9/20/2013 Flashcards

1
Q

Diencephalon

A

Thalamus, Hypothalamus, Pineal Gland

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2
Q

Cerebral Aqueduct

A

Midbrain

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3
Q

4th Ventricle

A

Medulla, Pons

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4
Q

Forebrain

A

Diencephalon and Cerebral Hemispheres

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5
Q

Hindbrain

A

Brainstem and Cerebellum

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6
Q

Cervical

A

C1-C8 (Above cervical vertebrae)

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7
Q

Thoracic

A

T1-T12 (Below thoracic vertebrae)

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8
Q

Lumbar

A

L1-L5 (Below)

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9
Q

Sacral

A

S1-S5 (Below)

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10
Q

Coccygeal

A

Coccygeal C1 (Below)

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11
Q

Brainstem Functions

A

1) Cranial Nerve Nuclei
2) Passageway for tracts
3) Level of consciousness via forebrain projections of the reticular foramen

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12
Q

Cranial Nerve Entry & Exit

A

All on ventral surface, except trochlear (crosses and dorsal)

Olfactory & Optic – Entry Brain directly

Oculomoter – Between peduncles
Trochlear – Nucleus in caudal midbrain

Trigeminal – Largest; goes through mid-pons laterally via the middle cerebellar peduncle (primary nucleus is in the middle of pons; extends down to medulla where it is the spinal trigeminal nucleus; extends above primary nucleus to become mesencephalic nucleus in the midbrain)
Abducens, Facial, Vestibulocochlear – Medial to lateral at the junction of the pons and medulla

Glossopharyngeal & Vagus – Lateral Medulla
Spinal Accessory – Does not originate in the brainstem! Nucleus is technically in cervical spinal cord. Exits the lateral portion of the upper cervical spinal cord.
Hypoglossal – Between medullary pyramids and olive

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13
Q

Sensory vs. Motor Nuclei

A

Sensory neurons associated with ganglia (e.g. Trigeminal ganglia) – outside the CNS

Motor neurons associated with nuclei in brainstem

Generally, sensory nuclei found laterally and motor neurons are found more medially

Generally, caudal-rostral orientation of nuclei correlate with caudal-rostral functions of the nuclei

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14
Q

Temporal Lobe

A

Superior – Audition and language
Inferior – Visual processing

Recognizing stimuli

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15
Q

Insula

A

Visceral and autonomic function, including taste

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16
Q

Occipital Lobe

A

Vision

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17
Q

Frontal

A

Planning responses to stimuli

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18
Q

Parietal

A

Attending stimuli

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19
Q

Limbic

A

Emotion, Visceral motor

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20
Q

Septal or Basal Forebrain Nuclei

A

Base of the Forebrain, ventral to the basal ganglia
Modulate neural activity in cortex and hippocampus
Implicated in Alzheimer’s Disease – they degenerate

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21
Q

Anterior Commissure

A

Anterior, below lateral ventricles

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22
Q

Internal Capsule

A

Fibers descending and ascending to the cerebral cortex
Many axons arise or terminate in the thalamus
Some axons continue past the diencephalon to enter the cerebral peduncles of the midbrain (Corticobulbar and Corticospinal)

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23
Q

Blood supply of spinal cord

A
Vertebral arteries (branches of subclavian)
 Medullary arteries (branches of vertebral and aorta in the thoracic region)

Anterior – Anterior Spinal Artery
Posterior – Posterior Spinal Arteries

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24
Q

Blood supply of brainstem

A

Posterior cerebral artery  Midbrain

PICA  Medulla

AICA  Pons

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25
Q

Blood supply of brain

A

Anterior circulation (forebrain) – Anterior and Middle Cerebral Arteries

Posterior circulation (posterior cerebral cortex, thalamus, and the brainstem) – Posterior cerebral, basilar, and vertebral arteries

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26
Q

Blood supply of basal ganglia, internal capsule, and hippocampus

A

Lenticulostriate arteries and Anterior Choroidal arteries (branches of middle cerebral)

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27
Q

Ventricle Landmarks

A

Septum Pellucidum – separates the anterior horns of the lateral venricles
Lateral Surface – Basal Ganglia
Thalamus is the wall around 3rd Ventricle

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28
Q

UMN Injury Clinical Signs

A

o Immediate flaccidity of muscles on contralateral side (above crossing)
 Spinal shock – immediate decrease in spinal circuits because of lack of input from motor cortex and brainstem
o Acute manifestations tend to be most significant in arms and legs
o Trunk muscles usually preserved (brainstem pathways and bilateral projections of the anterior corticospinal tract that controls the midline)
o Several days after, the picture changes
 Positive Babinksi (extensor instead of flexor) and Hoffman
 Spasticity – increased muscle tone (resting muscle tension) because the efferent fibers are much more sensitive to stretch afferents, hyperactive reflexes (and clonus) due to loss of inhibition from UMNs; tested clinically by increased resistance to passive movement
• Much more severe stiffness when it follows damage to cortex/internal capsule than in spinal cord - if brainstem descending control is still intact, it exerts net excitatory effect (lesions above the spinal cord will leave brainstem paths intact)
 Decerebrate rigidity (extensor muscles of the leg and flexor muscles of the arm), slowness of movement
 Loss of ability for fine movements

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29
Q

LMN Injury Clinical Signs

A

o Flaccid paralysis/weakness to muscle depending on extent of injury
o Loss of muscle tone because of injury to alpha motor neurons (the reflex circuit is normally responsible for steady level of tension in muscles) and hyporeflexia
o Fasciculations (loss of innervation leads to muscles producing more Ach receptors, more spontaneous firing)
o Eventually, muscle atrophy (not receiving direct innervation)

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30
Q

Motor Nerve Dysfunction Clinical Signs

A

o Usually asymmetric
o Usually distal
o Atrophy, fasciculation, cramps
o Neuropathies have a single large action potential when fired (due to regeneration of nerve fibers that are not as diversified) – unlike smooth movement that is produced by many action ptoentials

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31
Q

Neuromuscular Junction Dysfunction Clinical Signs

A

o Usually fluctuating and fatigable

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32
Q

Muscle Dysfunction Clinical Signs

A

o Usually proximal
o Usually symmetric
o Usually painless
o Usually non-fluctuating
o Myopathies have smaller action potential when fired

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33
Q

C3, C4, C5

A

Diaphragm

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34
Q

C5

A

Deltoid

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35
Q

C6

A

Biceps

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36
Q

C7

A

Triceps

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37
Q

C8-T2

A

Fingers

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38
Q

L4

A

Quadriceps

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39
Q

L5

A

Foot dorsiflexion

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40
Q

S1

A

Plantar flexion

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41
Q

S2-5

A

Sphincter control

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42
Q

Radiculopathy

A

Injury to nerve roots - LMN

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43
Q

Meylopathy

A

Injury to spinal cord – UMN

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44
Q

Fibrillation vs. Fasciculation

A

Fib – Individual muscle fiber that spontaneously fires (up–regulation of Ach receptors); not visible

Fas – Muscle fiber group that visibly contracts (common in peripheral motor nerve injury) – may be due to re-innervation; may not always indicate a pathology

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45
Q

Hypokinesia terms

A

Akinesia – lack of purposeful movements
Bradykinesia – Slow movements

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46
Q

Rigidity terms

A

Clasp-knife – sudden loss of rigidity at the end of external flexion
Cogweel – catch and release
Lead pipe – increased tone throughout passive movement

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47
Q

Hemiballismus

A

Injury to STN (infarct, tumor, surgery) – loss of indirect pathway, loss of inhibition
Uncontrolled flinging movements
Treated with dopamine agonists

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48
Q

Parkinson’s

A

Triad – Tremor, Rigidity, Bradkykinesia
Braak’s Hypothesis: Pre-motor (loss of smell, sleep issues, constipation)  Motor  Dementia, Neuropsychiatric issues
Neurodegenerative disease of substantia nigra pars compacta
10% Genetic

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49
Q

Huntington’s

A

100% Genetic – Triplet (CAG) repeat for glutamine, longer the repeat, the earlier the onset, autosomal dominant (toxic gain of function)
Degeneration of caudate and putamen, selectively for indirect pathway (loss of inhibition)
Many neuropsychiatric issues, late stage akinesia (ablation of cortex, brain as a whole)

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50
Q

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

A

Presentation – Sudden headache “worst I’ve had in my life” – possibly due to irritating the Circle of Willis with nuchal rigidity

Lumbar puncture shows xanthochromia (yellow due to RBCs entering the CSF; when RBCs die, they release heme, which is degraded by enzymes into the yellow bilirubin)

Causes: Rupture of Berry aneurysm, AVM, and an anti-coagulated state

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51
Q

Berry Aneurysm

A

Most frequent cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage (85%)

Thin-walled out-pouching that lack a media (note intracranial arteries, in contracts to extra-cranial counterparts, have a smaller tunica media and lack external elastic lamina; this is particularly true at branch points where there is not a well-developed media layer), increasing its rupture risk

Most frequently located in the anterior circle of Willis at branch points of the communicating artery; posterior communicating might impinge on VIII

Associated with Marfan syndrome and autosomal dominant polycycstic kidney disease

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52
Q

Locked-in syndrome

A

Acute, bilateral paralysis: A patient is aware and awake but cannot move or communicate verbally due to complete paralysis of nearly all voluntary muscles in the body except for the eyes.

