2 - Jaundice Flashcards

1
Q

What is jaundice?

A

Yellowing of the skin and sclera due to bilirubin deposition

Also called hyperbilirubinemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two pathways of hemoglobin degradation?

A

Intravascular and extravascular degradation pathways

These pathways involve the breakdown of hemoglobin and the processing of bilirubin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the normal serum bilirubin level?

A

1.0 mg/dL

A concentration must double or triple before jaundice becomes clinically visible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the main causes of jaundice?

A
  • Excess heme degradation
  • Impaired bilirubin transport and uptake
  • Disruption of bilirubin metabolism
  • Obstruction of bile flow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is cholestasis?

A

Any obstruction to bile flow

Can be classified as intrahepatic or extrahepatic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does hemolysis lead to jaundice?

A

Increased bilirubin production from the breakdown of red blood cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are liver function enzymes used for?

A

To diagnose various types of jaundice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What distinguishes alpha-thalassemia from beta-thalassemia?

A

Alpha-thalassemia involves deletions of alpha-globin genes; beta-thalassemia involves reduced synthesis of beta-globin genes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the biochemical basis of hemochromatosis?

A

Excessive accumulation of iron in the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the functions of the liver and pancreas?

A
  • Metabolism
  • Detoxification
  • Bile production (liver)
  • Enzyme secretion (pancreas)

These functions are linked to symptoms of cirrhosis and pancreatic cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is neonatal hyperbilirubinemia?

A

Excess bilirubin in newborns requiring evaluation and treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the van den Bergh reaction?

A

A colorimetric assay used to estimate serum bilirubin levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the significance of direct versus indirect bilirubin?

A

Direct bilirubin is water-soluble; indirect bilirubin is unconjugated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What can cause intravascular hemolysis?

A
  • Cardiac hemolysis from artificial heart valves
  • Complement fixation
  • Toxin exposure
  • Thermal damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the lifespan of red blood cells in thalassemia?

A

Shortened lifespan of 6.5 days compared to the normal 120 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What clinical findings are associated with beta-thalassemia?

A
  • Jaundice
  • Osteoporosis
  • Growth retardation
  • Pigmented gallstones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the role of haptoglobin in hemolysis?

A

Binds free hemoglobin to prevent kidney damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the typical presentation of a patient with thalassemia intermedia?

A

Worsening shortness of breath, jaundice, and chronic anemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What laboratory studies can clarify the diagnosis in thalassemia?

A
  • Reticulocyte count
  • Serum haptoglobin
  • LDH level
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What can a chest X-ray reveal in thalassemia patients?

A

Signs of fluid overload and possible heart enlargement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a possible complication of splenectomy in thalassemia patients?

A

Increased risk of sepsis, especially by pneumococcus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is fetal hemoglobin (HbF) composed of?

A

Two alpha and two gamma chains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a minor component of adult hemoglobin?

A

HbA2, which has two alpha and two delta chains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is thalassemia inherited?

A

In an autosomal recessive manner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the two major types of thalassemia?

A
  • Alpha-thalassemia
  • Beta-thalassemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What characterizes alpha-thalassemia?

A

Deletions of the alpha-globin genes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the defining feature of beta-thalassemia?

A

Reduced synthesis of beta-globin genes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What happens when one alpha chain gene is deleted in alpha-thalassemia?

A

It presents with a mild microcytic hypochromic defect in hemoglobin production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is hydrops fetalis?

A

Deletion of all four alpha-globin chains, incompatible with life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What condition does beta-thalassemia result from?

A

Mutations affecting every step of gene expression for beta chain synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the prominent signs and symptoms of thalassemias?

A

Varying degrees of clinical disease manifestations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the main cause of hemolytic anemia?

A

Premature removal of erythrocytes due to intrinsic or extrinsic factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the two pathways of red cell removal after hemolysis?

A
  • Intravascularly
  • Extravascularly in the reticuloendothelial system.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What characterizes extravascular hemolysis?

