7 - Developmental Delays in infancy and Early Childhood Flashcards

1
Q

What is developmental delay?

A

A condition where a child’s overall development progresses more slowly than normal, affecting areas such as motor skills, learning, language, or behavior.

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2
Q

What are inborn errors of metabolism (IEMs)?

A

Disorders caused by a single gene defect resulting in the accumulation of enzyme substrate due to a metabolic obstruction or deficiency of a reaction product.

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3
Q

What percentage of children with unexplained intellectual disability (ID) do inborn errors of metabolism account for?

A

<5%

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4
Q

List the types of IEMs based on their classification.

A
  • Defects in the metabolism of energy sources (carbohydrates, protein, lipids)
  • Dysfunction in pathways within cellular organelles (lysosome, peroxisome, mitochondria)
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5
Q

What is intellectual disability (ID)?

A

A neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by significant limitations in both intellectual functioning and adaptive behavior.

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6
Q

What is the APGAR score?

A

A score to assess an infant’s well-being immediately after birth based on Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, and Respiration.

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7
Q

What is hypotonia?

A

Diminished resistance to passive movement of muscles, often resulting in soft floppy muscles.

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8
Q

What are primitive reflexes?

A

Muscular reactions to stimuli observed in the first few months of life; persistence may signal developmental delay.

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9
Q

What are the common laboratory tests for diagnosing IEMs?

A
  • Complete blood count
  • Blood gases
  • Electrolytes
  • Calcium and magnesium
  • Glucose
  • Lactate
  • Ammonia
  • Liver enzymes
  • Prothrombin time
  • Acylcarnitine profile
  • Levels of copper, ceruloplasmin, carnitine, homocysteine, and amino acids
  • Urine analysis plus organic acids
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10
Q

True or False: All IEMs manifest early in life.

A

False

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11
Q

What is the significance of detecting IEMs early?

A

Early detection is essential to improve outcomes, prevent adverse disease manifestations, and reduce burden on affected individuals and their families.

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12
Q

What are the symptoms that might indicate an IEM?

A

Symptoms reflect the affected metabolic pathway and may include distinctive features such as unusual urine color or odor.

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13
Q

What is phenylketonuria (PKU)?

A

A genetic disorder caused by a deficiency of the phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme, leading to elevated phenylalanine levels.

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14
Q

What are the consequences of untreated PKU?

A

Severe intellectual impairment, eczema, seizure activity, and self-abusive behavior.

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15
Q

Fill in the blank: The high phenylalanine and low tyrosine levels in a child suggest a diagnosis of _______.

A

PKU

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16
Q

What is the biochemical basis of neurological dysfunction in PKU?

A

Excessive phenylalanine is toxic to the myelin sheath and decreases the biosynthesis of dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine.

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17
Q

What dietary management is required for individuals with PKU?

A

Strict dietary restriction of phenylalanine to prevent neurological damage.

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18
Q

What is the relationship between maternal phenylalanine levels and fetal development?

A

Elevated maternal phenylalanine levels can result in serious teratogenic damage in utero, leading to microcephaly and cardiac abnormalities.

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19
Q

What are the key clinical presentations of PKU?

A
  • Peculiar ‘mousy odor’ in urine
  • Fair complexion, hair, and eyes
  • Developmental delays
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20
Q

What is the role of genetic testing in diagnosing PKU?

A

It confirms the diagnosis of phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency.

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21
Q

What is the standard of care for newborn infants regarding phenylketonuria?

A

Mandatory screening of all newborn infants is the standard of care.

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22
Q

What dietary considerations must PAH-deficient expectant mothers take into account?

A

PAH-deficient expectant mothers must judiciously restrict dietary phenylalanine before and during pregnancy to avoid teratogenic damage.

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23
Q

What is the biochemical basis of phenylketonuria?

A

Phenylketonuria falls into the aminoacidopathies category of IEMs due to defective metabolism of amino acids, leading to symptoms such as hyperactivity, intellectual disability, developmental delay, vomiting, and seizures.

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24
Q

What are the two metabolic fates of amino acids?

A

Amino acids have two fates: incorporation into protein and conversion to various biomolecules.

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25
Q

List the nine essential amino acids that humans cannot synthesize.

