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Suppe > 7 Engines, APU > Flashcards

7 Engines, APU Flashcards

1
Q

Which engines does the airplane have?

A

Two GE CF6-80C2B6 engines.

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2
Q

Which type of engine is the CF6-80C2B6?

A

A two–rotor axial flow turbofans of high compression and bypass
ratio.

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3
Q

Which rotor drives the engine eccessory gearbox?

A

The N2 rotor.

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4
Q

How are the engines controlled?

A

Automatically by the electronic engine controller (EEC).
The EECs monitor autothrottle and flight crew inputs through the thrust levers to automatically control the engines.

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5
Q

The secondary engine indications are automatically displayed when:

A
  • The displays initially receive electrical power
  • A secondary engine parameter is exceeded.
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6
Q

The EGT indication is inhibited from changing to amber during:

A

Takeoff or go–around for five minutes. The inhibit is extended to ten minutes for single–engine operation.

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7
Q

If the thrust levers are moved to the forward stop, what will happen with the EEC operating normally?

A

The engines will not exceed the displayed maximum N1.

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8
Q

Thrust reverser indication (REV) annunciation in amber means?

A

The reverser are unlocked or
in transit.

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9
Q

Thrust reverser indication (REV) annunciation in green means?

A

The reverser are fully deployed

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10
Q

The thrust management computer calculates a reference N1 based on:

A

Existing pressure altitude and ambient temperature data from the air data system

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11
Q

When the N1 bug is green it means?

A

It is positioned on the N1
scale at the same value as the digital reference N1.

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12
Q

The assumed temperature for a reduced thrust takeoff can be set by:

A
  • Using the assumed temperature selector on the TMSP
  • Entering the assumed temperature into the CDU TAKEOFF REF page
  • Datalink
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13
Q

If reduced climb thrust one or two was preselected, pushing the climb switch inflight selects:

A

CLB 1 or CLB 2.

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14
Q

What happens when selecting the CON on the TMSP?

A

Maximum continuous thrust inflight will be set as the reference N1.

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15
Q

Can you manually set the Reference N1?

A

Yes if the thrust reference set control is pulled out, MAN appears as the thrust mode annunciation and the N1 bug slews to 104%.
Manual reference N1 values can then be set by rotating the inner control.

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16
Q

When the inner control is pulled out on the TMC, what will happen to the autothrottles?

A

The autothrottles remain in the active TMC mode. The TMSP remains operable and the
autothrottles respond to TMSP mode changes, but selected thrust reference mode
displays are inhibited.

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17
Q

A magenta N1 means?

A

AFDS VNAV mode is engaged.

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18
Q

Assumed temperature takeoff thrust is limited to?

A

25% reduction of takeoff thrust
or selected climb thrust, whichever is the greater thrust value.

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19
Q

Reduced climb thrust. Climb 1 is:

A

Approximately 90% of climb thrust

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20
Q

Reduced climb thrust. Climb 2 is:

A

Approximately 80% of climb thrust

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21
Q

Reduced climb thrust gradually changes. When will full climb thrust be commanded?

A

30,000 feet

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22
Q

Reduced climb thrust gradually changes. When will the climb thrust start to increase?

A

Above 10,000 feet

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23
Q

The thrust system consists of:

A

A hydromechanical engine fuel control with an EEC
unit.

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24
Q

How does the EEC set thrust?

A

By controlling N1 based on thrust lever position.

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25
Q

How is the EEC powered?

A

By dual dedicated generators.

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26
Q

What happens when the EEC’s has been disengaged?

A

Both engines will be operated by conventional hydromechanical control

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27
Q

Is there any protection when moving the thrust levers to the full forward positions?

A

Yes. The EEC continuously computes the maximum limits for thrust. Maximum rated
thrust is available in any phase of flight

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27
Q

If the EEC fails or is turned off, how is the maximum N1 calculated?

A

By the TMC and displayed in the same manner.

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28
Q

How are you able to see if the TMC and the EEC has failed regarding the N1 limit?

A

The maximum N1 limits are blank.

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29
Q

During normal operation, how does the EEZ operate?

A

The EEC provides a trim input to its associated hydromechanical fuel controller to drive the engine to an EEC computed
command thrust level.

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30
Q

L or R ENG EEC means?

A

The EEC is turned off or a failure is detected in the
system.

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31
Q

When a failure is detected the EEC trim motor will?

A

Hold the current trim level until the unit is turned off.

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32
Q

Before turning the EEC off you should?

A

The thrust lever should be retarded to a mid-position to prevent a possible engine overboost.

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33
Q

How does the EEC provide overspeed protection?

A

If N1 or N2 approaches overspeed, the EEC commands reduced fuel flow.

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34
Q

How many modes of idle speeds are there?

A

Two. Minimum idle and approach idle.

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35
Q

What is the difference between minimum idle and approach idle?

