10 - Obesity Flashcards

1
Q

What is the estimated number of people living with obesity worldwide by 2030?

A

One billion

This is double the amount since 2010.

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2
Q

What are some health complications associated with obesity?

A
  • Insulin resistance
  • Type 2 diabetes
  • Cardiovascular disease
  • Liver disease
  • Cancer
  • Neurodegeneration

Obesity is a preventable disease linked to these complications.

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3
Q

How many deaths were attributed to obesity in 2017 according to the Global Burden of Disease study?

A

4.7 million

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4
Q

What was the percentage of adult obesity in the U.S. in 2020?

A

42.4%

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5
Q

What is the main cause of obesity?

A

Energy imbalance

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6
Q

What factors determine obesity?

A
  • Social factors
  • Environmental factors
  • Psychological factors
  • Genetic factors
  • Biological factors
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7
Q

What does energy balance depend on?

A

Energy intake and expenditure

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8
Q

What happens during a positive energy balance?

A

Weight gain

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9
Q

How many kilocalories are equivalent to one pound of fat?

A

~3500 kcal

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10
Q

What is a safe and effective recommendation for weight loss?

A

1 lb per week

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11
Q

How is Body Mass Index (BMI) calculated?

A

Weight in kilograms divided by the square of height in meters

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12
Q

What BMI value categorizes a person as obese?

A

> 30

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13
Q

What is a limitation of using BMI to classify obesity?

A

It cannot distinguish between fat and lean masses

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14
Q

What waist circumference is considered a risk factor for women?

A

35 in or higher

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15
Q

What waist circumference is considered a risk factor for men?

A

40 in or higher

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16
Q

What does a waist to hip ratio above 0.90 for males indicate?

A

Central adiposity

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17
Q

What is metabolic syndrome?

A

A term used to define risk factors leading to increased risk of type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease

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18
Q

What are the five conditions that define metabolic syndrome?

A
  • Central obesity
  • High triacylglycerol levels
  • Low HDL
  • Hypertension
  • High fasting glucose levels
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19
Q

What is the first line of treatment for metabolic syndrome?

A

Therapeutic lifestyle changes

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20
Q

What role does adipose tissue play in the body?

A

Acts as an energy storage depot and an endocrine organ

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21
Q

What are the two major types of adipose tissue?

A
  • White adipose tissue (WAT)
  • Brown adipose tissue (BAT)
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22
Q

What hormone is known as the ‘hunger hormone’?

A

Ghrelin

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23
Q

What is the role of lipoprotein lipase (LPL)?

A

Hydrolyzes triacylglycerol to free fatty acid for uptake by exercising muscle and storage in adipose tissue

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24
Q

What is nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH)?

A

Accumulation of fat within the hepatocyte along with an inflammatory process

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25
Q

What condition is a major risk factor for obstructive sleep apnea?

A

Obesity

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26
Q

What is one of the metabolic consequences of increased central adiposity?

A

Reduced secretion of adiponectin

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27
Q

What does a waist to hip ratio above 0.85 for females indicate?

A

Central adiposity

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28
Q

What are the potential health benefits of losing more than 10% of body weight?

A
  • Improved blood pressure
  • Improved blood cholesterol
  • Improved blood glucose
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29
Q

What are some consequences of metabolic syndrome?

A
  • Fatty liver disease
  • Chronic kidney disease
  • Polycystic ovary syndrome
  • Obstructive sleep apnea
  • Hyperuricemia
  • Cognitive decline
  • Cancer
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30
Q

What is the significance of diagnosing metabolic syndrome?

A

To identify individuals at high risk of cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes

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31
Q

What is the primary diagnosis for the patient described in Case 10.1?

A

Obesity

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32
Q

What laboratory findings were significant for the patient in Case 10.1?

A
  • Dyslipidemia
  • Elevated transaminases
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33
Q

What is the relationship between obesity and health conditions?

A

Obesity is linked with hypertension, dyslipidemia, diabetes, metabolic syndrome, and NASH.

