosphate.

116
Q

What causes hypoglycemia in von Gierke disease?

A

Defect in glucose-6-phosphatase blocks glucose release from the liver

This results in severe fasting hypoglycemia.

117
Q

What treatment is used to manage hypoglycemia in von Gierke disease?

A

Frequent small servings of carbohydrates and uncooked cornstarch

Cornstarch is absorbed slowly, providing a continuous release of glucose.

118
Q

What causes hepatomegaly in von Gierke disease?

A

Massive buildup of glycogen due to high levels of glucose 6-phosphate

Glucose 6-phosphate acts as a positive allosteric regulator of glycogen synthesis.

119
Q

What leads to lactic acidosis in von Gierke disease?

A

Acc accumulation of glucose 6-phosphate leads to lactate production

The liver becomes a lactate producer instead of a consumer.

120
Q

What contributes to hyperuricemia in von Gierke disease?

A

Increased lactate and ketone body secretion leading to uric acid reabsorption

Also, increased purine synthesis from glucose 6-phosphate contributes to uric acid production.

121
Q

What is Pompe disease also known as?

A

Acid maltase deficiency or glycogenosis type 2

The defective enzyme is located in lysosomes and affects multiple tissues.

122
Q

What are the cardinal signs of classic infantile Pompe disease?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, hypotonia, muscle weakness, respiratory insufficiency

These signs differ from other GSDs.

123
Q

What is Tarui disease caused by?

A

Mutation in the gene encoding muscle and erythrocyte phosphofructokinase 1 (PFK1)

This results in exercise-induced muscular pain and myoglobinuria.

124
Q

How does glucose supplementation affect McArdle disease compared to Tarui disease?

A

Effective in McArdle disease but ineffective in Tarui disease

Tarui disease has a defect downstream of glucose in glycolysis.

125
Q

What is the management focus for a child with von Gierke disease?

A

Maintenance of blood glucose by frequent feeding and carbohydrate intake

Minimize galactose and fructose in the diet to avoid complications.

126
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of GSD type 1?

A

Hepatomegaly, hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, hyperalaninemia, hyperlipidemia, hyperuricemia

These manifestations arise from the defect in glucose-6-phosphatase.

127
Q

What is the role of glucose-6-phosphatase?

A

Converts glucose 6-phosphate into glucose and inorganic phosphate

It is a membrane-bound protein in the endoplasmic reticulum.

128
Q

What is the relationship between fatty acids and glucose in energy production?

A

Fatty acids cannot meet the energy needs of the brain or red blood cells

These tissues depend exclusively on glucose for energy.

129
Q

What are the initial symptoms observed in the infant after advancing to soft solids?

A

Listless and flaccid behavior, responds to stimuli but returns to a somnolent state

These changes occurred following the introduction of soft solids into the infant’s diet.

130
Q

What are the vital signs of the infant during the physical examination?

A

Pulse: 105/min, Respiratory rate: 26/min, Temperature: 98.0 °F

These vital signs indicate a state of distress and potential metabolic disturbance.

131
Q

What notable findings were revealed in the infant’s urinalysis?

A

pH 8.5, 3+ protein, positive for amino acids, normal microscopic examination

These findings suggest renal involvement and possible metabolic issues.

132
Q

What is Fanconi syndrome?

A

A result of injury to the proximal renal tubule

This syndrome leads to the loss of multiple substances in urine including glucose and amino acids.

133
Q

What symptoms are typical of fructose intolerance?

A

Gas, bloating, abdominal pain, and diarrhea

Symptoms are similar to those of lactase deficiency and irritable bowel syndrome.

134
Q

What is tachypnea?

A

Abnormally rapid breathing

Tachypnea can indicate respiratory distress or metabolic issues.

135
Q

What metabolic disturbances are indicated by the infant’s clinical presentation?

A

Hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, elevated uric acid, and triglycerides

These disturbances suggest multiorgan system involvement and a serious metabolic disorder.

136
Q

What are the key causes of Fanconi syndrome?

A

Inborn errors of metabolism, cystinosis, Wilson disease, hereditary fructose intolerance, medications

Various factors can lead to this syndrome, including genetic and environmental causes.

137
Q

What is the most common cause of hereditary Fanconi syndrome in children?

A

Cystinosis

Cystinosis typically presents soon after birth, thus can help in differential diagnosis.

138
Q

What dietary changes can unmask symptoms in hereditary fructose intolerance?

A

Introduction of fruits and vegetables or formulas containing sucrose

Fructose, present in these foods, exacerbates symptoms in affected individuals.