A
  • Phenylalanine
  • Valine
  • Tryptophan
  • Threonine
  • Isoleucine
  • Methionine
  • Histidine
  • Leucine
  • Lysine
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26
Q

What are conditionally essential amino acids?

A

Conditionally essential amino acids can be synthesized from an essential amino acid and include cysteine, glutamine, glycine, proline, and tyrosine.

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27
Q

What is the role of phenylalanine hydroxylase in tyrosine metabolism?

A

Phenylalanine hydroxylase synthesizes tyrosine from phenylalanine using tetrahydrobiopterin as a cofactor.

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28
Q

What are the consequences of a defect in tyrosine metabolism?

A

Defects in tyrosine metabolism can lead to accumulation of phenylalanine and its toxic metabolites, resulting in neurological damage.

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29
Q

What is hyperphenylalaninemia, and what causes it?

A

Hyperphenylalaninemia may arise from deficiencies in either phenylalanine hydroxylase or dihydropteridine reductase (DHPR).

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30
Q

How does the accumulation of phenylalanine affect cognitive function?

A

Accumulation of phenylalanine leads to depletion of tyrosine, neural tissue α-ketoglutarate, and other large neutral amino acids, impairing protein and neurotransmitter synthesis.

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31
Q

What is the recommended treatment for phenylketonuria?

A

A strict dietary regimen is required to control phenylalanine intake, using a special formula lacking phenylalanine and a small amount of natural protein.

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32
Q

What is the historical significance of Ivar Asbörn Følling in relation to phenylketonuria?

A

Ivar Asbörn Følling isolated phenylpyruvate from the urine of children with intellectual impairment, marking a milestone in understanding metabolic disorders.

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33
Q

What is betaine’s role in homocysteine metabolism?

A

Betaine provides an alternate remethylation pathway for homocysteine, lowering serum concentration and its deleterious effects.

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34
Q

Define ectopia lentis.

A

Ectopia lentis refers to lens dislocation, typically upward in Marfan syndrome and downward in homocystinuria.

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35
Q

What is homocystinuria?

A

Homocystinuria is characterized by elevated levels of homocysteine in the urine due to deficiencies in specific enzymes.

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36
Q

What is the difference between homocystinuria and homocysteinemia?

A

Homocystinuria involves elevated homocysteine in urine, while homocysteinemia involves elevated homocysteine in blood and may exist without homocystinuria.

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37
Q

What is the Marfanoid appearance?

A

Marfanoid appearance includes features such as tall stature, long limbs, high arched palate, and scoliosis.

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38
Q

What is the role of methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase (MTHFR)?

A

MTHFR is necessary for converting 5,10 methylenetetrahydrofolate to 5-methyltetrahydrofolate, affecting serum homocysteine levels.

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39
Q

What clinical findings are associated with the 7-year-old boy’s condition?

A

The boy presents with generalized seizure, stupor, disorientation, papilledema, high arched palate, pectus excavatum, and Marfanoid features.

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40
Q

What diagnostic imaging was performed for the 7-year-old boy?

A

An emergent CT angiogram of the head was requested.

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41
Q

What was the diagnosis for the 7-year-old boy experiencing seizure?

A

A working diagnosis of homocystinuria was established.

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42
Q

What are the three metabolic cycles involved in methionine metabolism?

A

The folate cycle, methionine cycle, and transsulfuration pathway.

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43
Q

What are the dual fates of methionine?

A

Protein synthesis and catabolism to sulfur-containing compounds

These compounds include S-adenosylmethionine (SAM), S-adenosyl-L-homocysteine (SAH), homocysteine (Hcy), cystathionine, and cysteine.

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44
Q

Name the three interdependent pathways involved in the metabolism of homocysteine.

A
  • Folate cycle
  • Methionine cycle
  • Transsulfuration pathway
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45
Q

What enzymes are deficient in the accumulation of homocysteine?

A
  • Cystathionine beta synthase (CBS)
  • Methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase (MTHFR)
  • Methionine synthase (MS)
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46
Q

What vitamins are required for the enzymes involved in the metabolism of homocysteine?

A
  • Folate (B7)
  • Riboflavin (B2)
  • Cobalamin (B12)
  • Pyridoxal phosphate (B6)
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47
Q

What is the primary methyl donor for methylation reactions in the body?