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34
Q

What are valuable markers of cardiovascular risk?

A

Body mass index and waist circumference.

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35
Q

What function does adipose tissue serve in the body?

A

Adipose tissue is an endocrine organ secreting adipokines such as leptin and adiponectin.

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36
Q

What is metabolic syndrome?

A

A cluster of conditions that leads to a fivefold increased risk for type 2 diabetes and a twofold increased risk for cardiovascular disease.

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37
Q

What contributes to the pathophysiology of metabolic syndrome?

A

Increased circulating free fatty acid leading to lipotoxicity, insulin resistance, and dysregulation of adipokines.

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38
Q

What is the definition of a sphygmomanometer?

A

A device for measuring blood pressure or tension, commonly known as a blood pressure cuff.

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39
Q

What is the significance of an HbA1C level in diagnosing diabetes?

A

An HbA1C level ≥6.5% indicates the presence of diabetes.

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40
Q

What are the main differences between type I and type II diabetes?

A

Type I is characterized by little or no insulin production due to autoimmune destruction of beta cells; Type II is characterized by insulin resistance.

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41
Q

What is the primary cause of insulin resistance in type II diabetes?

A

Obesity, particularly central or visceral obesity.

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42
Q

What are common complications associated with poorly managed diabetes?

A

Adult blindness, amputation, renal failure, heart attack, and stroke.

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43
Q

What happens to blood glucose levels in the progression toward type II diabetes?

A

Postprandial glucose levels increase due to insulin resistance, followed by an increase in fasting glucose levels.

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44
Q

What is the typical clinical outcome of untreated type II diabetes?

A

Declining insulin secretion and worsening hyperglycemia.

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45
Q

How does insulin regulate vascular function?

A

Insulin regulates both vasodilation and vasoconstriction; however, in insulin resistance, only vasoconstriction remains.

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46
Q

What is the role of hyperglycemia in diabetes complications?

A

Hyperglycemia promotes oxidative stress and tissue damage.

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47
Q

What is the effect of insulin resistance on lipid metabolism?

A

It leads to increased VLDL production and hypertriglyceridemia.

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48
Q

Fill in the blank: The pathologic hallmark of diabetes includes injury to the _______.

A

vasculature

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49
Q

True or False: Type I diabetes is more common in adults.

A

False

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50
Q

What lifestyle changes are encouraged for a patient with obesity and type II diabetes?

A

Major lifestyle changes including dietary modifications and an exercise regimen.

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51
Q

What are the classic complications of poorly managed diabetes?

A

Loss of vision, kidney failure, neurologic damage, heart attack, and stroke.

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52
Q

What device is suggested for monitoring blood pressure at home?

A

Sphygmomanometer.

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53
Q

What is the recommended action for a patient with elevated LDL levels?

A

Consideration of statin therapy.

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54
Q

What is the role of adipokines in obesity?

A

They are involved in regulating metabolic processes and inflammation.

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55
Q

What is the significance of an elevated BMI?

A

It indicates increased risk for metabolic syndrome and cardiovascular disease.

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56
Q

What can chronic hyperglycemia lead to in terms of vascular health?

A

Injury to both microvascular and macrovascular systems.

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57
Q

What is the effect of hyperglycemia on oxidative stress and tissue damage?

A

Hyperglycemia promotes oxidative stress and tissue damage, particularly in insulin-independent tissues, leading to retinopathies, nephropathies, and neuropathies

This occurs due to increased intracellular glucose levels.

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58
Q

What minor metabolic pathways of glucose are promoted by increased glucose levels?

A

The polyol and hexosamine pathways

These pathways are utilized for glucose metabolism when glucose levels are high.

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59
Q

What is the role of aldose reductase in glucose metabolism?

A

Aldose reductase converts glucose to sorbitol using NADPH as a cofactor

This reaction leads to depletion of NADPH, making cells more susceptible to oxidative damage.

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60
Q

What is the consequence of increased sorbitol levels in cells?