Causes:1) Stroke - Infarction of ventral pons, generally due to basilar artery embolism or thrombosis

2) Central pontine myelinolysis (demyelination disease that affects anterior of pons where the corticospinal tracts are) secondary to rapid IV correction of hyponatremia

Risk Factors: Alcoholics, Liver Disease

Pathogenesis: Lowered osmolytes in the brain cannot be as quickly replaced as the extracellular osmolarity increases, which leads to shrinkage of brain/loss of fluid from inside cells; the mechanism by which a rapid fall in brain volume results in demyelination is not completely understood. One possible mechanism is that osmotic shrinkage of endothelial cells opens the blood-brain barrier, allowing the entry of complement and other cytotoxic plasma components. Another proposed mechanism is that, during recovery from hyponatremia, the loss of cell water coupled with the movement of potassium and sodium back into the cells leads to an initial increase in cell cation concentration that occurs before the repletion of organic osmolytes. These combined changes may directly injure and induce apoptosis of astrocytes, leading to a disruption in the function of myelin-producing oligodendrocytes, release of inflammatory cytokines, and activation of microglia.

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53
Q

Osmolytes and cerebral adaptation to hyponatremia

A

The degree of cerebral edema and therefore the severity of neurologic symptoms are much less with chronic hyponatremia . This protective response, which begins on the first day and is complete within several days, occurs in two major steps.

1) The initial cerebral edema raises the interstitial hydraulic pressure, creating a gradient for extracellular fluid movement out of the brain into the cerebrospinal fluid
2) The brain cells then lose solutes, leading to the osmotic movement of water out of the cells and a decrease in brain swelling. Substantial depletion of brain organic osmolytes occurs within 24 hours, and additional losses occur over two to three days owing to downregulation of the synthesis and uptake of these solutes

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54
Q

Thrombotic Stroke, CNS

A

Due to rupture of atherosclerotic plaque

Usually develops at branch points (e.g. bifurcation of internal carotid and middle cerebral artery)

Results in pale infarct at the periphery of the cortex

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55
Q

Embolic Stroke, CNS

A

Due to thromboemboli, most commonly from the left side of the heart (e.g. secondary to atrial fibrillation)

Usually involves middle cerebral artery

Results in hemorrhagic infarct at the periphery of cortex

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56
Q

Lacunar stroke, CNS

A

Secondary to hyaline arteriolosclerosis (thickening of arteriole, mostly in kidney, with hyaline), which is a complication of hypertension/diabetes

Most common in lenticulostriate (caudate, putamen, globus pallidus) vessels, which are a branch of middle cerebral, which results in small “cystic” areas of infarction

Thalamic involvement causes sensory stroke
Internal capsule involvement causes motor stroke

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57
Q

Brain abscesses

A

Accumulation of pus – dead neutrophils – appear as ring-enhancing lesions on CT scan

60% are related to middle-ear infections

Cerebellar abscess is specifically associated with otitis media (think about anatomical location)

Middle-ear infection and sinusitis can cause frontal and temporal lobe abscesses

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58
Q

Anencephaly

A

Complete failure of higher brain structures to develop; accompanied by grossly deformed head with no cranial vault

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59
Q

Encephalocele

A

Protrusion of brain and meninges through a developmental defect in the skull

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60
Q

Hydranencephaly

A

Extreme form of porencephaly in which the cerebral hemispheres are destroyed; unlike anencephaly, the external head forms normally

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61
Q

Porencephaly

A

Cyst or cavity in brain that communicates with ventricles – may occur developmentally, or secondary to inflammatory disease or a vascular accident

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62
Q

Anterior vermis syndrome

A

Atrophy of rostral vermis most commonly caused by alcohol abuse → gait, trunk and leg dystaxia

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63
Q

Posterior vermis syndrome

A

Usually result of brain tumors in children (most commonly caused by medulloblastomas or ependymomas), involves flocculonodular lobe → truncal dystaxia

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64
Q

Cerebellum Hemispheric syndrome

A

Involves one hemisphere, often result of brain tumor (astrocytoma) or abscess (secondary to otitis media or mastoiditis) → arm, leg and gait dystaxia and ipsilateral cerebellar signs

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65
Q

Trisomy 13, Patau Syndrome

A

Affected infants usually die before 1 year of age, usually secondary to multiple congenital anomalies, particularly severe congenital heart defects; other features include holoprosencephaly (forebrain fails to develop into two hemispheres, causing defects in face development), micropthalmia (small eye), microcephaly, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, congenital heart disease, severe mental retardation

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66
Q

Benign essential tremor

A

Familial, progressive, bilateral, symmetric postural tremor of the upper extremities that is not typically associated with other neurologic symptoms; generally increases with increasing age and is more prevalent in patients with a positive family history; primarily affects the arms in 6-12 Hz frequency; head (titubation) may also be involved

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67
Q

Syringomyelia

A

Cystic degeneration of spinal cord due to an occlusion in the central canal right above the anterior commisure. A syrinx results when a watery, protective substance known as cerebrospinal fluid, that normally flows around the spinal cord and brain, transporting nutrients and waste products, collects in a small area of the spinal cord and forms a pseudocyst (e.g. obstruction in CSF flow caused by Chiari can be redirected to cyst?)

Arises with trauma or in association with an Arnold-Chiari malformation

Usually occurs at C8-T1 (cervical region)

Expansion of cyst (“synrix”) over time leads to involvement of other spinal tracts, leading to muscle atrophy and weakness with decreased muscle tone and impaired reflexes – damage to LMNs. It can also lead to Horner syndrome due to disruption of the lateral horn of the hypo-thalamospinal tract (sympathetic input for face; arises from hypothalamus and synapses on the lateral horn at T1  superior cervical ganglion  eyelids, pupil, skin of face)

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68
Q

Horner Syndrome

A

Droopy eyelid, miosis, and anhidrosis (decreased sweating) – lack of decreased sympathetic innervation of eye

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69
Q

Tabes dorsalis

A

Syphilitic myelopathy – slow degeneration (de-myelination) of nerves in the dorsal columns of the spinal cords (proprioception, sensation, vibration)

Tertiary Syphilis (decades later of untreated syphilis)

Argyll-Robertson pupils: Accommodates, but doesn’t react (constrict) to light

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70
Q

Clinical Nerve Conduction Study

A

The stimulation electrode depolarizes all of the axons in the nerve, causing them to simultaneously fire action potentials. The signal obtained at the recording electrode represents a summation of the action potentials of the individual nerve fibers. It is examined for velocity, amplitude and for the shape of the waveform.

Used to detect demyelination, which is shown by:

1) decreased conduction velocity (demyelinated nerves will not be able to pass along the action potential effectively because of decreased resistance and increased capacitance forces – back to current model)
2) decreased signal amplitude (determined by the # of axons firing, so decrease indicates axonal loss or complete conduction block for some of the fibers)
3) Abnormal waveform (due to combo of myelinated and demyelinated fibers)

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71
Q

Peptide vs. Small Molecule Neurotransmitter

A

Peptide – synthesized in cell body; larger (3-36 amino acids)
Small molecule – synthesized in nerve terminal (enzymes synthesized in cell body); individual amino acids

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72
Q

Organophosphates

A

Inhibit ACheE; initially an over-stimulation, then paralysis (completely depolarized and cannot be responsive to further innervation)

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73
Q

Nicotinic ACh Receptor

A
  • Ionotropic cation channel
  • Need to bind two molecules of Ach (thus, high concentrations needed to activate)
  • Nicotonic receptors activated by “nicotine” and other toxins (e.g. snake toxin); found in the NMJ and pre-ganglionic synapses
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74
Q

Muscarinic Ach Receptor

A
  • Metabotropic, mediate most things in the brain, all glands and parasympathetic effector organs
  • Muscarinic receptors are activated by muscarine, a poisonous alkaloid in mushrooms
  • Remember – atropine is a muscarinic receptor antagonist!
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75
Q

Glutamate Toxicity

A

Follows acute brain injury – neurons in ischemic areas exhibit increased glutamate, which contributes to toxic levels for the cell (mechanism unknown – glutamate receptors literally “excite” neurons to death)

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76
Q

Glutamate

A
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77
Q

Acetylcholine

A
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78
Q

Glial Cells

A
  • Outnumber neurons
  • Astrocytes – maintain appropriate environment for neural signaling
  • Oligodendrocytes – myelin
  • Microglial – macrophages
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79
Q

Ionotropic Glutamate Receptors

A

AMPA and NMDA are the big ones; non-selective cation influx

Note NMDA:
• Mg-block relieved by depolarization (e.g. repetitive firing leads to summation and massive depolarization, role in plasticity)
• Requires glycine as co-transmitter
• Allows calcium inside the cell, which can serve as a second messenger
• Slower-acting than AMPA

Most cells have NMDA and AMPA receptors

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80
Q

Metabotropic Glutamate Receptors

A
  • Second messenger responses can either be excitatory or inhibitory
  • Varied roles and responses to pharmacological agents
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81
Q

GABA

A
  • Inhibitory (except for developing brains when the concentration of chlorine is higher inside)
  • Most commonly found in local circuits (also as a projection cell in Purkinje cells of cerebellum)
  • Date Rape drug causes symptoms due to the byproduct of GABA degradation
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82
Q

GABA-A, GABA-C

A
  • Ionotropic
  • Influx of chlorine
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83
Q

GABA-B

A
  • Metabotropic
  • Activates K+ channels
  • Blocking Ca2+ channels
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84
Q

Alcohol-mediated alterations in GABA Receptors

A

Ethanol potentiates GABA-receptor actions (treat withdrawal with benzodiazepines); Initially alcohol potentiates GABA receptors, but chronic use causes a down-regulation of GABA receptors and reduced neurotransmission - these changes are responsible for alcohol withdrawal symptoms (increased excitability) and increased reduced tolerance to alcohol

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85
Q

Glycine

A
  • Inhibitory, very similar to GABA-A (influx of chlorine)
  • Half of inhibitory synapses in spinal cord use glycine
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86
Q

Catecholamine

A
  • Dopamine, Norepinephrine, and epinephrine
  • All derived from tyrosine
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87
Q