139
Q

How is dietary fructose metabolized in the body?

A

Involves phosphorylation to fructose 1-phosphate and hydrolysis by aldolase B

This process is crucial for fructose utilization in glycolysis and gluconeogenesis.

140
Q

What happens to glycolysis in patients with hereditary fructose intolerance (HFI)?

A

Residual activity of defective aldolase B allows glycolysis to continue

Compensatory mechanisms may help maintain glycolytic function despite the deficiency.

141
Q

What are the two autosomal recessive disorders of fructose metabolism?

A

Essential fructosuria and hereditary fructose intolerance (HFI)

Essential fructosuria is usually benign, while HFI can lead to severe symptoms.

142
Q

What are the clinical presentations of hereditary fructose intolerance?

A

Hypoglycemia, nausea, vomiting after exposure to fructose

These symptoms arise due to metabolic derangements from fructose accumulation.

143
Q

What dietary restrictions are recommended for patients with hereditary fructose intolerance?

A

Elimination of fructose, sucrose, and sorbitol-containing foods

This is critical to avoid life-threatening complications.

144
Q

What is the consequence of aldolase B deficiency?

A

Accumulation of fructose 1-phosphate leading to metabolic disturbances

This condition can result in hypoglycemia, hyperuricemia, and lactic acidemia.

145
Q

What is the role of aldolase B in fructose metabolism?

A

Rate-limiting enzyme that cleaves fructose 1-phosphate into dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde

Its deficiency is central to the pathophysiology of hereditary fructose intolerance.

146
Q

What is plumbism?

A

Lead poisoning

This condition can lead to various systemic symptoms including neurological deficits.

147
Q

What are the key symptoms of the 56-year-old man presented in Case 8.5?

A

Foot drop, numbness in feet, memory impairment, abdominal pain, chronic constipation

These symptoms suggest possible neuropathy or systemic illness.

148
Q

What laboratory findings were notable in the 56-year-old man?

A

Microcytic hypochromic anemia with basophilic stippling, hyperuricemia, alkaline urine

These findings are indicative of lead poisoning and possible renal tubular acidosis.

149
Q

What is the significance of anion gap in serum?

A

Useful marker for diagnosing acid-base disorders

Helps in identifying metabolic acidosis or other disturbances.

150
Q

What findings suggest possible renal tubular acidosis in the 56-year-old man?

A

Alkaline urine in the face of metabolic acidosis

This suggests an inability of the renal tubules to properly acidify the urine.

151
Q

What is the connection between heavy metal poisoning and gout?

A

Saturnine gout occurs as a result of lead toxicity

Lead can interfere with normal purine metabolism, leading to hyperuricemia.

152
Q

What is the patient’s clinical presentation?

A

The patient presents with acute and chronic complaints involving multiple organ systems.

153
Q

What laboratory findings are noted in the patient?

A

Laboratory findings include microcytic anemia with basophilic stippling and nonanion gap hyperchloremic acidosis.

154
Q

What does nonanion gap hyperchloremic acidosis indicate?

A

It indicates acidosis without an increase in the anion gap, typically due to a decrease in bicarbonate concentration.

155
Q

What are the possible causes of nonanion gap hyperchloremic acidosis with alkaline urine?

A
  • Fanconi syndrome
  • Medication (e.g., acetazolamide, ifosfamide, valproic acid, tenofovir)
  • Toxic exposure (e.g., heavy metals like lead)
156
Q

What occupation might expose the patient to lead?

A

The patient has worked for a firm that manufactures ammunition and has made his own lead bullets.

157
Q

What additional history should be sought with this patient?

A

Inquire about occupational exposure, hobbies, and home remodeling activities that might involve lead.

158
Q

What findings suggest lead poisoning in this patient?

A

Elevated serum lead levels at 88 μg/dL and the presence of Burton’s line in the gingiva.

159
Q

What are common sources of lead exposure?

A
  • Lead-based paint (homes built before 1970)
  • Contaminated soil or water
  • Lead plumbing
  • Imported products (cosmetics, jewelry, toys)
160
Q

How does lead exposure affect the body?

A

Lead accumulates in tissues, primarily in bones, leading to various health effects including neurotoxicity and renal impairment.

161
Q

What are the symptoms of lead poisoning?

A
  • Lethargy
  • Anorexia
  • Abdominal discomfort
  • Joint pain
  • Anemia
  • Peripheral neuropathy
162
Q

What laboratory findings are associated with lead poisoning?