A

Sorbitol is osmotically active and draws water into cells, causing oxidative stress

Most cells cannot further metabolize sorbitol, contributing to cellular damage.

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61
Q

How does increased glycolytic flux affect fructose 6-phosphate levels?

A

Increased glycolytic flux raises fructose 6-phosphate levels, which can be diverted to the hexosamine pathway

This leads to the production of UDP-N-acetylglucosamine for O-glycosylation of proteins.

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62
Q

What is the relationship between DAG and PKC signaling?

A

Ectopic lipid accumulation increases diacylglycerol (DAG), activating the PKC pathway

Enhanced PKC signaling exacerbates cellular oxidative stress.

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63
Q

What are advanced glycation end products (AGEs) and their significance?

A

AGEs are formed through the auto-oxidation of glucose and interact with cellular receptors to stimulate oxidative stress

This interaction activates pathways including PKC.

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64
Q

What is the role of exercise in blood glucose regulation?

A

Exercise stimulates translocation of Glut4 and increases muscle glucose uptake via the AMPK pathway

This mechanism remains effective even in insulin-resistant patients.

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65
Q

What are the primary metabolic effects of insulin?

A

Insulin coordinates fuel utilization by tissues, favoring anabolic processes like glycogen, triacylglycerol, protein, and nucleotide synthesis

It acts mainly through binding to insulin receptors on cell membranes.

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66
Q

What causes excessive fat accumulation in the liver?

A

Increased fatty acid delivery, increased synthesis, reduced oxidation, and reduced export as VLDL

These factors contribute to hepatic steatosis.

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67
Q

How does obesity relate to insulin resistance?

A

Obesity is central to insulin resistance, diabetes, metabolic syndrome, and dyslipidemia

It disrupts normal metabolic processes.

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68
Q

What is crescendo angina?

A

Crescendo angina refers to acute episodes of chest pain occurring with increasing frequency, indicating an impending infarction

It is a critical warning sign for cardiovascular events.

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69
Q

What is the function of apolipoproteins?

A

Apolipoproteins help in the structure, receptor activity, and enzymatic regulation of lipoproteins

They are essential for lipid transport and metabolism.

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70
Q

What is the significance of reactive oxygen species (ROS)?

A

ROS can damage cellular components like DNA, RNA, proteins, and lipids

They play a crucial role in oxidative stress and cellular injury.

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71
Q

What are the major categories of lipoproteins?

A

Chylomicrons, very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL), low-density lipoprotein (LDL), high-density lipoprotein (HDL)

These categories are based on their density and lipid content.

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72
Q

What role does lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT) play?

A

LCAT catalyzes the conversion of cholesterol to cholesteryl esters in HDL

This process increases HDL’s capacity to transport cholesterol.

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73
Q

How are lipids transported in the plasma?

A

Lipids are transported in the plasma as components of lipoproteins

This allows hydrophobic compounds to move through the hydrophilic environment of blood.

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74
Q

What is the effect of statin therapy on cholesterol?

A

Statins lower cholesterol levels by inhibiting HMG CoA reductase

This can help manage hyperlipidemia and reduce cardiovascular risk.

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75
Q

What is a troponin test used for?

A

A troponin test is a diagnostic marker to assess heart damage and evaluate myocardial infarction risk

Elevated troponin levels indicate heart muscle injury.

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76
Q

What is the primary function of the reverse transport pathway in lipid metabolism?

A

The reverse transport pathway involves HDL, which transports cholesterol away from tissues to the liver for excretion

This pathway is crucial for maintaining cholesterol balance in the body.

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77
Q

What are apolipoproteins?

A

Apolipoproteins are protein components of lipoproteins that play a role in lipid transport.

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78
Q

What is the main function of chylomicrons (CM)?

A

Transport of dietary TAG from the intestine.

79
Q

What apolipoproteins are associated with chylomicrons?

80
Q

What is the function of very low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs)?

A

Transport of endogenously synthesized TAG from the liver.

81
Q

What apolipoproteins are found in VLDLs?