Dopamine

A
  • Substantia Nigra & Ventral Tegmental Area
  • Actions: Motor, Milk, Mind, eMesis Motivation
  • Cocaine inhibits DAT
  • Amphetamines are a stimulus-independent release of dopamine by reversing DAT pump
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88
Q

Norepinephrine

A
  • Locus Ceruleus
  • Sleep and wakefulness, attention, and feeding behavior
  • Note that DBH catalyzes the production of NE from dopamine
  • Mutation in NET causes orthostatic intolerance (less BP)
  • Epi is found in brain at lower concentrations than NE, function not known (need PNMT enzyme)
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89
Q

Histamine

A
  • Tuberomammillary nucleus of hypothalamus
  • Arousal and attention (anti-histamines make you sleepy) and vestibular function (antagonists of H1 receptor are used for motion sickness; note that H2 receptors are involved in secretion of gastric acid)
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90
Q

Serotonin

A
  • Raphe nuclei (pons and upper brainstem)
  • Regulate sleep and wakefulness, affect, appetite, aggression, thermoregulation
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91
Q

Ascending Arousal System (Major NTs, pathways)

A

The level of consciousness or arousability is controlled by an ascending
system of connections from the brainstem; two main groups:

1) Cholinergic neurons are active during wakefulness and REM sleep. In the pons, the laterodorsal and pedunculopontine tegmental nuclei (LDT/PPT) project to subcortical targets such as the thalamus. These probably play a role in cortical activation and help produce REM sleep.
2) Neurons of the basal forebrain (nucleus basalis of Meynert, diagonal band of Broca, etc.) use Ach, glutamate and GABA to directly activate cortical and subcortical targets, promoting EEG activation and learning.
3) Monoaminergic neurons are active during wakefulness, slow-down in NREM, and are silent in REM sleep. These project directly to cortex and most subcortical regions.

4) Norepinephrine (NE) – mainly from locus coeruleus (LC); helps promote
vigilance and attention

2) Serotonin (5HT) – mainly from raphe nuclei; influences mood
3) 3) Histamine (HIST) – only from tuberomammillary nucleus (TMN); promotes arousal
4) Dopamine (DA) – promotes movement and motivation, but source of wake-promoting DA unclear, possibly ventral periaqueductal grey or ventral tegmental area.

5) The reticular system is a heterogeneous population of midline neurons that extend from the caudal medulla to the midbrain. Mainly, it is an older term that encompasses the wake-promoting systems listed above, but there may be other wake-promoting neurons within this system that have not yet been discovered. Stimulation produces awakening, and lesions produce coma or hyper-somnolence.
Peptidergic neurons containing orexin (also known as hypocretin) in the lateral hypothalamus send excitatory projections to all these arousal systems. The orexin system probably helps stabilize wakefulness through activation of all the other arousal regions. People lacking orexin have narcolepsy. Orexin antagonists are being developed as a new treatment for insomnia.

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92
Q

How does orexin stabilize the awake/sleep cycle?

A
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93
Q

Coma

A

Coma - occurs with lesions of this ascending arousal system or with diffuse, bihemispheric dysfunction

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94
Q

REM

A
  • unconscious but cortex active, dreaming, paralysis of all muscles except respiratory and oculomotor, saccadic eye movements (activity of PPRF), penile/clitoral tumescence, possibly memory consolidation function, increased pulse, increased blood pressure,
  • 25% of sleep cycle; occurs every 90 minutes, duration increases during the night
  • Same EEG patterns as wakefulness (fast, low amplitude)
  • Ach is the principal neurotransmitter; NE/Serotonin reduces REM sleep
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95
Q

Mechanism of REM Sleep

A

Note that ACh major neurotransmitter during REM sleep; aminergic input (e.g. NE, serotonin) will decrease REM sleep

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96
Q

Non-REM

A
  • unconscious with little cortical activity
  • increased parasympathetic activity
  • sleep-walking, night-terrors, bedwetting most common during REM stage 3
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97
Q

Mechanism of Non-REM Sleep

A

Ventrolateral preoptic area (VLPO) neurons are active during sleep,
and VLPO lesions produce fragmented light sleep. VLPO neurons send inhibitory, GABAergic projections to the TMN and other arousal regions such as the LC and DR. These VLPO neurons are especially active during slow wave sleep and some also continue to fire in REM. VLPO neurons may be activated by sleep-producing chemicals (somnogens) such as adenosine (the effects of which are blocked by caffeine), inflammatory molecules (PGE, etc.)

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98
Q

EEG

A

The EEG is a measure of the summed electrical activity between 2 scalp
electrodes. This activity results from extracellular current flows generated by synaptic potentials (EPSP’s and IPSP’s) in cortical pyramidal cells. During wakefulness, the EEG has a low amplitude and consists predominantly of fast waves. This is due to a lack of synchronized activity across the cortex. High amplitude waves characteristic of deep sleep are due to the synchronized activity of millions of cells. This synchronization
arises from the interaction of neurons in the reticular nucleus of the thalamus, thalamocortical relay neurons, and cortical neurons.

Frequency of EEG waves parallels wake/sleep state and arousability (“BATS”):

Awake (eyes open) – Beta (highest frequency)
Awake (eyes closed) – Alpha
Stage 1 (Light Sleep) – Theta
Stage 2 (Deeper Sleep, Grinding of Jaw) – Sleep spindles* and K complexes**
Stag 3 - (Deepest non-REM sleep) – Delta (lowest frequency, highest amplitude)
REM - Beta

*During sleep these spindles are seen in the brain as a burst of activity immediately following muscle twitching. Researchers think the brain, particularly in the young, is learning about what nerves control what specific muscles when asleep. Sleep spindle activity has furthermore been found to be associated with the integration of new information into existing knowledge.

**K-complexes have two proposed functions: first, suppressing cortical arousal in response to stimuli that the sleeping brain evaluates not to signal danger, and second, aiding sleep-based memory consolidation.

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99
Q

Developmental Changes in Sleep Cycle

A

Total sleep time is highest in children and then plateaus during young adulthood. REM sleep is the predominant sleep state during infancy, gradually decreasing during childhood and then essentially stable throughout adulthood. Slow wave sleep declines with age. This decline in deep sleep probably accounts for why many people wake from sleep more frequently as they age, but people still require the same total amount of sleep through adulthood.

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100
Q

Two determinants of sleep

A

1) Homeostatic control: Prolonged wakefulness will produce longer, deeper sleep with more stage 3 NREM sleep. This is often referred to as the homeostatic component of sleep, the presumption being that sleep mechanisms are trying to restore the brain to some equilibrium.
2) Circadian clock: Sleepiness is dependent on the time of day. If you stay up all night, you feel pretty sleepy around 3 am, but by 10 am that sleepiness is not as intense even though you have been awake longer. This is referred to as the circadian component of sleep. Daily 24 hour rhythms known as circadian rhythms have a strong influence on sleep, wakefulness, body temperature, growth hormone, cortisol, and nearly every biologic parameter. These rhythms are mediated by the suprachiasmatic nuclei, small clusters of neurons just above the optic chiasm. SCN neurons act as a pacemaker with a 24 hour cycle of activity. These neurons receive a direct input from retinal ganglion cells containing the novel photopigment melanopsin (even if you lack cones and rods you can still regulate clock). This luminance signal entrains the pacemaker, synchronizing behavior to the external light-dark cycle

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101
Q

Functions of sleep

A
  1. Ecological – safer to be asleep than out in the environment
  2. Energy conservation – sleep burns fewer calories
  3. Memory – many memories are consolidated during sleep, improving
    performance
  4. Cellular restoration – Neurons may require periods of reduced activity
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102
Q

NTs that are on or off in Wake, Non-REM, REM

A

ACh is dominant in REM, Aminergic dominant in non-REM

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103
Q

Insomnia

A

A. About 15% of the population has long-term problems initiating or maintaining sleep. Short term insomnia occurs in ~30% of people.
B. Chronic insomnia is often associated with depression or anxiety, maladaptive behavior (psychophysiological), medications, EtOH and other drugs.

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104
Q

Circadian Rhythm Disorders

A

A. Circadian phase delay (staying up late and then sleeping late in AM) is very common in teens and young adults.
B. Treated with consistent sleep routine, bright light in AM, sometimes melatonin at night.

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105
Q

Parasomnias

A

A. NREM sleep: sleepwalking, confusional arousals, and night terrors
B. REM sleep: REM sleep behavioral disorder (failure of paralysis during dreams), strongly associated with Parkinson’s Disease and similar disorders.

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106
Q

Sleep apnea

A

Obstructive sleep apnea: upper airway occlusion during sleep due to obesity, small airway, allergies, etc. Treatment: CPAP, surgery, dental device, weight loss.

From FirstAid:
• Repeated cessation of breathing > 10 seconds during sleep, which causes disruption and daytime sleepiness
• Note that increased hypoxia will leap to more EPO, higher hematocrit
• Central – no respiratory effort (medulla isn’t sensing CO2) – headache early morning (would they wake up?)
• Obstructive – respiratory effort against airway obstruction, associated with obesity, loud snoring, systemic/pulmonary hypertension, arrhythmias, and possibly sudden death

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107
Q

Distinctive Features of Visceral Motor System

A

1) No medial-lateral anatomical organization like somatic motor
2) LMNs are located OUTSIDE of the CNS in paravertebral or prevertebral ganglia
3) Diffuse contacts between the visceral motor neurons and viscera (axons are highly branched and contain varicosities
4) Whereas motor is controlled by the motor cortical areas in the posterior frontal lobe, much more diffuse control “central autonomic network”
5) Diverse NTs

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108
Q

Edinger-Westphal Nucleus

A

Pre-ganglionic nucleus in midbrain that synapses on the ciliary ganglion via the oculomotor nerve to mediate the parasympathetic constriction in response to light

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109
Q

Mesencephalic Nucleus

A
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110
Q

Superior and Inferior Salivary Nuclei

A

Pre-ganglionic nuclei in the pons and medulla that mediate the parasympathetic production of tears/salivary glands via VII and IX

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111
Q

Nucleus Ambiguus

A

Medulla pre-ganglionic nucleus – motor innervation of the pharynx, larynx, and upper esophagus via X and IX

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112
Q

Dorsal Motor Nucleus

A

Medulla pre-ganglionic nucleus of X – sends autonomic fibers to the heart, lungs, and upper GI

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113
Q

Anatomical difference between sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers

A

Sympathetic ganglion have more dendrites and more fibers converge onto it than parasympathetic ganglia

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114
Q

Organs that only receive sympathetic innervation

A

Sweat glands, adrenal medulla, piloerector muscles, most arterial blood vessels

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115
Q

Myenteric Plexus

A

Also known as Aeurbach’s Plexus – intrinsic to gut
Between the two muscle layers
Regulates the musculature of the gut

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116
Q

Submucus Plexus

A

Also known as Meissner’s Plexus
Located in submucosa, concerned with glandular secretion and chemical monitoring

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117
Q

What are the two important functions of afferent activity arising from viscera?