A

Removal of senescent red blood cells by macrophages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What happens during intravascular hemolysis?

A

Red blood cells are lysed in the circulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are schistocytes?

A

Fragments of normal erythrocyte membrane resulting from intravascular hemolysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the role of haptoglobin?

A

To bind free hemoglobin dimers and prevent their escape into the kidney.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the first product of hemoglobin metabolism?

A

Biliverdin, which is then converted to bilirubin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How is bilirubin transported to the liver?

A

Bound to albumin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What conversion occurs in the hepatocyte regarding bilirubin?

A

Bilirubin is conjugated with glucuronic acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What happens to conjugated bilirubin in the intestine?

A

It is hydrolyzed to unconjugated bilirubin by bacterial glucuronidases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is kernicterus?

A

Irreversible CNS damage in newborns due to high levels of unconjugated bilirubin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the symptoms of kernicterus?

A
  • Cerebral palsy-like movements
  • Visual and hearing damage
  • Intellectual disabilities.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What bilirubin level is considered hyperbilirubinemia?

A

Exceeding 1.0 mg/dL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What bilirubin level indicates jaundice?

A

Exceeding 2.0 mg/dL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the significance of bilirubin elevation lasting longer than 2 weeks?

A

It requires further evaluation for potential pathology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are some potential causes of jaundice in newborns?

A
  • Biliary atresia
  • Immune-mediated hemolysis
  • Hereditary spherocytosis
  • G6PD or pyruvate kinase deficiencies.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the consequence of untreated acute bilirubin encephalopathy?

A

Permanent neurologic damage (kernicterus).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the relationship between ineffective erythropoiesis and hemolytic anemia?

A

Ineffective erythropoiesis can cause hemolytic anemia and unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What characterizes extravascular hemolysis?

A

Chronic phenomenon with elevated reticulocyte count and unconjugated bilirubin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the metabolic pathway of hemoglobin degradation?

A

Hemoglobin -> Biliverdin -> Bilirubin -> Conjugation in the liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

True or False: Jaundice in the first 24 hours of life is physiologic.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is biliary atresia?

A

A condition to consider when jaundice is not physiologic in nature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What causes immune-mediated hemolysis in neonates?

A

ABO or Rh incompatibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are hereditary conditions associated with jaundice?

A

Hereditary spherocytosis, glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency, pyruvate kinase deficiencies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is a cephalohematoma?

A

A type of closed space hematoma that can cause jaundice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What can prolong physiologic jaundice in neonates?

A

Breast milk may prolong jaundice beyond the 2-week period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the main biochemical basis of neonatal jaundice?

A

Accumulation of indirect bilirubin in plasma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is physiologic jaundice in the neonate?

A

Jaundice due to increased bilirubin load, decreased conjugation, and impaired excretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How does bilirubin accumulate in neonates?

A

Due to shorter half-life of red blood cells and low hepatic enzyme activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the role of albumin in bilirubin metabolism in infants?

A

Infants have lower albumin levels, allowing more unbound bilirubin to circulate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the neurotoxic effect of unconjugated bilirubin?

A

It can accumulate in the basal ganglia, causing acute bilirubin encephalopathy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is breastfeeding jaundice?

A

Jaundice due to delayed milk production or decreased milk intake leading to dehydration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is breast milk jaundice?

A

Jaundice that occurs after the first week of life due to factors in breast milk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What indicates pathologic jaundice in a neonate?

A

Jaundice occurring within the first 24 hours of life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the standard treatment for jaundice in neonates?

A

Phototherapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What wavelength of light is most effective in phototherapy?

A

425-475 nm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the expected bilirubin range in normal physiologic jaundice?

A

10 to 20 mg/dL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the subnormal enzyme levels in neonates that affect bilirubin metabolism?

A

GST-beta, glutathione S-transferase, and UDP-GT levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What factors exacerbate breastfeeding jaundice?