A
  • B100
  • CII
  • E
82
Q

How are low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) formed?

A

By the partial breakdown of intermediate-density lipoproteins (IDL) in circulation.

83
Q

What is the primary role of LDLs?

A

Delivers cholesterol to peripheral tissues.

84
Q

What apolipoprotein is associated with LDLs?

85
Q

What is the main function of high-density lipoproteins (HDLs)?

A

Removes ‘used’ cholesterol from tissues and transports it to the liver.

86
Q

What apolipoproteins are found in HDLs?

A
  • A1
  • A1
  • CII
  • E
87
Q

What is the exogenous pathway of lipid transport?

A

Involves the incorporation of dietary lipids into chylomicrons in the intestine.

88
Q

What is required for the assembly of chylomicrons?

A

Microsomal triglyceride transfer protein (MTP).

89
Q

What condition results from the absence of MTP?

A

Abetalipoproteinemia.

90
Q

How do chylomicrons enter circulation?

A

Via the lymphatic system and then to the systemic circulation.

91
Q

What proteins do chylomicrons acquire in circulation?

A
  • Apolipoprotein C-II
  • Apolipoprotein E
92
Q

What is the function of lipoprotein lipase (LPL)?

A

Hydrolyzes triacylglycerol to free fatty acids for uptake by tissues.

93
Q

What are chylomicron remnants?

A

Chylomicrons that have lost TAGs and are small enough to enter the liver.

94
Q

What happens to chylomicron remnants in the liver?

A

They are taken up via receptor-mediated endocytosis by the LDL receptor and degraded.

95
Q

What is familial dysbetalipoproteinemia?

A

A condition caused by mutations in Apo E leading to decreased chylomicron clearance.

96
Q

What is the endogenous pathway of lipid transport?

A

Involves a mixture of dietary and de novo synthesized TAGs, predominantly synthesized in the liver.

97
Q

What is the role of MTP in VLDL assembly?

A

Facilitates the fusion of apolipoprotein B-100 with lipid droplets.

98
Q

What happens to VLDL particles in circulation?

A

They are converted to intermediate-density lipoproteins (IDL) or cleared by the liver.

99
Q

What is the role of hepatic lipase (HL) in LDL formation?

A

Removes triacylglycerol and phospholipids from VLDL to form LDL.

100
Q

What is the primary receptor for LDL uptake?

A

LDL receptor.

101
Q

What enzyme binds to LDL receptors and prevents their recycling?

A

Proprotein convertase subtilisin/kexin type 9 (PCSK9).

102
Q

What is oxidized LDL (ox-LDL)?

A

LDL that has undergone oxidative damage, increasing its proinflammatory properties.

103
Q

How does oxidized LDL contribute to atherosclerosis?

A

It is recognized by scavenger receptors on macrophages, leading to foam cell formation.

104
Q

Why is HDL referred to as ‘good cholesterol’?

A

It facilitates reverse cholesterol transport from peripheral tissues to the liver.

105
Q

What is the role of ApoA-1 in HDL formation?

A

It binds to ABCA1 to facilitate the efflux of cholesterol and phosphatidylcholine.

106
Q

What happens to free cholesterol in nascent HDL?

A

It is esterified by lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT).

107
Q

What are the two fates of HDL after acquiring cholesteryl esters?

A
  • Binds to SR-B1 releasing cholesteryl ester to the liver
  • Exchanges cholesteryl esters with VLDL via CETP
108
Q

What is the role of HDL in reverse cholesterol transport?

A

HDL facilitates the transport of cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver

109
Q

What does CETP stand for and what is its function?

A

Cholesteryl ester transfer protein; it moves cholesteryl esters from HDL to VLDL in exchange for triacylglycerol

110
Q

What is the result of ApoA-II binding to hepatic lipase?

A

It activates hepatic lipase to hydrolyze triacylglycerol to free fatty acids

111
Q

Is lipoprotein (a) a risk factor for ASVD events?

