8. Transfusion therapy Flashcards

1
Q

Routine AS RBC units are —- mL and have —% Hct

A

350 mL
60%

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2
Q

RBC increment

A

1 unit should increase Hgb 1 g/dL

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3
Q

apheresis unit platelet ct

A

3 x 10^11

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4
Q

random pooled unit platelet ct and dose

A

5 x 10^10
one dose is 6-10 units

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5
Q

platelet increment

A

1 unit should increase platelet count by 30-50,000

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6
Q

> 50,000 platelets

A

bleeding with procedure or trauma is unlikely

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7
Q

10-50,000 platelets

A

spontaneous bleed unlikely, likely with procedure or trauma

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8
Q

5-10,000 platelets

A

risk for spontaneous bleed

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9
Q

<5000 platelets

A

high risk for spontaneous bleed

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10
Q

platelet refractoriness

A

at least 2 transfusions fail to achieve ⅓ to ½ of expected increment

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11
Q

FFP increment

A

initial dose of 10-20 mL/kg expected to raise coagulation factors in a nonbleeding patient by 25-50%

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12
Q

—- FFP units usually control hemostasis

A

4-6

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13
Q

8-15 mL cryo contains…

A

150-250 mg fibrinogen

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14
Q

cryo increment

A

1 unit/10 kg expected to increase fibrinogen by 50 mg/dL if there is no ongoing consumption

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15
Q

usual cryo dose

A

10 units pooled

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16
Q

massive transfusion definition

A

replacement of patient’s total blood volume or more within 24 hours (8-10 units)

OR acute administration of 4-5 pRBC units in one hour

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17
Q

blood is drawn and stored prior to anticipated need; at least 72 hours before surgery

A

preoperative collection

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18
Q

blood is collected at the start of surgery and infused during or at the end; can contribute to decreased surgical bleeding by reducing hematocrit

A

acute normovolemic hemodiluation

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19
Q

shed blood is recovered from surgical field and then infused; surgical site cannot be abdominal due to bacterial contamination

A

intraoperative collection

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20
Q

blood is collected from drainage devices and infused

A

postoperative collection

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21
Q

only FDA approved usage is for heavy menstrual bleeding and short-term prevention in hemophilia pts

A

Transexamic acid (TXA)

22
Q

sickle cell tx; (1) makes RBCs bigger, stabilizing them and making them less likely to take sickle shape; (2) blocks sickle Hb polymerization; both increase O2 carrying capacity and decrease adhesion (pain crises)

A

Hydroxyurea & Voxelotor

23
Q

sterile, single use surgical tourniquet in use for bloodless orthopedic surgery

A

HemaClear

24
Q

from large plasma pools; removal of antithrombin and FXI; 3-factor or 4-factor

A

prothrombin complex concentrate

25
Q

HBV DNA confirmation

A

individual sample testing and alternative NAAT method

26
Q

HBsAg confirmation

A

neutralization by anti-HBV

27
Q

anti-HBc confirmation

A

No licenced confirmatory test

28
Q

anti-HCV confirmation

A

licenced multi-antigen test (RIBA, HCV RNA)

29
Q

HCV RNA confirmation

A

discriminatory NAAT and alternative NAAT

30
Q

anti-HIV confirmation

A

Western blot; EIA (HIV 2); IFA (HIV 2)

31
Q

HIV RNA confirmation

A

individual sample testing and alternative NAAT method

32
Q

anti-HTLV confirmation

A

No licenced confirmatory test

33
Q

WNV RNA confirmation

A

repeat NAAT; IgM anti-WNV; follow up seroconversion

34
Q

syphilis confirmation

A

specific treponemal test (ie FTA)

35
Q

T. cruzi confirmation

A

no licenced test, but RIPA or IFA may be used

36
Q

Lookback

A

Donor center must be able to ID and notify transfusion services of blood from donors found to be subsequently at risk for TTD

37
Q

Traceback

A

when recipient gets a possible TTD

38
Q

HAV risk

A

1:1,000,000 TTD risk

39
Q

HBV risk

A

1:220,000 TTD risk

40
Q

HCV risk

A

1:2,000,000 TTD risk

41
Q

HTLV risk

A

1:2,993,00 TTD risk

42
Q

HIV risk

A

1:2,300,000 TTD risk

43
Q

national surveillance of transfusion related adverse events

2009

A

National healthcare safety network hemovigilance module

44
Q

GVHD time frame

A

2 days — 6 weeks

45
Q

TRALI time frame

A

within 6 hours

46
Q

TACO time frame

A

within 12 hours

47
Q

AHTR time frame

A

within 24 hours

48
Q

DHTR time frame

A

24 hours —28 days

49
Q

Zika vectors

A

Aedes aegypti
Aedes albopictus

50
Q

FNHTR time frame

A

during or within 4 hours

51
Q

PTP time frame

A

within 3 weeks

52
Q

TAD time frame

A

within 24 hours