A

S-adenosylmethionine (SAM)

SAM is involved in more than 35 methylation reactions in the human body.

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48
Q

What is the role of methionine synthase in the metabolism of homocysteine?

A

It remethylates homocysteine back to methionine using methyl-cobalamin as a cofactor.

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49
Q

What does the transsulfuration pathway produce from homocysteine?

A

Cysteine

This pathway condenses homocysteine with serine to form cystathionine, which is then converted to cysteine.

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50
Q

What are the clinical consequences of cystathionine beta-synthase (CBS) deficiency?

A
  • Homocystinuria
  • Neurological injury
  • Vascular disease
  • Phenotypic abnormalities resembling Marfan syndrome
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51
Q

What are common causes of elevated homocysteine levels?

A
  • Deficiencies in vitamin B12
  • Deficiencies in vitamin B6
  • Deficiencies in folate
  • Inborn errors of homocysteine remethylation
  • Renal insufficiency
  • Medications
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52
Q

How does hyperhomocysteinemia differ from homocystinuria?

A

Hyperhomocysteinemia indicates high homocysteine levels in the blood, while homocystinuria is a specific condition characterized by the presence of homocysteine in urine.

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53
Q

What are the symptoms of homocystinuria?

A
  • Developmental delays
  • Marfan-like phenotypic features
  • Recurrent thrombosis
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54
Q

What is the relationship between cysteine and methionine?

A

Cysteine is a conditionally essential amino acid derived from the essential amino acid methionine.

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55
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a newborn with a metabolic disorder?

A

Symptoms may include vomiting, lethargy, poor feeding, and neurological deficits.

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56
Q

What is the role of carboxylases in metabolism?

A

Carboxylases remove CO2 from the carboxyl group of alpha amino keto acids and utilize biotin as a cofactor.

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57
Q

What does a prolonged QT interval indicate in a neonate?

A

It may indicate underlying metabolic disturbances or cardiac issues.

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58
Q

What is the significance of a strongly positive ketone bodies test in a neonate?

A

It suggests a state of ketosis, often associated with metabolic disorders.

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59
Q

What is the first step in the clinical management of a neonate with suspected metabolic acidosis?

A

Stabilization with intravenous fluids containing glucose and addressing the acid-base imbalance.

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60
Q

What laboratory findings are indicative of metabolic acidosis in a neonate?

A

Hypoglycemia, hyperammonemia, and possibly elevated anion gap.

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61
Q

What is the importance of ruling out sepsis in a newborn with metabolic symptoms?

A

Sepsis can present with overlapping symptoms and must be differentiated from inborn errors of metabolism.

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62
Q

What dietary modifications might be necessary for managing elevated homocysteine levels?

A

A low methionine diet.

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63
Q

Which enzyme is involved in the conversion of propionyl CoA to methylmalonyl CoA?

A

Propionyl CoA carboxylase.

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64
Q

What is the risk of untreated high homocysteine levels?

A

Increased risk of stroke and vascular disease.

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65
Q

What is the significance of elevated ammonia levels in a neonate?

A

Elevated ammonia levels could suggest a urea cycle disorder, typically appearing shortly after birth with rapid deterioration in mental status (encephalopathy)

However, in urea cycle disorders, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is expected to be low.

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66
Q

What are the common symptoms seen in inborn errors of metabolism (IEMs)?

A

Hypoglycemia, acidosis, and elevated ammonia levels

These symptoms can indicate a metabolic disorder in neonates.

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67
Q

How can glycogen storage diseases be differentiated from other metabolic disorders?

A

Glycogen storage diseases often present with hypoglycemia but not with hyperammonemia, thus can be ruled out from the differential diagnosis.

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68
Q

What is the role of gas chromatographic/mass spectrographic analysis in diagnosing metabolic disorders?

A

It is used to analyze urine for organic and amino acids, helping to confirm diagnoses like propionic aciduria.

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69
Q

What are the characteristic findings in urine for propionic aciduria?

A

Positive for 3-hydroxypropionate, methylcitrate, tiglylglycine, propionylglycine, ketone bodies, and lactic acid.

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70
Q

What is the confirmatory test for propionic aciduria?