A

Yes, lipoprotein (a) is a modest independent risk factor for atherosclerotic vascular disease events

112
Q

What are dyslipidemias?

A

Conditions with elevated plasma cholesterol and triacylglycerols or low HDL levels

113
Q

What are the two types of dyslipidemias?

A
  • Primary dyslipidemias (genetic defects)
  • Secondary dyslipidemias (lifestyle, diet, other diseases)
114
Q

How is LDL cholesterol calculated?

A

LDL cholesterol = total cholesterol − HDL cholesterol − (total triglycerides/5)

115
Q

Define hypertriglyceridemia.

A

A subtype of dyslipidemia with total plasma triacylglycerol levels exceeding 150 mg/dL in the fasting state

116
Q

What is a major risk associated with very severe hypertriglyceridemia?

A

Pancreatitis

117
Q

What is hypercholesterolemia?

A

Very high levels of cholesterol in the serum, increasing risk for coronary artery disease

118
Q

What are the cardinal manifestations of chronically elevated cholesterol?

A
  • Xanthomas
  • Xanthelasma
119
Q

What is choledocholithiasis?

A

Stone logged in the common bile duct, obstructing bile flow into the duodenum

120
Q

What is a cholecystectomy?

A

Surgical removal of the gallbladder

121
Q

What does gangrenous cholecystitis result from?

A

Circulatory compromise of the cystic artery leading to acute ischemia

122
Q

What are the symptoms of biliary colic?

A

Acute postprandial right upper quadrant pain lasting <2-3 hours, possibly with vomiting

123
Q

What differentiates acute cholecystitis from biliary colic?

A

Acute cholecystitis involves persistent pain and marked leukocytosis due to inflammation

124
Q

What laboratory findings support a diagnosis of acute cholecystitis?

A
  • Marked leukocytosis
  • Elevated transaminases
  • Normal bilirubin level
125
Q

What is the typical clinical presentation of acute cholecystitis?

A

RUQ abdominal pain, fever, and vomiting

126
Q

What imaging study is typically performed for suspected acute cholecystitis?

A

Ultrasound of the abdomen

127
Q

How can recurrent episodes of abdominal pain help in diagnosis?

A

They can rule out certain causes like musculoskeletal or neuropathic issues

128
Q

What is the significance of a normal amylase and lipase in gallbladder disease?

A

It argues against gallstone pancreatitis

129
Q

What indicates that the stone may remain lodged in the cystic duct?

A

Normal transaminases and lack of extrahepatic cholestasis

Minor elevations of AST/ALT can occur in acute cholecystitis due to pericolic inflammatory change.

130
Q

What are the major components of bile?

A
  • Bile acids (bile salts)
  • Phospholipids
  • Cholesterol
  • Bilirubin
  • Electrolytes (potassium, sodium, bicarbonate)
  • Small amounts of proteins and minerals

The composition of bile varies with the nutritional status of the individual.

131
Q

What are the two fundamental functions of bile?

A
  • Important in lipid digestion and absorption
  • Excretion of cholesterol and bilirubin
132
Q

What stimulates the release of cholecystokinin (CCK)?

A

Fatty acids in the duodenum

133
Q

What is the role of bile acids in lipid digestion?

A

Facilitate emulsification of fat and formation of micelles

134
Q

How is cholesterol metabolized in humans?

A

Synthesis and excretion of bile acids are the only significant mechanisms for eliminating excess cholesterol

135
Q

What are the primary bile acids synthesized from cholesterol?

A
  • Chenodeoxycholic acid
  • Cholic acid
136
Q

What is the rate-limiting step in the synthesis of primary bile acids?

A

Catalyzed by 7-alpha-hydroxylase (CYP7A)

137
Q

What modifies primary bile acids to increase their solubility?

A

Conjugation via amide linkages of glycine or taurine

138
Q

What are the secondary bile acids produced in the intestine?

A
  • Deoxycholic acid
  • Lithocholic acid
139
Q

What does enterohepatic circulation refer to?