A

1) Provides feedback input to local reflexes that modulate moment-to-moment visceral activity within individual organs
2) Informs higher integrative centers of more complex patterns of stimulation that may signal threatening conditions or require coordination of other things

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118
Q

Nucleus of Solitary Tract

A

Central structure in the brainstem (medulla) that receives visceral sensory information (includes chemoreceptor and baroreceptor) and distributes it accordingly

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119
Q

What is responsible for poor localization of visceral pain and referred pain?

A

1) Far fewer visceral sensory neurons than somatic
2) In the dorsal horn, many of the second-order neurons that receive visceral sensory input (goes through DRG) are part of the anterolateral system, which also receives nociceptive input from more superficial surfaces – pain from viscera can be “referred” to these areas

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120
Q

Reticular Formation

A

Outdated term; refers to the heterogeneous collection of distinct neuronal clusters in the brainstem tegmentum that modulate the excitability of neurons in the forebrain and spinal cord or coordinate the firing patterns of more local lower motor neuronal pools engaged in reflexive or stereotypical somatic motor and visceral motor behavior (e.g. PPRF)

Broadly speaking, modulatory functions are found in the rostral sector and premotor functions are localized in more caudal regions

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121
Q

What is the target of sensory input from visceral systems?

A

Nucleus of solitary tract
Visceral motor centers in the medullary reticular formation
Sensory fibers related to viscera convey limited amount of information to consciousness (except pain)

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122
Q

Where do afferent visceral fibers arise?

A

Cell bodies in the DRG (spinal visceral sensory neurons) and sensory ganglia associated with IX and X (i.e. general visceral sensory information from organs and viscera in the thorax, upper abdomen, head and neck; in the abdomen, visceral afferents generally follow pathway of sympathetic nerves)

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123
Q

Visceral Reflex Arc

A

Some afferent fibers via DRG synapse in the lateral horn where the visceral motor neurons are located

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124
Q

Dorsal Column Pain Pathway

A

Some pain fibers, especially visceral pain fibers, ascend in the dorsal column and terminate in the dorsal column nuclei and eventually are relayed to thalamus

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125
Q

Premotor cortices

A

Responsible for planning and selecting movements, esp. movements that are triggered by sensory cues or internal motivations (the primary motor cortex on the other hand is more involved with the direct execution of skilled movements of the limb and facial muscles)

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126
Q

Hypothalamus Input and Output

A

Sensory inputs (visceral and somatic, chemosensory, and humoral) + Contextual information (cerebral cortex, amygdala, hippocampal formation)

Compares input to biological set-point; Output to visceral motor (autonomic premotor centers in brainstem and pre-ganglionic neurons in brainstem and spinal cords), somatic motor, neuroendocrine, behavioral responses

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127
Q

Horner’s Syndrome

A

Ptosis, Miosis, Sunken Eye, Decreased sweating (if the descending pathway is affected)

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128
Q

Relative Speed of Ganglionic Synapses

A

Nicotonic/Pre-ganglionic: Fast (ion channel)
Muscarinic/Adrenergic/Post-ganglionic: Slower (G-proteins)

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129
Q

What integrates ascending sensory information and cortical input for voiding?

A

Periaqueductal Grey – when socially acceptable, there is increased parasympathetic outflow (S2, S3, S4) and disinhibition of the skeletal muscle of the sphincter (S2, S3, S4)

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130
Q

What would happen to urine control without descending control of the sacral spinal cord?

A

Incomplete bladder emptying – no dishinibition of the motor neurons and/or not enough increased para-sympathetic activity; this leads to chronic UTIs in paraplegic patients

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131
Q

What causes clitoral/penile erection?

A

NO released by parasympathetics causes filling of the cavernous venous sinuses (also glandular secretions); afferent stimulation conveyed centrally through somatic sensory endings, which causes increased parasympathetic response and somatic excitation in certain muscles, which causes orgasm

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132
Q

Supraoptic and Paraventricular Nuclei

A

Hypothalamus

Supraoptic Area

Synthesizes ADH, oxytocin, CRH (Corticotropin-releasing hormone)

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133
Q

Anterior Nucleus

A

Hypothalamus

Supraoptic Area

Temperature regulation (heat dissipation); lesion leads to hyperthermia (body produces more heat than it is able to dissipate)

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134
Q

Preoptic Area

A

Hypothalamus

Releases gonadotropic hormones. Sexual dimorphic nucleus, which has a role in sexual behavior, mating, and partner preference.

Lesion leads to arrested sexual development, impotence, amenorrhea.

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135
Q

Suprachiasmatic Nucleus

A

Pre-Optic

Regulates circadian rhythms (e.g. cyclic release of CRH, melatonin from pineal gland). Input from retina (melanopsin), output to pineal gland.

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136
Q

Dorsomedial Nucleus

A

Hypothalamus, Tuberal Region.

Almost all major pathways feed into this nucleus; also regulates autonomic function(s); stimulation can lead to obesity

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137
Q

Posterior Nucleus

A

Hypothalamus

Posterior

Temperature regulation (heat conservation). Lesion leads to poikilothermia (poor thermoregulation). Stimulates the sympathetic nervous system.

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138
Q

Lateral Nucleus

A

Hypothalamus

Posterior

Feeding center. Stimulation leads to increased eating (lateral nucleus causes you to grow laterally). Lesion leads to starvation.

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139
Q

Mamillary Body

A

Hypothalamus

Posterior

Damaged in Wernicke Encephalopathy/Korsakoff psychosis (confabulation, amnesia, ataxia). The circuit is from hypothalamus to fornix to mammillary body.

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140
Q

Ventromedial Nucleus

A

Hypothalamus

Tuberal Region

Satiety Center. Stimulation leads to decreased eating (ventromedial nucleus causes you to shrink medially). Lesion leads to obesity, hyperphagia, “savage” behavior

141
Q

Arcuate Nucleus

A

Hypothalamus

Tuberal Region

Produces hypothalamic releasing and inhibiting factors that act on the anterior pituitary. Inhibits prolactin release via dopamine (aka prolactin-inhibiting factor).

142
Q

Balint’s Syndrome

A

Visuospatial Deficit – medial/lateral parietal lobe lesion (“what” and global impressions)
• Simultanagnosia (inability to perceive parts of a complex visual scene as a whole)
• Deficits in visually guided reaching (optic ataxia)
• Difficulty in voluntary scanning of visual scenes (ocular apraxia)

Notably, the ataxia and apraxia disappear when guided by non-visual cues, which suggests that the parietal cortex is involved in spatial construction of images that guide both attention and movement.

143
Q

Right Temporal Lobe Lesions

A
  • Prosopagnosia (difficulty recognizing faces); can be for all familiar objects, too – depends on location of lesion
  • Fusiform gyrus
  • Can recognize using other cues (gait, voices, body shape, etc.)
  • It is likely that there is no single “grandmother” cell, but rather, that there are populations of cells that code for a specific face depending on orientation, etc. “recognition neurons”
144
Q

Left Temporal Lobe Lesions

A
  • Difficulties with language-related material (Wernicke’s area)
  • Lateral surface of the cortex
145
Q

Lesions to Frontal Lobe

A

• Usually symptomatic bilaterally
• Impaired restraint
• Disordered thought
• Perseveration
• Inability to plan appropriate action
• Working memory impaired (pre-frontal cortex); delay-associated neurons
Frontal lobe is involved in the selection, planning, and execution of socially acceptable behavior

146
Q

Cognition

A

• Ability to attend to, identify, and act meaningfully in response to stimuli

147
Q

Broca’s Area Lesion

A
  • Ability to produce language with appropriate grammar efficiently is disrupted, even though individual knows what they want to say
  • Motor or Expressive Aphasia
  • Halting Speech
  • Tendency to repeat phrases or words
  • Disordered syntax
  • Disordered grammar
  • Disordered structure of individual words, substitution
  • COMPREHENSION INTACT
  • REPETITION (is possible of single words perhaps), but difficult
148
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia

A
  • Difficulty understanding spoken language and producing meaningful content
  • Sensory or Receptive Aphasia
  • Most also have difficulty reading and writing, though nearby areas are responsible for this
  • Receptive aphasia usually have great difficulty understanding the speech of both themselves and others and are therefore often unaware of their mistakes
  • Fluent, incomprehensible speech
  • Good grammar
  • Made-up words
  • COMPREHENSION not intact
  • REPETITION is poor
149
Q

Where is Wernicke’s area?

A

• Posterior part of superior temporal gyrus; that is why Wernick’es aphasia may also be associated with a contralateral upper quadrant field cut (temporal lobes)

150
Q

Where is Broca’s area?