A

Determination of decreased activity of propionyl CoA carboxylase (PCC) in fibroblasts or identification of mutations in the PCCA or PCCB genes.

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71
Q

What are organic acidurias?

A

A group of disorders characterized by increased excretion of nonamino organic acids in urine.

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72
Q

List the five groups of organic acidurias.

A
  • Branched-chain organic acidemias
  • Fatty acid oxidation defects
  • Multiple carboxylase deficiencies
  • Glutaric acidurias
  • Disorders of energy metabolism
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73
Q

What is the metabolic consequence of defective beta-oxidation in mitochondria?

A

Accumulation of acyl-CoA molecules leading to the formation of acylcarnitines.

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74
Q

What amino acids are associated with propionyl CoA metabolism?

A

Isoleucine, valine, methionine, and threonine.

75
Q

What enzyme converts propionyl CoA to methylmalonyl CoA?

A

Propionyl CoA carboxylase.

76
Q

What vitamin is essential for the enzyme methylmalonyl CoA mutase?

A

Vitamin B12.

77
Q

What are the symptoms of multiple carboxylase deficiencies (MCD)?

A
  • Feeding difficulties
  • Breathing difficulties
  • Lethargy
  • Seizures
  • Skin rash
  • Alopecia
  • Developmental delay
78
Q

What is the treatment approach for propionic acidemia?

A

A low protein diet with supplementation of biotin and carnitine.

79
Q

What are the clinical features of propionic acidemia?

A

Typically presents shortly after birth with vomiting and rapid deterioration in mental status.

80
Q

True or False: Hyperglycinemia arises due to the inhibition of a glycine cleavage enzyme in the liver.

81
Q

What is the relationship between oxidative phosphorylation and the urea cycle?

A

The urea cycle requires ATP generated in mitochondria by oxidative phosphorylation.

82
Q

Fill in the blank: Propionic acidemia is due to a deficiency of ______.

A

propionyl CoA carboxylase.

83
Q

What is the primary condition of the 1-month-old girl admitted to the hospital?

A

Failure to thrive and hypotonia

84
Q

What were the significant dysmorphic features observed in the infant?

A
  • Large fontanels
  • High forehead
  • Epicanthic folds
  • Deformed earlobes
  • Camptodactyly of the third, fourth, and fifth fingers
85
Q

What laboratory findings were normal for the infant?

A
  • Blood sugar
  • Complete blood count (CBC)
  • Urea and electrolytes (U/E)
  • Calcium
  • Magnesium
  • Total serum bilirubin
  • Creatine kinase
  • Lactate
  • Ammonia
86
Q

What were the elevated liver transaminases for the infant?

A
  • AST = 255 (Normal range = 7-55 units/L)
  • ALT = 111 (Normal range = 7-55 units/L)
87
Q

What does TORCH screening test for?

A

Infectious diseases: toxoplasmosis, rubella, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex virus

88
Q

What is camptodactyly?

A

A rare genetic or acquired condition where a finger or fingers is fixed in a bent position at the middle joint

89
Q

What is neuronal migration?

A

The process during embryonic development where neurons travel to locate in the proper location for correct function

90
Q

What are peroxisomes?

A

Organelles with a single membrane that contain over 50 enzymes for various oxidation reactions

91
Q

What are PEX genes?

A

16 genes that direct the normal assembly of peroxisomes; defects cause peroxisome biogenesis disorders

92
Q

What are plasmalogens?

A

Unique membrane glycerophospholipids found in the brain, myelin sheath, heart, bones, and eye

93
Q

What is transferrin isoelectric focusing used for?

A

Screening tool to determine congenital disorders of glycosylation

94
Q

What do urine organic acids screening detect?

A
  • Propionic acid
  • Isovaleric acid
  • Methylmalonic acid
  • Fatty acid oxidation defects
  • Maple syrup urine disorder
  • Tyrosinemia
95
Q

What is the initial clinical impression of the neonatologist?

A

A metabolic or chromosomal aberration

96
Q

What laboratory tests are used to rule out infections?

A

TORCH screen

97
Q

What is Zellweger syndrome?

A

The most severe peroxisomal disorder with complete absence of peroxisomes

98
Q

What are common clinical findings in Zellweger spectrum disorder?