A

The movement of bile acids from the liver to the small intestine and back to the liver

140
Q

What factors can lead to the formation of cholesterol gallstones?

A
  • Certain genetic factors
  • Hepatic hypersecretion of biliary cholesterol
  • Gallbladder hypomotility
  • Rapid phase transitions of cholesterol
  • Intestinal factors
141
Q

What are the three varieties of gallstones?

A
  • Cholesterol stones
  • Pigmented stones (black and brown)
  • Mixed stones
142
Q

What is Admirand’s Triangle used to demonstrate?

A

The balance between bile acids, phospholipids, and cholesterol for cholesterol solubility

143
Q

What characterizes biliary colic?

A

Transient symptoms when a gallstone temporarily lodges in the cystic duct

144
Q

What are the symptoms of cholecystitis?

A

Persistent RUQ pain, nausea, vomiting

145
Q

What imaging findings should alert one to choledocholithiasis?

A

Elevation of bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase and/or a dilated common bile duct

146
Q

What factors influence gallstone formation?

A
  • Age
  • Gender
  • Obesity
  • Metabolic syndrome
  • Effects of estrogen
  • Rapid weight loss
  • Genetic predisposition
147
Q

What were the laboratory findings in the 60-year-old female case?

A

WBC: 3900, Hb: 12 g/dL

Reference ranges: WBC: 4000-10,000, Hb: Not provided in detail.

148
Q

What is the typical prevalence of gallstones in the U.S. population by age 40?

149
Q

What is the proportion of gallstones found in women compared to men?

A

About 2-3 to 1

150
Q

What are Mallory bodies?

A

Cytoplasmic hyaline inclusion bodies in hepatocytes indicating liver damage.

151
Q

What does NAFLD stand for?

A

Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease.

152
Q

Define steatosis.

A

The deleterious accumulation of excess fat in the hepatocyte.

153
Q

What is the significance of steatosis in liver health?

A

It becomes a marker that the metabolic machinery is going awry.

154
Q

What health risks does the patient have in this case?

A

Obesity, use of tobacco, sedentary lifestyle, unmanaged hypertension.

155
Q

What supports a diagnosis of metabolic syndrome?

A

Dyslipidemia combined with central obesity and hypertension.

156
Q

What does an inversion of the AST/ALT ratio indicate?

A

It can indicate alcohol abuse or nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH).

157
Q

What are the common causes of cirrhosis worldwide?

A
  • Alcohol abuse
  • Viral agents (hepatitis B and C)
  • NASH
158
Q

What does the presence of elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase suggest?

A

More significant damage to the liver.

159
Q

What does mild pancytopenia indicate in this case?

A

It must be accounted for in the diagnosis.

160
Q

What is the gold standard for establishing a NASH diagnosis?

A

Liver biopsy.

161
Q

What is the major complication of NASH?

A

Cirrhosis, which may result in decompensated liver disease or hepatocellular carcinoma.

162
Q

What are the biochemical mechanisms leading to NAFLD?

A
  • Insulin resistance
  • Hormones from adipose tissue
  • Nutritional factors
  • Gut microbiota
  • Genetic and epigenetic factors
163
Q

What role does adiponectin play in NAFLD?

A

It decreases hepatic and systemic insulin resistance and ameliorates liver inflammation and fibrosis.

164
Q

What does low adiponectin levels indicate in NAFLD?

A

Accelerates the progression of the disease from steatosis to NASH.

165
Q

How does leptin influence NAFLD?

A

Higher levels of leptin are correlated with increased severity of NAFLD.

166
Q

What happens to free fatty acids in NAFLD?

A

There is increased synthesis and decreased export in the form of VLDL.

167
Q

What is the consequence of leptin resistance in NAFLD?

A

Increased synthesis of free fatty acids and decreased VLDL secretion.

168
Q

What lifestyle changes are recommended for treating NASH?

A

Significant weight loss, increased exercise, and control of hypertension.

169
Q

List the histologic features of NASH.