A

• Inferior frontal gyrus; part of pre-motor cortex

151
Q

Conduction Aphasia

A
  • Lesion to pathway connecting B&W
  • Arcuate Fasciculus
  • Inability to repeat spoken command (Auditory to W to B to Motor)
  • COMPREHENSION INTACT
  • Spontaneous speech is also intact – with some syllabic insertions here and there
  • REPETITION is impossible
152
Q

Global Aphasia

A
  • Broca’s and Wernicke’s is affected
  • No motor, no repetition, no comprehension
153
Q

Aprosodias

A
  • Deficiency in ability to produce tone
  • Right side in regions that correspond to Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas
154
Q

Dysarthria

A

• Inability to move muscles of the face

155
Q

Agnosia

A
  • Can be visual, auditory, or tactile
  • Lesion in unimodal association area
  • Associated with inability to process what (e.g. right temporal lesion causes prosopagnosia)
156
Q

Pure Word Deafness

A
  • Can produce language, but don’t know what they just said (like conduction agnosia?)
  • Auditory separated from language center (unimodal auditory association lesion)
157
Q

Gerstmann’s syndrome

A

Arises from lesions in the left angular gyrus (junction of parietal and temporal lobes)
– Agraphia
– Acalculia
– Finger agnosia
– Right-left disorientation

158
Q

What is the most frequent cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage in young males?

A

AVM malformation

159
Q

Micro-Aneurysm; Charcot-Bouchard

A
  • Intraparaenchymal hemorrhage
  • Smaller vessels than Berry Aneurysm; affected that run into the deep tissues of the brain (basal ganglia is the most common site)
  • Often due to hypertension (secondary to hyaline ateriosclerosis - recall it can also cause ischemic cystic infarcts)
160
Q

Ischemic Stroke

A
  • Thrombus
  • Embolism
  • Hypo-perfusion
161
Q

Hemorrhagic Stroke

A

• Mechanical damage to the neurons

162
Q

Is subdural chronic or acute?

A

• Chronic presentation

163
Q

What is a penumbra?

A
  • Core zone – immediately deprived of oxygen
  • Peripheral zone – Ischemic penumbra (reversible – residual perfusion from collateral blood vessels)
164
Q

Causes of Cell Death in Stroke

A
  • Oxidative Stress: ROS (breakdown of mitochondria); ischemic reperfusion
  • Apoptotic Pathways: Release of cytochrome C and then release of mitochondria; want to give BCL2 or caspases inhibitors
  • Glutamate Toxicity (all NT released causes influx of calcium, which will trigger enzymatic activity and degrade cells even more); invest in NMDA antagonist
165
Q

Third Nerve Palsy

A
  • Down (IV) and Out (VI)
  • Droopy (Levator Palpebrae)
  • Pupil Involvement suggests tumor (impinging on PS fibers)
  • Diabetic neuropathy can implicate vessels in nerve and not affect pupil
166
Q

Fourth Nerve Palsy

A
  • Hypertropic (elevated slightly)
  • Head tilt away from the lesion (normally intorts, so extorting)
  • Fourth nerve has a very long path, tumor can be involved
  • Loops up when medial
  • Double vision when reading a book
167
Q

Sixth Nerve Palsy

A
  • Diabetes, Hypertension
  • Intercranial pressure (90 degree exit off pons into the brain)
  • Can’t look laterally in the eye that is affected, but medial horizontal movement in other eye is not impaired
  • Bilateral: Can’t look lateral in either direction
168
Q

MLF Lesion

A
  • Unilateral: can’t look medially in the contralateral side of the lesion (e.g. right MLF that connected right VI to left III; left side won’t move medial, but right eye will still look lateral
  • Bilateral: Can’t look medial in either direction
169
Q

What are the characteristics of a cerebellar tremor?

A
  • Slow, broad tremor of the extremities that occurs at the end of a purposeful movement (no constant frequency)
  • “Intention Tremor”
170
Q

What happens in an orthostatic tremor?

A

• Rhythmic muscle contractions in lower limbs when standing, no known pathology

171
Q

What other types of tremors may be associated with a cerebellar tremor?

A

• Cerebellar tremor may be accompanied by other manifestations of ataxia, including dysarthria (speech problems), nystagmus (rapid, involuntary rolling of the eyes), gait problems and postural tremor of the trunk and neck. Titubation is tremor of the head and is of cerebellar origin

172
Q

Akathisia

A

• Motor restlessness (inability to sit still)

173
Q

Athetosis

A

• Slow, writing movements which may resemble dystonia

174
Q

Ballism

A

• Proximal, large amplitude chorea (“hemiballism” is usually unilateral)

175
Q

Chorea

A
  • Non-rhythmic, unpredictable movements
  • Involuntary, randomly flowing jerks that are often incorporated into voluntary movement
176
Q

Dystonia

A

• Abnormal posture, the result of co-contraction of agonist and antagonist muscles; contractions may also result in twisting or repetitive movements

177
Q

Myoclonus

A
  • Shock-like movements due either to muscle contraction (positive myoclonus) or abrupt loss of muscle tone (negative myoclonus)
  • Not the same as clonus, which is induced by a reflex
178
Q

Stereotypy

A

• Purposeless repetition of motor set

179
Q

Tic

A

• Patterned simple or complex movements, spasm, urge to tic, relief afterward

180
Q

What is the posture of individuals with motor lesions above the red nucleus?

A
  • Decorticate posturing (flexors in upper extremity, extensors in lower extremity
  • Dis-inhibition of ruprospinal tract (increased flexion in upper extremities)
  • Inhibition of lateral corticospinal tract (increased extension in lower limbs)
181
Q

Guillain-Barre (GBS) Presenting Symptoms

A
  • Inflammatory Polyneuropathy
  • Rapidly evolving limb weakness
  • Symmetric hyporeflexia
  • Normal sensation (sensory symptoms like pain, numbness, and parasthesias can occur, but the motor symptoms predominate)
  • Symptoms typically ascend
  • Frequently follows viral infection
  • May evolve into complete paralysis with respiratory failure
182
Q

Guillain-Barre (GBS) Pathology

A
  • Autoimmune disease (mimicry mechanism)
  • Chronic inflammatory infiltrate
  • Demyelination of peripheral nerves
183
Q

What is the posture of individuals with motor lesions below the red nucleus?

A

• Decerebrate posturing (rigid extension of body all over)

184
Q

Mild Brain Injury

A
  • Transient – confusion, disorientation, etc. for less than 30 minutes or so
  • Can’t see on imaging
  • Leads to chronic traumatic encephalopathy
  • Severe to Moderate develop Alzheimer’s-like
185
Q

What structure is really sensitive to anoxia in the brain?

A
  • Hippocampus
  • Damage makes it difficult to form new memories (anterograde amnesia)
186
Q

Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy

A
187
Q

Alpha-1
• Vascular smooth muscle (skin, renal, and splanchnic)
• GI tract, sphincters
• Bladder, sphincter
• Radial muscle, iris

A

Gq-receptor (increase in IP3 and intracellular Ca); causes contraction

188
Q

Alpha-2 (less common than Alpha-1)
• GI tract, wall
• Presynaptic adrenergic neurons*

A

Gi-receptor (inhibit adenylyl cyclase, decrease in cAMP)

189
Q

Beta-1
Involved in metabolic functions:
• Heart
• Salivary glands
• Adipose tissue (lipolysis)
• Kidney (renin release)

A

Gs-receptor (activate adenylyl cyclase, increase in cAMP)

190
Q

Beta-2
• Vascular smooth muscle of skeletal muscle
• GI tract, wall
• Bladder, wall
• Bronchioles
• Uterus
• Pancreas (inhibits insulin secretion)
• Salivary galnds (thickened secretions)
• Skeletal muscle (glycogenolysis, lactate release)
• Liver (glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis)

A

Gs-receptor (activate adenylyl cyclase, increase in cAMP); causes relaxation

191
Q

Beta-3
• Adipose tissue (lipolysis)
• Smooth muscle of gut

A
192
Q

Nicotinic
• Skeletal muscle (motor end plate)
• Adrenal medulla (specialized ganglion of sympathetic NS)
• In ganglia (ANS)**

A

When it is activated by Ach, the nicotinic receptor “opens” and creates a channel for Na/K to flow down respective gradients (K outside, Na inside)  depolarization

193
Q

Muscarinic
• All effector organs (ANS)
• Sweat glands (sympathetic)

A

Gq-receptor (increase in IP3 and intracellular Ca); causes contraction

OR

Direct action of a G protein (i.e. no second messenger is involved; in SA node, activation of a Gi protein  binds directly to K+ channels  depolarization  slows the rate of depolarization by making the cell hyperpolarized

194
Q

XII Lesion

A
  • Hemiparalysis of the tongue
  • Upon protrusion of the tongue (accomplished by genioglossus muscle that attaches to the inferior of the tongue and mandible), the tongue goes to the side of the lesion (stronger muscle is unopposed)
195
Q

Gag Reflex

A
  • IX for sensory limb (unilateral) – the side that has a lesion will not respond at all
  • X for motor limb (bilateral) – side that has a lesion (levator palatini) will not raise the soft palate and the uvula will go to the side that does rise up (opposite side)
  • Think about it as a consensual response – if IX is lesion, but X is fine, there will be a NORMAL gag reflex on the side of pharynx that does not have the lesion
196
Q

What cranial nerves travel through the cavernous sinus?