A
  • Hypotonia
  • Poor feeding
  • Distinctive facies
  • Brain malformations
  • Seizures
  • Renal cysts
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Cholestasis
  • Hepatic dysfunction
99
Q

What is the key enzyme in alpha-oxidation?

A

Phytanoyl-CoA hydroxylase

100
Q

What is the most common peroxisomal disorder?

A

X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy (X-ALD)

101
Q

What does beta-oxidation of fatty acids in peroxisomes oxidize?

A

Very long-chain fatty acids (VLCFA) to medium-chain fatty acids

102
Q

What is Refsum disease?

A

A disorder caused by deficiency of phytanoyl-CoA hydroxylase leading to accumulation of phytanic acid

103
Q

What are the two classifications of peroxisomal disorders?

A
  • Peroxisomal biogenesis disorders (PBDs)
  • Single enzyme defects
104
Q

What is the role of peroxisomes in detoxification?

A

Detoxification of various toxic molecules including alcohol through peroxidation reactions

105
Q

What are the major biochemical pathways in peroxisomes?

A
  • Beta-oxidation of fatty acids
  • Alpha-oxidation of fatty acids
  • Biosynthesis of bile acids
  • Biosynthesis of plasmalogen
106
Q

What is the significance of elevated C26:0 and C26:1 ratios in fatty acid analysis?

A

Consistent with a defect in peroxisomal fatty acid metabolism

107
Q

What is the outcome for the child in this case?

A

Died at 8 months

108
Q

What is the purpose of genetic counseling in this case?

A

Assistance with further family planning

109
Q

What is the role of PEX gene analysis in diagnosing peroxisomal spectrum disorder?

A

Aids in establishing a diagnosis of peroxisomal spectrum disorder.

110
Q

What are the two main causes of peroxisomal disorders?

A

Single gene defect or biogenesis disorder.

111
Q

What is the most common peroxisomal disorder?

A

Zellweger syndrome.

112
Q

What are common symptoms presented by a child with hypotonia and developmental regression?

A
  • Progressive muscular weakness
  • Difficulty with feedings
  • Listlessness
  • Inability to sit without support
  • Rarely rolling over.
113
Q

What does consanguinity refer to?

A

Blood relationship between individuals.

114
Q

What is dysostosis multiplex an indicator of?

A

Lysosomal storage diseases caused by mucopolysaccharide accumulation.

115
Q

What are gangliosides?

A

Sugar-lipid components of neural membranes involved in transmission of impulses.

116
Q

What are acroparesthesias?

A

Burning or tingling as well as numbness in the extremities.

117
Q

What does HEXA stand for?

A

HEXA is an abbreviation for the HEX gene that codes for the alpha subunit hexosaminidase A.

118
Q

What is the function of lysosomes?

A

Degradation of various cellular macromolecular waste products.

119
Q

What does hypotonia in utero indicate?

A

An ominous sign that must be investigated.

120
Q

What is the pathophysiology of lysosomal storage disorders (LSDs)?

A

Accumulation of various cellular metabolites in the lysosome leading to progressive disorders.

121
Q

How are lysosomal proteins targeted to the lysosome?

A

Via a mannose 6-phosphate-dependent (M6P) pathway.

122
Q

What enzyme deficiency is responsible for I-cell disease?

A

N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphotransferase.

123
Q

What are the substrates of lysosomal enzymes?

A
  • Sphingolipids
  • Mucopolysaccharides
  • Glycogen.
124
Q

What are sphingolipidoses?

A

Lysosomal lipid storage diseases that typically affect neuronal function.

125
Q

What causes Niemann-Pick disease?

A

Deficiency in sphingomyelinase leading to sphingomyelin buildup.

126
Q

What are the symptoms of type A Niemann-Pick disease?

A
  • Severe neurological damage
  • Liver enlargement
  • Premature death.
127
Q

What is Gaucher disease caused by?

A

Deficiency in beta-glucocerebrosidase leading to glucosylceramide accumulation.

128
Q

What are the clinical features of Gaucher disease?

A
  • Bone marrow involvement
  • Macrophage dysfunction.
129
Q

What is the significance of the cherry-red spot in ophthalmological examination?

A

Noted in several lysosomal storage diseases including Tay-Sachs and Niemann-Pick.