A

Poor oral intake, inadequate caloric content, and dehydration.

71
Q

What is Gilbert syndrome?

A

A benign condition characterized by slightly elevated indirect bilirubin levels.

72
Q

What is the most common inherited disorder of bilirubin metabolism?

A

Gilbert syndrome.

73
Q

How is Gilbert syndrome inherited?

A

Autosomal recessive pattern.

74
Q

What differentiates Gilbert syndrome from Crigler-Najjar syndrome?

A

Crigler-Najjar syndrome has reduced or absent UGT1A1 activity, leading to severe jaundice.

75
Q

What are the two syndromes that cause accumulation of direct bilirubin?

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome and Rotor syndrome.

76
Q

What genetic mutation causes Dubin-Johnson syndrome?

A

Mutations in the MRP2 gene.

77
Q

What is Rotor syndrome characterized by?

A

Intermittent jaundice with predominantly conjugated bilirubin.

78
Q

What is the clinical significance of conjugated bilirubin?

A

It is eliminated in bile and can cause dark pigmentation in the liver.

79
Q

What is the typical bilirubin level in Gilbert syndrome?

A

Slightly elevated unconjugated bilirubin.

80
Q

What is kernicterus?

A

A serious complication of untreated hyperbilirubinemia in neonates.

81
Q

What proteins are expressed on the sinusoidal membrane of hepatocytes responsible for?

A

They are responsible for the uptake of bilirubin by the liver

These proteins also transport bile acids, conjugated steroids, eicosanoids, thyroid hormones, and cholecystokinin.

82
Q

What syndrome clinically resembles Dubin-Johnson syndrome?

A

Rotor syndrome

83
Q

What does an isolated elevation of bilirubin in a healthy adolescent suggest?

A

It may suggest a congenital hyperbilirubinemia.

84
Q

What is the most common cause of congenital hyperbilirubinemia?

A

Gilbert syndrome

85
Q

What genetic defect leads to Gilbert syndrome?

A

A defect in the transcription promoter region of the UGT1A1 gene

86
Q

What does Gilbert syndrome cause in terms of bilirubin levels?

A

It leads to a low expression of UDP-glucuronyltransferase and thus an elevation of unconjugated bilirubin.

87
Q

What are benign hyperbilirubinemias typically characterized by?

A

They are usually asymptomatic with very mild jaundice.

88
Q

What can precipitate the mild jaundice seen in benign hyperbilirubinemias?

A

Intercurrent infection or fasting.

89
Q

What must be included in the differential diagnosis if the elevation in bilirubin is predominantly unconjugated?

90
Q

What memory tool can be used for clinical decision making in congenital hyperbilirubinemia disorders?

A

Dubin-Johnson presents with primarily elevated direct bilirubin, while Gilbert is primarily indirect.

91
Q

What symptoms did the 55-year-old man present with?

A

Yellowing of the eyes, generalized weakness, weight gain, increased abdominal girth

92
Q

What is the edema rating scale used for?

A

To grade the degree of pitting edema from +1 to +4.

93
Q

What does portal hypertension indicate?

A

Inhibition of blood flow through the liver due to cirrhosis

94
Q

What is a spider angiomata?

A

A vascular malformation on the skin commonly seen in chronic liver disease.

95
Q

What does the presence of spider angiomata suggest?

A

It suggests liver disease.

96
Q

What laboratory studies might clarify a diagnosis of liver disease?

A

Complete blood count (CBC), metabolic profile, prothrombin time, imaging study of the hepatobiliary system

97
Q

What does the laboratory pattern for liver function tests in chronic liver disease typically show?

A

A cholestatic picture with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase.

98
Q

What does a CT scan reveal in cases of chronic liver disease?

A

A dense, nonhomogeneous liver, moderately enlarged spleen, and small amount of ascitic fluid.

99
Q

What does a negative result for hepatitis B and C indicate?

A

It helps exclude primary biliary cirrhosis and autoimmune hepatitis.