A

• III, IV, VI, V-1, V-2

197
Q

UMN Lesion of VII Clinical Presentation

A
  • Note that UMN innervation of VII in the upper half of the face is bilateral so that if you destroy cortical input from one side, the upper facial movement is conserved, but the lower face movement on the contralateral side of the lesion is not
  • To summarize: You would see deficits in the lower half of the face on the contralateral side
198
Q

LMN Lesion of VII Clinical Presentation

A

• Will cause total face paralysis on the same side as the lesion (think LMN lesion is on the same side)

199
Q

Poliomyeltis

A

Damage to anterior motor horn neurons (fecaol oral – GI – Blood to CNS)

Presents with LMN signs

200
Q

Werdnig-Hoffman Disease

A

Inherited degeneration of anterior motor horn (autosomal recessive in gene that supports growth of MNs)

Presents as ‘floppy baby”

Death within few years after birth

201
Q

Amyothrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

A

Degenerative disorder of upper (lateral spinal tract) and lower motor neurons (anterior motor horn) of corticospinal tract

NO SENSORY INVOLVEMENT

Most cases are sporadic in middle-aged adults

SOD1 (Zinc-copper superoxide dismutase) mutation is present in some familiarl forms (ROS-mediated damage etiology?)

202
Q

Friedrich Ataxia

A

Degenerative disorder of the cerebellum (ataxia) and spinal cord (loss of vibration, proprioception, and LMN injury)

Autosomal recessive; due to expansion of unstable trinucleotide repeat (GAA) in frataxin gene, which is responsible for the synthesis of Fe-S clusters (perhaps impaired ETC, which leads to ROS-mediated damage?)

Presents in early childhood; patients are wheelchair bound within a few years

Associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

203
Q

Clinical Features of Alzheimer’s

A
  • Slow onset memory loss (begins with short-term and then progresses to long-term memory loss) and then progressive disorientation
  • Loss of learned motor skills and language
  • Changes in behavior and personality
  • Patients are mute and bedridden; infection is a common cause of death
  • Focal neurologic deficits (e.g. weakness in one arm, etc.) are NOT seen in early disease
204
Q

What is the most common cause of dementia? Second most common?

A

1st - Alzheimer’s disease
2nd – Vascular Dementia

205
Q

What is the etiology of Alzheimer’s?

A

APP is a receptor with an unknown function; normally undergoes cleavage (alpha) by a presenilin-coded secretase and is properly turned over; when it undergoes beta cleavage, it results in the formation of ABeta amyloid, which can:
• Interfere with synaptic efficiency
• Form diffuse plaques and initiate immune response
• Cause neurofibrillary tangles to form within neurons
• Causes selective neuronal loss (not clear why some neurons are not affected while others are) and several NT defects are found

206
Q

What defines dementia?

A

Memory loss, cognitive dysfunction, with no loss of consciousness; degeneration of the cortex leads to dementia

207
Q

What is the epidemiology of Alzheimer’s disease?

A
  • Most cases are sporadic and seen in elderly
  • Risk increases with age (doubles every 5 years after the age of 60)
  • APOE4 has high risk (less clearance of AB amyloid)
  • APOE2 has reduced risk (more clearance)
  • Early onset AD is seen in familial cases (mutation in presenilin 1 or 2 that produces excess AB amyloid)
  • Down syndrome – APP is on chromosome 21 – commonly occurs by age 40
208
Q

What are the pathologic features of Alzhemier’s?

A
  • Cerebral atrophy with narrowing gyri
  • Loss of brain mass
  • Dilation of ventricles secondary to loss of brain volume
  • NF Tangles
  • Loss of cholinergic neurons in the nucleus basalis of Meynart (part of arousal symptom – leads to fatigue?)
209
Q

How do you diagnose Alzheimer’s?

A

R/O and at autopsy

210
Q

Identify and explain.

A

Intracellular hyper-phosphorylated Tau proteins; seemed to be caused by the “toxic” AB amyloid neuritic plaques that are formed

211
Q

What are the round plaques?

A

Neuritic plaques – extracellular; comprised of hydrophobic, beta-sheet stacked AB amyloid with entangled neuritic processes and can be associated with microglia

May deposit around vessels, increasing the risk for hemorrhage

212
Q

What causes Vascular Dementia?

A

Multifocal infarction and injury secondary to hypertension, atherosclerosis, vasculitis

213
Q

Clinical Features of Vascular Dementia

A

Cognitive impairment, acutely or sub-acutely, after an acute neurologic event with a stepwise progression is a typical history suggestive of vascular dementia.
More associated with depression than AZ

214
Q

What areas of the brain are most susceptible to hypoxia?

A

When you have global cerebral ischemia…
• Moderate – Layers 3, 5, 6, which could result in dementia
• Hippocampus – Loss of memory

215
Q

What disease is related to MPTP exposure?

A

Parkinson’s
MPTP is a metabolite found in a drug that was metabolized into MPP+, which then blocked the ETC in the mitochondria and generated ROS species; found to cause PK

216
Q

What are the four hallmarks of Parkinson’s?

A

Tremor
Rigidity (Cogwheel)
Akinesia/Bradykinesia
Postural instability and shuffling gait

217
Q

What type of eosiniphilic inclusions are found on histology in Parkinson’s?

A

Alpha-synuclein (Lewy Body)
Can spread to cortical areas in late-disease Parkinson’s and cause dementia

218
Q

Clinical features of Lewy Body Dementia?

A

DLB is distinguished from the dementia that sometimes occurs in Parkinson’s disease by the time frame in which dementia symptoms appear relative to Parkinson symptoms. Parkinson’s disease with dementia (PDD) would be the diagnosis when dementia onset is more than a year after the onset of Parkinson’s. DLB is diagnosed when cognitive symptoms begin at the same time or within a year of Parkinson symptoms.

219
Q

Clinical Features of Huntington’s

A

Chorea
Depression
High rate of suicide as a common cause of death

220
Q

Etiology of Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

A

Basically the underlying pathophysiology is not entirely known. It is thought that CSF absorption through the arachnoid granulations may be impaired somehow, but perhaps in a very gradual way, so that even though the ventricles enlarge due to impaired CSF absorption, there is not the observable marked increase in intracranial pressure that you would expect. It may be that ICP increases slightly compared to what would be the patient’s baseline, but is still within the normal range.

221
Q

Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus Clinical Features

A

Dementia in Adults, usually idiopathic
Wet, Wobbly, and Wacky

The symptoms are explained by compression of white matter fibers that run near the lateral ventricles, when the ventricles enlarge. This explains the gait problem that mostly involves the lower extremities (because descending corticospinal tract fibers carrying information for the lower extremities are the ones that travel farthest along the lateral ventricles on their way to the internal capsule, based on the motor homunculus), the urinary incontinence (because the cortical inhibition of bladder function is located in the medial frontal lobes superiorly, and these fibers also run along the lateral ventricles), and the dementia (because the frontal lobes overall are most affected when the lateral ventricles are enlarged).

The possibility that ICP may be slightly increased but still within the normal range is supported by the fact that draining large amounts of CSF (Lumbar Puncture) can help the symptoms in NPH, sometimes immediately and markedly, and this is used as a diagnostic test.

222
Q

What causes Spongiform Encephalopathy?

A

Normal prion protein (PRP-C) in alpha-helix formation in neurons is converted to Beta-pleated conformation (PRP-SC)

Conversion can be sporadic, inherited, or transmitted

223
Q

What is the etiology of spongiform encephalopathy?

A

Pathologic prion protein is not degradable and converts normal protein into pathologic form, causing a vicious cycle

224
Q

What is the histological hallmark of spongiform encephalopathy?

A

Spongy degeneration (damage to neurons and glial cells is characterized by intracellular vacuoles)

225
Q

What is the most common spongiform encephalopathy disease?

A

CJD
Usually sporadic
Can be transmitted through human-infected tissue (e.g. corneal transplant, GH)
Presents as RAPID dementia associated with ataxia (cerebellum involved) and startle myoclonus
Spike-wave complexes on EEG
Results in death in usually <1 year
Varient CJD = bovine – mad cow

226
Q

What protein is involved in the pathology of familial fatal insomnia?

A

Prion disease

227
Q

Three proposed stages of memory processing

A

The role of the hippocampus and parahippocampal areas are crucial for establishing long-term memories. When sensory input is received it is encoded into short term memory (hippocampus-independent). This information is held in working memory (tested in tasks such as counting backward from 100) and if consolidated (hippocampus-dependent) is stored as long term memory which can later be retrieved.

Note that: Implicit (or non-declarative) memory such as learning motor skills is not dependent on the hippocampus. H.M., a man who had his hippocampi (and large amounts of the parahippocampal areas) removed bilaterally for epilepsy could no longer encode new explicit memories. He could learn to ride a bike—he would do better each day but have no memory of riding a bike before. In 1997, an MRI study was done to see the extent of the surgical resection.

228
Q

Storage and Processing of Declarative Memory (in general) – A form of long-term memory

A

DECLARATIVE memory (episodic and semantic; not working) is stored in diffuse cortical sites (think Wernicke’s and fusiform gyrus); notably, it depends on the integrity of medial temporal areas (e.g. hippocampus and parahippocampul gyrus) to encode/consolidate memories

Injury to medial temporal areas) will lead to anterograde amnesia - can’t form new memories; accessing old memories may still be intact

Damage to specific/widespread cortical areas (e.g. Alzheimer’s) will lead to retrograde amnesia (e.g. Fusiform gyrius and face recognition)

229
Q

Storage and Processing of Non-Declarative Memory (in general) – A form of long-term memory

A

DECLARATIVE memory is stored in diffuse cortical sites (think Wernicke’s and fusiform gyrus); notably, it depends on the integrity of medial temporal areas (e.g. hippocampus and parahippocampul gyrus) to encode/consolidate memories

Injury to medial temporal areas) will lead to anterograde amnesia - can’t form new memories; accessing old memories may still be intact

Damage to specific/widespread cortical areas (e.g. Alzheimer’s) will lead to retrograde amnesia (e.g. Fusiform gyrius and face recognition)

230
Q

What tests working memory?

A

Memory recall three words
Counting backward from 100

231
Q

What region(s) of the brain are involved in working memory?