130
Q

True or False: Lysosomal storage disorders can be caused by mutations in any of the various acid hydrolases.

131
Q

Fill in the blank: The degradation pathway of sphingomyelin is achieved by _______ and ceramidase.

A

sphingomyelinase.

132
Q

What is the common pathway for the breakdown of sphingolipids?

A

Deficiencies in enzymes lead to accumulation of compounds toxic to tissues.

133
Q

What is Gaucher disease?

A

An autosomal recessive disease caused by a deficiency in beta-glucocerebrosidase leading to accumulation of glucosylceramide in macrophages.

134
Q

What is the significance of lysosomes in Gaucher disease?

A

Lysosomes are critical for macrophage function, which involves engulfing and digesting cellular debris.

135
Q

What are the main organs affected by Gaucher disease?

A
  • Bone marrow
  • Liver
  • Lungs
  • Spleen
  • Brain
136
Q

What are the characteristic symptoms of Gaucher disease?

A
  • Enlarged liver
  • Massive splenomegaly
  • Diffuse lymphadenopathy
  • Pancytopenia
137
Q

What is the appearance of Gaucher cells?

A

They have a characteristic ‘crumpled up’ or tissue paper appearance due to lipid accumulation.

138
Q

How is Gaucher disease diagnosed?

A

By measuring glucocerebrosidase activity in peripheral leukocytes and histology revealing Gaucher cells.

139
Q

What is the treatment for Gaucher disease?

A

Intravenous recombinant glucocerebrosidase.

140
Q

What causes Metachromatic Leukodystrophy?

A

A deficiency in arylsulfatase leading to accumulation of cerebroside sulfate.

141
Q

What are common symptoms of Metachromatic Leukodystrophy?

A
  • Ataxia
  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • Dementia
142
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Fabry Disease?

A

X-linked recessive.

143
Q

What enzyme is deficient in Fabry Disease?

A

Alpha-galactosidase A.

144
Q

What are the progressive symptoms of Fabry Disease?

A
  • Acroparesthesias
  • Full body pain
  • Renal failure
  • Cardiomyopathy
  • Hypertension
  • Severe fatigue
145
Q

What unique skin findings are associated with Fabry Disease?

A
  • Angiokeratomas
  • Anhidrosis or hyperhidrosis
146
Q

What is the hallmark feature of Krabbe Disease?

A

Myelin loss and the presence of globoid bodies in white matter.

147
Q

What enzyme deficiency leads to Krabbe Disease?

A

Lysosomal β-galactocerebrosidase.

148
Q

What are the initial symptoms of Tay-Sachs Disease?

A

Progressive motor and neurological impairment in infants.

149
Q

What enzyme deficiency is responsible for Tay-Sachs Disease?

A

Beta-hexosaminidase A.

150
Q

Which population has a higher prevalence of Tay-Sachs Disease?

A

Ashkenazi Jewish population.

151
Q

What is a common clinical finding in Tay-Sachs Disease?

A

A ‘cherry-red spot’ on eye examination.

152
Q

What are glycosaminoglycans more commonly known as?

A

Mucopolysaccharides.

153
Q

What is the structure of glycosaminoglycans?

A

Linear polymers composed of repeating disaccharide subunits.

154
Q

How are glycosaminoglycans synthesized?

A

By sequential addition of alternating acidic and amino sugars.

155
Q

What are the six types of glycosaminoglycans?

A
  • Hyaluronic acid
  • Chondroitin sulfate
  • Heparan sulfate
  • Dermatan sulfate
  • Keratan sulfate
  • Heparin
156
Q

What characterizes Mucopolysaccharidoses (MPS)?

A

Accumulation of glycosaminoglycans due to deficiency of lysosomal hydrolases.

157
Q

What is the genetic inheritance of Hunter syndrome?

A

X-linked recessive.

158
Q

What defect causes Hurler syndrome?

A

Defect in alpha-L-iduronidase.

159
Q

What are the key features of Hurler syndrome?

A
  • Coarsening of facial features
  • Corneal clouding
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
160
Q

What is the main feature of Sanfilippo syndrome?

A

Deficiency in heparan sulfate–degrading enzymes.

161
Q

What enzyme deficiency causes Pompe disease?

A

Acid alpha-glucosidase.