100
Q

What is Wilson disease characterized by?

A

Defect in copper transport resulting in deposition of toxic amounts of copper.

101
Q

What finding is pathognomonic for Wilson disease?

A

Kayser Fleischer ring

102
Q

What supports hemochromatosis as a working diagnosis?

A

90% transferrin saturation and markedly elevated ferritin.

103
Q

What are the pathologic consequences of hemochromatosis?

A

Iron deposition in tissues such as skin, heart, and pancreas.

104
Q

What is the central feature of cirrhosis?

A

Progressive death of hepatocytes and collagen deposition.

105
Q

What activates stellate and Kupffer cells in cirrhosis?

A

Pathologic stimuli such as toxic substances, drugs, and chronic inflammation.

106
Q

What is the result of fibrotic changes in cirrhosis?

A

Increased vascular resistance and portal hypertension.

107
Q

What causes jaundice in end-stage cirrhosis?

A

Disruption of the bile ductular system.

108
Q

What is the main cause of encephalopathic changes in liver disease?

A

Reduced detoxification of ammonia in the urea cycle.

109
Q

What is the genetic implication of hemochromatosis?

A

It is an autosomal recessive disorder.

110
Q

What is the role of hepcidin in iron homeostasis?

A

Hepcidin is a hormone secreted by the liver that regulates iron levels in circulation by binding to ferroportin, inhibiting dietary absorption and release of iron from macrophages and hepatocytes.

111
Q

What is the primary function of transferrin in the body?

A

Transferrin is the main protein involved in iron transport in plasma, distributing iron mainly to the liver, muscle, and bone marrow.

112
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of cirrhosis when liver damage reaches 80% or greater?

A
  • Encephalopathy
  • Clotting disorders
  • Portal hypertension
  • Feminization in males
  • Malnutrition
  • Fluid overload
113
Q

What is the significance of ferritin in iron storage?

A

Ferritin is the major protein used for intracellular storage of iron and can bind to approximately 4500 iron atoms.

114
Q

What happens to iron levels when hepcidin synthesis increases?

A

Increased hepcidin synthesis limits iron absorption from the gut and release from iron stores.

115
Q

What is the most prevalent genetic disorder causing iron overload in Caucasians?

A

Hereditary hemochromatosis (HH) caused by mutations in the HFE gene.

116
Q

What is the treatment of choice for hemochromatosis?

A

Periodic venesection (phlebotomy) to halt further deposition of iron and resultant tissue damage.

117
Q

What could low serum albumin and a lengthening prothrombin time indicate?

A

They are indicators of failing hepatic synthetic function and probable cirrhosis.

118
Q

What is choledocholithiasis?

A

A stone lodged in the biliary tree, which may be present with gallstones or reform after cholecystectomy.

119
Q

What is the definition of cholestasis?

A

Any obstruction to bile flow.

120
Q

What are the possible etiologies of cirrhosis considered in the case study?

A
  • Alcohol abuse
  • Chronic hepatitis (B or C)
  • Hemochromatosis
  • Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH)
121
Q

What imaging study was performed to investigate the patient’s condition?

A

A CT scan of the abdomen with oral contrast.

122
Q

What did the CT scan reveal about the patient’s pancreas?

A

A 4 cm mass in the head of the pancreas.

123
Q

How does iron overload occur in hereditary hemochromatosis?

A

Low hepcidin levels lead to increased ferroportin activity, resulting in increased dietary iron uptake and iron release from macrophages.

124
Q

What is the relationship between free iron and cellular toxicity?

A

Free iron in the circulation can be toxic to cells; hence, it is stored in the form of ferritin or hemosiderin.

125
Q

What is the primary role of iron regulatory proteins (IRPs)?

A

IRPs regulate iron availability at the cellular level, controlling transferrin and ferritin levels.

126
Q

What can chronic hemochromatosis cause in terms of skin and organ damage?