A

Frontal and Temporal Lobes
Frontal lobes and BG circuits – manipulation of working memory stored information to perform a task
Temporal Lobe circuits – storing information

232
Q

What region(s) of the brain are involved in episodic memory?

A

Medial temporal pole
Affected first in Alzheimer’s, then it gets more diffuse (affects short-term memory, then long-term memory); note that basic attention and working memory are required to learn new information

233
Q

What region(s) of the brain are involved in semantic memory?

A

Anterior temporal pole
Caused by Herpes Enchephalitis, generally rare
Intact recall (medial temporal lobe intact)
Difficult learning, however, because there is affected temporal lobe function

234
Q

Where is the horizontal gaze center?

A

PPRF located near the midline in the Pons; connects VI and III via the MLF

235
Q

Where is the vertical gaze center?

A

The rostral interstitial nucleus is located in the rostral part of the midbrain reticular formation

236
Q

How is it that sensory information about the location of a target in space is transformed into an appropriate pattern of activity in the gaze centers?

A

Two regions of the brain project to gaze centers and are responsible for initiating and accurate targeting of saccades
• Superior colliculus of the midbrain (also receive input from dorsal spatial vision pathway to align fovea to correct region of space)
• Frontal eye field in pre-frontal cortex
UMN in both of these regions discharge prior to saccadic movements

237
Q

What happens to eye movements if ischemic stroke causes lesion in frontal eye fields?

A

Eyes drift toward the side that is injured (“Look toward a stroke, Look away from a Seizure”)

238
Q

What is entailed with executive function? What would a lesion cause?

A

Concentration, orientation, abstraction, judgment, mood, and inhibition of primitive reflexes

Lesion could cause unmasked primitive reflexes such as sucking, grasp, and rooting reflexes

239
Q

What happens to eye movements if seizure (i.e. hyperactivity) causes lesion in frontal eye fields?

A

Eyes drift away from the side of hyperactivity (“Look toward a stroke, Look away from a Seizure”)

240
Q

What is the LPFC responsible for?

A

Working memory and executive function (planning tasks, switching tasks, goal-directed behavior)
Circuit with BG (e.g. input is where and what visual information, output through thalamus back to LPFC)
Implicated in SZ, PK

241
Q

How do you test LPFC function?

A

Verbal Fluency –
working memory, self-monitoring, and cognitive flexibility

242
Q

What NT is critical for working memory?

A

Dopamine

243
Q

What is the OFC responsible for?

A

Emotional control and regulation and social judgment

Sensory input through OFC through BG (with Amygdala input) and Visceromotor output (expression of emotion). Responsible for “gut response”.

If this circuit is screwed up, then emotional regulation will change. Lesions leave cognition in absence of feeling.

244
Q

What is the mPFC responsible for?

A

Initiation and monitoring (e.g. supplementary motor area)

Bilateral destruction can cause “abulia” – severed initiative – also called akinetic mutism – subjects are awake and alert, but have no movement and no verbal output

245
Q

What causes contralateral neglect?

A

Lesion to the dominant - often left parietal lobe – (usually left is dominant for most people and so a lesion on the right side may not result in neglect)

246
Q

What can cause alexia without agraphia?

A

Alexia – Can’t read
Agraphia – Can’t write

Reading pathway involves visual input through B/W pathway
Writing to dictation pathway involves auditory input through B/W pathway

Therefore, if you can’t get to B/W pathway from visual cortex, you will get this lesion; could be caused by PCA lesion

247
Q

What is the auditory pathway?

A

Cohclea to CN VIII to meduallary cochlear nucleus, crosses just prior to the superior olivary nucleus, then travels along the lateral leminscus tract then synapses in the medial geniculate nucleus (MGN) and goes to primary auditory cortex

248
Q

What does lesion before the decussation of VIII cause?

A

Unilateral hearing loss with potential deafness

249
Q

What does lesion after decussation of VIII cause?

A

Bilateral hearing loss without deafness (bilateral spread of fibers)

250
Q

Papez Circuit

A

Limbic system circuit that plays a role in memory and emotion; although it is not a true circuit, structures of the circuit contribute to memory and emotional processing that is part of the limbic system

The Papez circuit begins with fibers arising from the subiculum of the hippocampal formation, which enter the fornix and travel forward to both the medial and the lateral mammillary nuclei. The medial mammillary nucleus then projects through the mammillothalamic tract to the anterior thalamic nucleus. Recall that the anterior thalamic nucleus also receives a direct projection from the fornix. The anterior thalamic nucleus next projects through the internal capsule to the cingulate gyrus. Finally, a prominent white matter pathway underlying the cingulate gyrus called the cingulate bundle, or cingulum, passes from the cingulate cortex to the parahippocampal gyrus. From the parahippocampal gyrus, projections continue to the entorhinal cortex and hippocampal formation, completing the loop.

251
Q

What does the amygdala do?

A

Responsible for emotional responses, such as fear response

252
Q

What does a lesion in the amygdala cause?

A

Ablation of the fear response
Kluvey-Bucy Syndrome – Psychic blindness (visual agnosia), personality changes (abnormal docility), hyperorality, hypersexuality

253
Q

What is one of the common foci for epilepsy?

A

Temporal lobe; often presents with visual hallucinations

254
Q

What is the anterior top of the temporal lobe important for?

A

Word-finding

255
Q

Blood supply of Hippocampus

A

PCA branch

256
Q

Where do metastatic tumors to CNS most commonly come from?

A

Kidney, Breast, and Lung

257
Q

Are adult tumors above or below the tentorium?

A

Above; Child are usually below

258
Q

What are the most common tumors in children?

A

Pilocytic astrocytoma, ependymoma, and medulloblastoma

259
Q

Do primary malignant CNS tumors commonly metastasize?

A

No – they are locally destructive, though

260
Q

What is the most common benign tumor in adults?

A

Meningioma

261
Q

What is GFAP?

A

Glial fibrillary acidic protein is an intermediate filament (IF) protein that is expressed by numerous cell types of the central nervous system (CNS) including astrocytes and ependymal cells

262
Q

Tumor
Pilocytic Astrocytoma
(Child) - Cell

A

Astrocytes

263
Q

Tumor
Pilocytic Astrocytoma
(Child) - Location

A

Posterior fossa of cerebellum

264
Q

Tumor
Pilocytic Astrocytoma
(Child) - Histology

A
  1. GFAP
  2. Rosenthal fibers
265
Q

Tumor
Pilocytic Astrocytoma
(Child) - Gross

A

Cyst + mural nodule

266
Q

Tumor
Medullo-blastoma
(Child) - Cell

A

Cerebellar granular cells (neuroectoderm)

267
Q

Tumor
Medullo-blastoma
(Child) - Location

A

Cerebellum or posterior fossa

268
Q

Tumor
Medullo-blastoma
(Child) - Histology

A

Homer-Wright rosettes

269
Q

Tumor
Medullo-blastoma
(Child) - Symptoms

A

Hydrocephalus

270
Q

Tumor
Ependymoma
(Child) - Cell

A

Ependymal cells

271
Q

Tumor
Ependymoma
(Child) - Location

A

4th ventricle

272
Q

Tumor
Ependymoma
(Child) - Histology

A
  1. Perivascular pseudorosettes
  2. Blephoroplasts
273
Q

Tumor
Ependymoma
(Child) - Symptoms

A

Hydrocephalus

274
Q

Tumor
Hemangio-blastoma
(Child) - Cell

A

Vascular cells

275
Q

Tumor
Hemangio-blastoma
(Child) - Location

A

Cerebellum

276
Q

Tumor
Hemangio-blastoma
(Child) - Histology

A
  1. Foamy cells
  2. High vascularity
277
Q

Tumor
Hemangio-blastoma
(Child) - Symptoms

A

Polycythemia
Von Hippel Lindau

278
Q

Tumor
Craniopharyn-gioma
(Child) - Cell

A

Epithelial cells

279
Q

Tumor
Craniopharyn-gioma
(Child) - Location

A

Rathke’s pouch

280
Q

Tumor
Craniopharyn-gioma
(Child) - Gross

A

Calcifications

281
Q

Tumor
Craniopharyn-gioma
(Child) - Symptoms

A

Bitempeoral hemianopsia

282
Q

Tumor
Glioblastoma Multiforme
(adult) - Cell

A

Astrocytes

283
Q

Tumor
Glioblastoma Multiforme
(adult) - Location

A

Cerebral hemisphere

284
Q

Tumor
Glioblastoma Multiforme
(adult) - Histology

A
  1. GFAP
  2. Pseudopalisading necrosis
285
Q

Tumor
Glioblastoma Multiforme
(adult) - Gross

A

“Butterfly”

286
Q

Tumor
Meningioma
(adult) - Cell

A

Arachnoid cells

287
Q

Tumor
Meningioma
(adult) - Location

A

Convexities of hemispheres

288
Q

Tumor
Meningioma
(adult) - Histology

A
  1. Whorled
  2. Psommoma bodies (calcifications in whirled pattern)
289
Q

Tumor
Meningioma
(adult) - Gross

A

Dural tail

290
Q

Tumor
Meningioma
(adult) - Symptoms

A

Seizures or focal signs; express estrogen receptor – more common in adult women

291
Q

Tumor
Schwannoma
(adult) - Cell

A

Schwann cells

292
Q

Tumor
Schwannoma
(adult) - Location

A

Cranial or spinal nerves (VIII)

293
Q

Tumor
Schwannoma
(adult) - Histology

A

S-100

294
Q

Tumor
Schwannoma
(adult) - Gross

A

Bilateral acoustic

295
Q

Tumor
Schwannoma
(adult) - Symptoms

A

Hearing loss or tinnitus
Associated with NF Type 2

296
Q

Tumor
Oligoden-droglioma
(adult) - Cell

A

Oligoden-
drocytes

297
Q

Tumor
Oligoden-droglioma
(adult) - Location

A

Frontal lobe

298
Q

Tumor
Oligoden-droglioma
(adult) - Histology

A
  1. Fried egg cells
  2. Chicken-wire capillaries
299
Q

Tumor
Oligoden-droglioma
(adult) - Symptoms

A

Seizures

300
Q

Tumor
Pituitary adenoma
(adult) - Cell

A

Pituitary

301
Q

Tumor
Pituitary adenoma
(adult) - Gross

A

Often prolactinoma

302
Q

Tumor
Pituitary adenoma
(adult) - Symptoms

A
303
Q

What layers of the meninges are inflamed in meningitis?