A
  • Steatosis
  • Hepatocyte ballooning degeneration with Mallory bodies
  • Inflammatory infiltration of macrophages
  • Fibrosis
170
Q

True or False: NAFLD is the most common form of liver disease.

171
Q

What is a common finding in routine laboratory examinations for NAFLD?

A

Transaminase elevation.

172
Q

What does an ultrasound reveal in this case?

A

An enlarged inhomogeneous liver consistent with fatty infiltration.

173
Q

What is the clinical significance of splenomegaly in this case?

A

It suggests early portal hypertension.

174
Q

What are the most common causes of cirrhosis worldwide?

A

Alcohol abuse, viral agents such as hepatitis B and C, and NASH

NASH stands for nonalcoholic steatohepatitis.

175
Q

In alcoholic steatohepatitis and nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), what is the usual ratio of ALT to AST?

A

The usual ratio is inverted; AST is greater than ALT.

176
Q

What are the histologic features of NASH?

A

Steatosis, hepatocyte ballooning degeneration with Mallory bodies, inflammatory infiltration of macrophages, and fibrosis.

177
Q

What type of insulin resistance is seen in patients with NAFLD?

A

Selective hepatic insulin resistance.

178
Q

What is impaired in patients with NAFLD regarding glucose?

A

Impaired glucose homeostasis.

179
Q

What is enhanced in NAFLD despite impaired glucose homeostasis?

A

Insulin-mediated hepatic de novo lipogenesis.

180
Q

What does hepatic de novo lipogenesis limit?

A

Fatty acid beta-oxidation.

181
Q

What are the consequences of limited fatty acid beta-oxidation in NAFLD?

A

High free fatty acid flux, increased triacylglycerol synthesis, increased intrahepatic lipid storage, and decreased VLDL secretion.

182
Q

What are adiponectin levels in NAFLD?

A

Adiponectin levels are low.

183
Q

What resistance is observed in leptin levels in NAFLD?

A

Leptin resistance.

184
Q

What happens to leptin levels in NAFLD?

A

Leptin levels increase.

185
Q

What laboratory findings suggest a diagnosis of nonalcoholic steatohepatitis?

A

Increased AST/ALT levels

These findings indicate an inflammatory response in the liver.

186
Q

What is the most likely initiating factor in the formation of plaque in the anterior descending coronary artery?

A

Endothelial damage

This injury leads to leukocyte infiltration and increased permeability of the vessel wall.

187
Q

What is the most likely explanation for the findings in a patient with hypertension, obesity, and elevated liver enzymes?

A

Decreased adiponectin levels

Adiponectin levels decrease in nonalcoholic steatohepatitis, leading to fat deposition in the liver.

188
Q

What is the most likely cause of acute right quadrant pain in a patient with a history of similar attacks after meals?

A

Obstruction of her cystic duct by a gallstone

This condition is indicative of acute cholecystitis.

189
Q

What pathologic process is described in a patient with long-standing type II diabetes experiencing vision problems?

A

Nonenzymatic glycation of proteins

This process contributes to complications such as diabetic retinopathy.

190
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with obesity, elevated blood pressure, and elevated blood glucose levels?

A

Type 2 diabetes

Defined by fasting plasma glucose levels above 126 mg/dL.

191
Q

Which metabolic pathway in the liver has diminished activity in a patient with type 2 diabetes?

A

Decreased beta-oxidation

Increased lipid peroxidation and high fatty acid levels inhibit beta-oxidation.

192
Q

What is the most likely preliminary diagnosis causing increased serum liver enzyme activity in a patient with hypertension and obesity?

A

Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis

This condition is associated with metabolic syndrome.

193
Q

What is the most likely explanation for why exercise would improve laboratory findings in a patient?

A

Activates AMPK pathway

AMPK activation increases glucose uptake by muscle through GLUT4 translocation.

194
Q

What is the most likely cause of severe abdominal pain in a patient with metabolic syndrome?

A

Cholecystitis

Gallstones can obstruct the bile duct, causing symptoms consistent with this diagnosis.