A

It may cause bronzed pigmentation of the skin and damage to liver and pancreatic tissue, potentially leading to diabetes mellitus.

127
Q

What is the significance of the porta hepatis?

A

It is the area central to the liver where the hepatic ducts meet and is often a site for metastatic malignancy.

128
Q

What laboratory tests would be appropriate for diagnosing liver disease in this case?

A
  • Complete blood count (CBC)
  • Liver function tests
  • Total protein and albumin levels
  • Prothrombin time (INR)
  • Gene analysis for HFE
  • Viral serologies for hepatitis B and C
129
Q

What does the term ‘sphincterotomy’ refer to?

A

A procedure to widen or enlarge the opening in any sphincter, such as the sphincter of Oddi.

130
Q

What is the condition characterized by a firm enlarged liver and metabolic function holding despite alcohol abuse?

A

Cirrhosis

Cirrhosis is often associated with chronic liver disease and can be a result of chronic alcoholism.

131
Q

What imaging study was requested to investigate the patient’s condition?

A

CT scan of the abdomen with oral contrast

This imaging helps to identify masses and structural changes in the abdominal organs.

132
Q

What did the CT scan reveal in the head of the pancreas?

A

A 4 cm mass

This mass is likely malignant, contributing to the patient’s symptoms.

133
Q

What is the significance of the dilated common bile duct observed in the CT scan?

A

It indicates obstruction

A dilated common bile duct can be a sign of obstructive jaundice due to a mass in the pancreas.

134
Q

What suggests the presence of metastatic disease in the liver?

A

Two 3-cm nodules in the left lobe

Metastatic disease often presents as nodules in the liver, indicating spread from a primary malignancy.

135
Q

What are the symptoms associated with the lesion in the head of the pancreas?

A

Cholestatic jaundice, pruritus, and weight loss

These symptoms are often indicative of biliary obstruction.

136
Q

What happens to conjugated bilirubin once it is exported out by MRP2 into the bile duct?

A

It is secreted into the bile duct as part of the bile

This process is crucial for bile formation and digestion.

137
Q

What is the molecular basis of obstructive jaundice?

A

Obstruction of the biliary tract

This can be caused by gallstones, stricture, or malignancy, leading to accumulation of bilirubin.

138
Q

What toxic substances accumulate in the liver due to bile duct obstruction?

A

Bile salts and conjugated bilirubin

These substances can damage hepatocytes and lead to elevated liver function tests.

139
Q

What does an absence of bile in the duodenum cause in stool color?

A

Clay-colored fecal material

This is due to lack of bilirubin breakdown products in the intestines.

140
Q

What is the pattern of liver function tests in extrahepatic biliary obstruction?

A

Disproportionate elevation of bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase

This pattern is indicative of cholestasis.

141
Q

What is the most common cause of extrahepatic biliary obstruction?

A

Mechanical obstruction

This is usually due to gallstones, tumors, or strictures.

142
Q

What is a common symptom associated with obstructive jaundice?

A

Pruritus

It is linked to the accumulation of bile salts in the bloodstream.

143
Q

What clinical findings suggest biliary tract obstruction?

A

Bile-colored urine and clay-colored stool

These findings indicate a lack of bilirubin reaching the intestines.

144
Q

What is urobilinogen?

A

Metabolic product of bacterial degradation of bile salts

It is normally produced in the intestines and is important for stool color.

145
Q

What are the main components of bile?

A
  • Conjugated bilirubin
  • Bile salts
  • Lecithin
  • Cholesterol
  • Electrolytes

Bile is essential for fat digestion and absorption.

146
Q

What does painless jaundice in an older individual suggest?

A

Pancreatic cancer until proven otherwise

Painless jaundice is a classic sign of malignancy in the pancreas.

147
Q

What is the likely defect in a patient with elevated bilirubin and normal AST/ALT?

A

Multidrug resistance protein 2 (MRP2)

This defect leads to conjugated hyperbilirubinemia due to impaired transport.