A

Leptomeninges (arachnoid and pia)

304
Q

What are the three most common infectious agents for meningitis in neonates?

A

Group B Strep (Culture mom before birth)
E. Coli
Listeria monocytogenes

305
Q

What is the most common infectious agent for meningitis in teens?

A

N. Meningitidis (through nasopharynx to blood to CNS)

306
Q

What is the most common infectious agent for meningitis in elderly and adults?

A

S. Pneumo

307
Q

What is the most common meningitis in non-vaccinated infants?

A

HiB

308
Q

What is the classic presentation for meningitis?

A

Headache
Nuchal Rigidity
Fever
Photophobia (most commonly in viral), Vomiting, and altered mental status may also be present

Kernig’s, Brudzinksi’s signs (most useful in children): Kernig’s is POSITIVE when the child rolls up in response to stretching the leg upward; Brudzinksi is POSITIVE when legs come up when the head is tilted upward

309
Q

What are CSF findings for bacterial meningitis?

A

Low glucose, Neutrophils, Positive Gram Stain
Note that CSF glucose is 2/3 of systemic glucose
Elevate protein

310
Q

What are CSF findings for viral meningitis?

A

Lymphocytes with normal CSF glucose

311
Q

What are CSF findings for fungal meningitis?

A

Lymphocytes with decreased CSF glucose

312
Q

What are common complications of bacterial meningitis?

A

Death – herniation secondary to cerebral edema
Hydrocephalus (scarring during healing process), hearing loss, seizures

313
Q

What are the consequences of tonsillar herniation?

A

Compression of brainstem in medullary area that can lead to cardiopulmonary arrest

314
Q

What are the consequences of subfalcine herniation?

A

In this type of hernation, the cingulate gyrus herniates under the falx cerebri, which can compress the anterior cerebral artery

315
Q

What are the consequences of uncal herniation into the tentorium cerebri?

A

Crushes CN III (down and out with dilated pupil)
Compression of PCA can lead to contralateral homonymous hemianopia
Rupture of paramedian arteries that perforate from basilar into midbrain and thalamus, causing hemorrhage

316
Q

Metachromatic Leukodystrophy

A

Most common leukodystrophy
Deficiency of arylsulfatase (autosomal recessive)
Inability to degrade myelin, which accumulates in lysosomes of oligodendrocytes

317
Q

Krabbe Disease

A
Deficiency of galactocerebroside B-galactosidase (autosomal recessive)
 The Galactocerebroside (a glycosylated phospholipid) accumulates in macrophages
318
Q

Adrenoleukodystrophy

A

Impaired addition of coenzyme A to long chain FAs (X-linked defect)

Accumulation of FAs damages adrenal glands and white matter of the brain and Leydig cells of testes

319
Q

What is destroyed in MS?

A

CNS myelin and oligodendrocytes

320
Q

What is the most common age group in which MS appears? Gender? Location?

A

20-30 years, mostly women, mostly in regions that are far from the equator

321
Q

Is MS associated with a specific HLA?

A

Yes, HLA-DR2

322
Q

How does MS present?

A

Relapsing neurologic deficits with periods of remission

Blurred vision in one eye (optic nerve)

Vertigo and scanning speech (brainstem)

Internuclear opthalmoplegia (MLF)

Hemiparesis or unilateral loss of sensation (cerebral white matter, usually periventricular)

Lower extremity loss of sensation or weakness (spinal cord)

Bowel, bladder, sexual dysfunction (ANS)

323
Q

How is MS diagnosis made?

A

Lumbar puncture for increased lymphocytes, increased Ig with oligclonal IgG bands (bands seen when sampling from CSF – each of the two to five oligoclonal bands seen by protein electrophoresis represent proteins (or protein fragments) secreted by plasma cells, although why exactly these bands are present, and which proteins these bands represent, has not yet been elucidated), and myelin basic protein (destroying the myelin)

324
Q

What causes plaques in MS?

A

A repair process, called remyelination, takes place in early phases of the disease, but the oligodendrocytes are unable to completely rebuild the cell’s myelin sheath. Repeated attacks lead to successively less effective remyelinations, until a scar-like plaque is built up around the damaged axons

325
Q

Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis

A
  • Progressive, debilitating encephalitis leads to death
  • Due to persistant infection of measles virus (infection in infancy, neurological symptoms years later)
  • Characterized by viral inclusions within neurons and oligodendrocytes
326
Q

Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy

A
  • JC Virus infection of oligodendrocytes (white matter)
  • Most people are infected – reactivated in AIDS/immunosuppressed patients
  • Presents with rapidly progressive neurological signs (visual loss, weakness, dementia), leading to death
327
Q

What are some causes of global cerebral ischemia?

A
  • Low perfusion (hypotension, athero)
  • Acute decrease in blood flow (cardiogeneic shock)
  • Chronic hypoxia (anemia)
  • Repeated episodes of hypoglycemia (“hypoglycemic stroke”)
328
Q

What happens in mild global ischemia?

A

• Mild, transient confusion with prompt recovery

329
Q

What happens in severe global ischemia?

A

• Diffuse necrosis; if survival, then in vegetative state

330
Q

What happens in moderate global ischemia?

A

• Infarcts in watershed areas and damage to highly vulnerable regions (pyramidal neuron in layers 3, 5, and 6, which causes cortical laminar necroses; pyramidal neurons in hippocampus, Purkinje layer of the cerebellum

331
Q

Do you get a pale or hemorrhagic infarct in an ischemic stroke caused by embolus?

A
  • Hemorrhagic (easily lyse thrombus, can’t easily lyse thrombus next to plaque)
  • Thrombus causes pale infarct
332
Q

What type of necrosis does ischemic stroke cause? What are some histological markers?

A
  • Liquefactive
  • 12 hours - Eosinephila (degraded proteins, RNA) “Red Neurons”
  • Infiltration by neutrophils (1 day), Microglia (1 week), Granulation-like tissue (1 month), then results in a cystic space surrounded by gliosis

Gliosis is a nonspecific reactive change of glial cells in response to damage to the central nervous system (CNS). In most cases, gliosis involves the proliferation or hypertrophy of several different types of glial cells, including astrocytes, microglia, and oligodendrocytes. In its most extreme form, the proliferation associated with gliosis leads to the formation of a glial scar.

The process of gliosis involves a series of cellular and molecular events that occur over several days. Typically, the first response to injury is the migration of macrophages and local microglia to the injury site. This process, which constitutes a form of gliosis known as microgliosis, begins within hours of the initial CNS injury. Later, after 3–5 days, oligodendrocyte precursor cells are also recruited to the site and may contribute to remyelination. The final component of gliosis is astrogliosis, the proliferation of surrounding astrocytes, which are the main constituents of the glial scar.

333
Q

Myelinating cells of the CNS; each can myelinate up to 30 neurons in the CNS.

Derived from Neuroectoderm.

A

Oligodendrocytes

334
Q

Myelinating cells in the PNS; each can myelinate one axon

Derived from Neural Crest.

A

Schwann Cells

335
Q

Repair & provide nutritional support to CNS neurons; maintain the blood-brain barrier

Derived from Neuroectoderm.

A

Astrocytes

336
Q

Phagocytes of the CNS; proliferate around injured nerve tissue

Derived from mesoderm.

A

Microglia

337
Q

Wallerian Degeneration

A

In the periphery, the axon and myelin get degraded & phagocytosed, THEN Schwann cells proliferate!

338
Q

What is the most common type of pituitary adenoma?

A

• Prolactinoma in anterior pituitary

339
Q

Herpes & Meningoencephalitis

A

There was no answer to pastefor this – Jas

340
Q

Ku, Mi, Lah Test

A
  • Ku - Vagus elevation of palate (10)
  • Mi – Facial muscles (7)
  • Lah – Hypoglossal tongue (12)
341
Q

Causes of Athetosis

A

• Damage to pallidus, putamen, or thalamus

342
Q

Common cause of alexia without agraphia?

A

Damage to anterior region of PCA, which infarcts the splenium of the corpus callosum and does not allow visual information to come across from right to left language area

343
Q

What is the order of frequency in terms of CNS tumors in adults?

A

1) Metastases (generally at the junction of grey and while matter)
2) Astrocytomas (Glioblastoma)
3) Meningioma
4) Pituitary Tumor

344
Q

What are the most common cerebellar tumors in kids?

A

1) Poliocytic astrocytoma
2) Medulloblastoma

345
Q

What is the most common non-glial brain tumor of children?

A

Craniopharyngioma, arises from EPITHELIAL cells derived from Rathke’s pouch

346
Q

What region of the brain undergoes necrosis in herpes encephalitis?

A

Temporal lobes and base of frontal lobes

347
Q

What is hyperacusis? What causes it?

A

Increased sensitivity to sound; Paralysis of the stapedius, such as in injury to the facial nerve (CN VII), allows wider oscillation of the stapes, resulting in heightened reaction of the auditory ossicles to sound vibration. This condition, known as hyperacusis, causes normal sounds to be perceived as very loud.

348
Q

What foramen does the middle meningeal artery enter the skull?

A

Foramen Spinosum in middle cranial fossa

349
Q

What type of cells are thyroid hormones synthesized in?

A

Follicular Epithelial Cells