A
  • Microcytic hypochromic anemia
  • Basophilic stippling in blood smear
  • Ringed sideroblasts in bone marrow
163
Q

What are the mechanisms through which lead causes microcytic hypochromic anemia?

A

Lead inhibits ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase, preventing iron incorporation into protoporphyrin IX.

164
Q

What is the treatment for lead poisoning?

A

Chelation therapy using metal chelators such as desferrioxamine, sodium calcium edetate, and penicillamine.

165
Q

What is the significance of the lead line seen in radiographs?

A

It indicates lead accumulation in bone, commonly seen in children due to disrupted bone remodeling.

166
Q

How does lead exposure lead to gout?

A

Lead-induced nephropathy results in underexcretion of urate, causing hyperuricemia and potential gout.

167
Q

What diagnostic tests are used for lead poisoning?

A

Blood lead level (BLL) test is the most reliable, while erythrocyte protoporphyrin (EP) and hemoglobin screenings were previously used.

168
Q

What is the outcome of chelation therapy in this patient?

A

Lead levels decreased to <5 μg/dL, with improvement in clinical symptoms and renal function.

169
Q

What are high-yield concepts related to lead toxicity?

A
  • Most common exposure is occupational or from old lead plumbing
  • Lead enters the body via gastrointestinal tract, lungs, and skin
  • Accumulates in bones and affects growth in children
  • Symptoms include abdominal pain and renal tubular acidosis
  • Treatment involves chelation therapy
170
Q

What is hyperuricemia?

A

An elevated level of uric acid in the blood

Hyperuricemia can lead to gout and is often associated with various metabolic disorders.

171
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with hypoglycemia, hyperuricemia, and normal blood counts?

A

Lesch-Nyhan disease

This condition is characterized by self-mutilating behavior and neurological impairment.

172
Q

What is the most appropriate next step in evaluating a 7-month-old with recurrent vomiting and mild liver enlargement?

A

Order complete metabolic panel

This helps assess metabolic disorders, including hereditary fructose intolerance.

173
Q

What is the first step in managing a 44-year-old woman with acute knee swelling and tenderness?

A

Perform arthrocentesis

This helps analyze joint fluid for infection or crystals.

174
Q

What is the most likely enzyme deficiency in a patient with hypoglycemia, lactic acidemia, hyperuricemia, and hyperlipidemia?

A

Glucose-6-phosphatase

This deficiency is associated with von Gierke disease.

175
Q

What is the most likely explanation for hyperuricemia in a patient with glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency?

A

Stimulation of AMP deaminase by decreased inorganic phosphate

This leads to increased uric acid production.

176
Q

What is the most likely mechanism of Lesch-Nyhan disease?

A

Decreased salvage of purines

This results from hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT) deficiency.

177
Q

What is the most appropriate treatment for urate-lowering therapy in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

A

Allopurinol

Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase, reducing uric acid levels.

178
Q

Fill in the blank: The most likely enzyme deficiency in a child with self-mutilating behavior and hyperuricemia is _______.

A

Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase

This deficiency is linked to Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.

179
Q

True or False: Aldolase B deficiency presents with symptoms similar to glycogen storage disorders.

A

True

Symptoms can include hypoglycemia and hepatomegaly.

180
Q

What dietary changes should be made for a patient with hereditary fructose intolerance?

A

Eliminate sources of fructose, sorbitol, and sucrose

This diet helps manage the condition effectively.

181
Q

What is the expected laboratory finding in a patient with glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency?

A

Hypoglycemia, lactic acidemia, hyperuricemia, and hyperlipidemia

These findings are characteristic of von Gierke disease.

182
Q

What is the primary cause of hyperuricemia in patients with gout?

A

Increased reabsorption of uric acid in the kidney

This is often due to the use of thiazide diuretics.

183
Q

What are common symptoms of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

A
  • Self-mutilation
  • Delayed motor skills
  • Severe mental retardation
  • Hyperuricemia

These symptoms arise from HGPRT deficiency.

184
Q

What is the most appropriate next step for a child with unexplained abdominal pain and developmental delay?

A

Dietary history

This helps identify any potential nutritional deficiencies or exposures.

185
Q

What is a common consequence of thiazide diuretics related to uric acid?

A

Increased uric acid reabsorption

This can predispose patients to gout.

186
Q

What is a common presentation of glycogen storage disorders?

A

Hypoglycemia and hepatomegaly

These are hallmark signs of various glycogen storage diseases.