148
Q

What is the appropriate management step for a markedly jaundiced 2-day-old neonate?

A

Consult a pediatric surgeon and a geneticist

Rapid diagnosis is crucial to rule out serious conditions like biliary atresia.

149
Q

What is the most likely explanation for jaundice in a patient with sickle cell anemia?

A

Biliary tract obstruction by pigment stones

Chronic hemolysis can lead to the formation of pigment stones that obstruct bile flow.

150
Q

What is the expected change in urine urobilinogen concentration during hemolysis?

A

Decreased urine urobilinogen concentration

Hemolysis leads to increased indirect bilirubin but decreased conversion to urobilinogen.

151
Q

What laboratory test is most appropriate to assess liver synthetic function?

A

Albumin

Albumin levels reflect the liver’s ability to synthesize proteins.

152
Q

What pattern of liver function tests would suggest a viral hepatitis infection?

A

Elevated AST/ALT with normal alkaline phosphatase

This pattern indicates hepatocellular injury rather than cholestasis.

153
Q

What is the most likely finding in a patient with hemochromatosis?

A

Decreased hepcidin

Low hepcidin levels lead to increased iron absorption and overload.

154
Q

What is the most appropriate next step for a breast-fed newborn with jaundice?

A

Continue breastfeeding

In most cases, breastfeeding should be continued unless there is a specific contraindication.

155
Q

What is a common finding in the urine of a patient with obstructive jaundice?

A

Dark yellow urine

This is due to the overflow of conjugated bilirubin into the urine.

156
Q

What does a 74% saturation of iron-binding protein with highly elevated ferritin levels indicate?

A

Iron overload

The most likely diagnosis is hemochromatosis.

157
Q

What is hemochromatosis characterized by?

A

Unregulated iron absorption due to low levels of hepcidin.

158
Q

What does low levels of hepcidin signal?

A

Increased ferroportin activity and increased iron uptake from the diet.

159
Q

What is the role of UDP-GT in the liver?

A

Conjugates bilirubin with two glucuronyl units in hepatocytes.

160
Q

What happens when iron concentrations become abnormally high in the liver?

A

The liver converts ferritin into hemosiderin.

161
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis for a young woman presenting with symptoms of acute infectious illness and clinical jaundice after entering a highly endemic area?

A

Hepatitis A.

162
Q

What does a 20-fold elevation of transaminases along with a bilirubin level of 10 suggest?

A

Marked hepatocellular damage and intrahepatic cholestasis.

163
Q

What does a bilirubin level not exceeding 2.0 indicate?

A

The patient does not exhibit clinical jaundice.

164
Q

What is a common clinical pattern for chronic inflammatory processes damaging hepatocytes?

A

Elevation of transaminases with other values within normal limits.

165
Q

What does low albumin suggest in a patient with liver disease?

A

Significant loss of hepatocytes to synthesize proteins.

166
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis if there is increased copper deposition in the cornea?

A

Wilson disease.

167
Q

What is the classic triad of symptoms for Wilson disease?

A

Liver disease, hemolytic anemia, and neurologic findings.

168
Q

What type of jaundice may develop in a healthy newborn after birth?

A

Physiologic, breastfeeding, and breast milk jaundice.

169
Q

What usually causes breastfeeding jaundice in newborns?

A

Difficulty in breastfeeding or delayed milk production leading to dehydration.

170
Q

What type of bilirubin is increased in obstructive jaundice due to a pancreatic tumor?

A

Direct (conjugated) bilirubin.

171
Q

What happens to unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin in obstructive jaundice?

A

There should be no change.

172
Q

What causes light-colored feces in obstructive jaundice?

A

Reduction in stercobilin due to obstruction of the biliary tract.

173
Q

What is the expected bilirubin level in a patient with Gilbert syndrome?

A

Normal bilirubin levels.

174
Q

What does an elevation of alkaline phosphatase indicate?

A

Inflammation/damage to the biliary ductal collecting system.