162
Q

What differentiates Pompe disease from other glycogen storage disorders?

A

It does not lead to hypoglycemia.

163
Q

What are the symptoms of Pompe disease?

A
  • Cardiomegaly
  • Hypotonia
  • Hepatomegaly
164
Q

What treatment is available for Pompe disease?

A

Approved enzyme therapy.

165
Q

True or False: There is an effective treatment for Tay-Sachs disease.

166
Q

Fill in the blank: Lysosomal storage disease describes a family of disorders characterized by _______.

A

[chromosomal abnormalities resulting in enzymatic defects]

167
Q

What is the clinical presentation of lysosomal storage diseases often related to?

A

The organ where the toxic metabolite accumulates.

168
Q

What is the likely working diagnosis for a 10-day-old infant with lethargy, feeding difficulties, decreased muscle tone, hepatomegaly, acidosis, hypoglycemia, and elevated serum ammonia levels?

A

C. Propionic acidemia

The symptoms and laboratory findings support a diagnosis of propionic acidemia.

169
Q

What substrate accumulates in a 6-year-old boy with bone pain, hepatomegaly, and a bone marrow aspirate showing macrophages with a wrinkled tissue paper appearance?

A

C. Sphingomyelin

This presentation is characteristic of Gaucher disease.

170
Q

In a 2-year-old girl with phenylketonuria, what should be measured next in the plasma?

A

C. Tyrosine

Tyrosine becomes essential in patients with phenylketonuria due to the deficiency in phenylalanine hydroxylase.

171
Q

What enzyme is likely deficient in a 7-day-old infant with poor feeding, lethargy, vomiting, and elevated levels of 3-carbon glycine?

A

C. Propionyl-CoA carboxylase

The symptoms and lab results indicate propionic acidemia.

172
Q

What disease is indicated by a one-month-old infant with hypotonia, failure to thrive, dysmorphic features, and elevated levels of 26-carbon fatty acids?

A

B. Zellweger syndrome

This condition is characterized by peroxisomal biogenesis defects.

173
Q

What is the least likely intervention to improve the outcome in a 4-year-old with developmental delay and elevated serum methionine?

A

C. Biotin

Biotin is not involved in homocysteine metabolism.

174
Q

What is the enzyme deficiency in Tay-Sachs disease?

A

Hexosaminidase A

Tay-Sachs is characterized by neurodegeneration and cherry-red spots on the macula.

175
Q

What is the likely diagnosis for a patient with homocystinuria presenting with thrombotic events due to elevated homocysteine?

A

Homocystinuria

This condition is associated with increased risk of vascular events.

176
Q

What condition is associated with a deficiency in glucocerebrosidase and presents with bone pain and hepatosplenomegaly?

A

Gaucher disease

Gaucher disease is a lysosomal storage disorder.

177
Q

What distinguishes Zellweger syndrome from X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy in terms of fatty acid accumulation?

A

Zellweger syndrome shows elevated phytanic and pristanic acids

In Zellweger syndrome, VLCFA levels are also elevated.

178
Q

What are the symptoms of propionic acidemia?

A
  • Poor feeding
  • Lethargy
  • Vomiting
  • Elevated 3-carbon glycine levels

These symptoms result from propionyl-CoA carboxylase deficiency.

179
Q

What is the role of biotin in metabolism?

A

Biotin is a cofactor for the ABC carboxylases, which include acetyl CoA carboxylase, propionyl CoA carboxylase, 3-methylcrotonyl CoA carboxylase, and pyruvate carboxylase.

Biotin is not involved in homocysteine metabolism.

180
Q

Which vitamin plays an important role in homocysteine metabolism?

A

Vitamin B6

It is a cofactor for cystathionine beta synthase and cystathionase.

181
Q

What is the function of vitamin B12 in homocysteine metabolism?

A

Vitamin B12 is a cofactor for methionine synthase, which catalyzes the conversion of homocysteine to methionine.

This process is crucial for maintaining normal homocysteine levels.

182
Q

What is the role of betaine in metabolism?

A

Betaine is important for the folate-independent recycling of homocysteine to methionine.

This recycling helps regulate homocysteine levels.

183
Q

True or False: Biotin is involved in homocysteine metabolism.

A

False

Biotin functions primarily as a cofactor for carboxylases.