A
  • Minimum idle is a lower thrust than approach idle and selected for ground operation and all
    phases of flight except approach and landing.
  • Approach idle is selected whenever this higher idle setting is required for proper system operation.
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36
Q

L or R ENG LOW IDLDE means?

A

An engine failed to go to approach idle.

37
Q

IDLE DISAGREE means?

A

The engines are at different idle settings. One engine has failed to return to minimum idle.

38
Q

The air driven starter is powered by?

A

Air from the pneumatic duct. (from a ground cart, APU or the other running engine)

39
Q

The air driven starter is connected to?

A

The N2 rotor.

40
Q

The engine start selectors controls:

A

The start valves.

41
Q

The fuel control switches control:

A

Ignition and fuel flow.

42
Q

What happens when pushing in and rotating the engine start selector to the GND position?

A
  1. Opens the start valve
  2. Engages the air driven starter to the N2 rotor
  3. Closes the engine bleed air valve if it is open
43
Q

During the beginning of engine start, N2 rotation accelerates to:

A

Maximum motoring RPM or 20% N2

44
Q

The maximum motoring speed during engine start is reached when acceleration is less than?

A

Approximately 1% in 5 seconds

45
Q

Minimum N2 for selecting RUN is indicated by:

A

A magenta fuel on command bug.

46
Q

Continuous operation of the starter must be limited in accordance with the following starter duty cycles:

A
  • Five minutes on
  • One–half minute off per minute on.
47
Q

What is the recommended re-engagement speed?

A

0% N2

48
Q

What is the normal
re-engagement speed?

A

0–20% N2

49
Q

Except in case of fire.
Re–engagement is not recommended above?

A

20% N2

50
Q

Starter or gearbox damages may be a result of
re–engagement above?

A

30% N2

51
Q

What is displayed if airspeed is below that recommended for a
windmilling start?

A
  • A crossbleed start indication (X–BLD)
  • Fuel on command bug
52
Q

What is the power source for the ignition?

A

Main AC power is the normal power source for ignition. Standby AC power provides a backup source.

53
Q

Describe the components in the fuel system from the tank to the engine:

A
  1. Spar fuel valve (located in the main tank)
  2. First stage engine fuel pump
  3. Second stage fuel pump
  4. Fuel/oil heat exchanger
  5. Fuel filter
  6. Fuel control unit
  7. Engine fuel valve
  8. Fuel metering
54
Q

How does the fuel control unit work with the EEC?

A

The fuel control system (Fuel control unit and trim motor) schedules fuel flow to meet
engine thrust requirements as dictated by the thrust lever position and the specific
engine operating conditions (EEC).

55
Q

How is the spar valve and the engine valve controlled?

A

By the fuel control switch and the engine fire switch

56
Q

What happens if the filter becomes clogged with contaminates?

A

Fuel will bypass the filter allowing contaminated fuel
to enter the fuel control unit.

57
Q

What may occur due to fuel contamination?

A

Erratic engine operation and flameout.

58
Q

What is the primary purpose of the engine oil system?

A

To lubricate and cool the engine main bearings, gears and accessory drives.

59
Q

What is the secondary purpose of the engine oil system?

A

Automatic fuel heating for fuel system icing protection.

60
Q

Describe the components in the oil system from the oil reservoir to the oil reservoir:

A
  1. Main oil pump
  2. Oil filter
  3. Gear box bearings
  4. Scavenge pump
  5. Oil filter
  6. Fuel/oil heat exchanger
61
Q

How is the fan air thrust reverser actuated?

A

Pneumatically

62
Q

What happens when the reverse thrust levers are pulled aft to the interlock position?

A
  • The autothrottle disengages
  • The auto speedbrakes deploy
63
Q

What happens when the reverser system is activated?

A

Reverser isolation valve opens allowing the reverser translating sleeves to pneumatically move aft.

64
Q

What happens when the interlock releases?

A
  • The reverse thrust levers can be raised to the maximum reverse thrust position
  • The REV indication changes to green when the reverser is fully deployed
65
Q

What happens when pushing the reverse thrust levers to the full down position?

A

It retracts the reversers to
the stowed and locked position.

66
Q

What happens if an uncommanded thrust reverser movement is sensed?

A

An autostow feature automatically applies pneumatic pressure to stow the reverser.

67
Q

What is broadband vibration?

A

It is the average vibration detected.

68
Q

During the whole flight, which situation may cause momentary peak vibration increases?

A

Thrust reduction at top of descent

69
Q

How can airframe vibrations best be reduced?

A

By descending and reducing airspeed.

70
Q

What is the primary purpose of the APU?

A

To supply electrical power and bleed air on the ground before engine start.

71
Q

APU electrical power is available:

A

Throughout the airplane operating envelope

72
Q

APU bleed air is available:

A

Up to approximately 17,000 feet.

73
Q

The APU provides bleed air and electrical power. Which one has priority?

A

Electrical power.

74
Q

When will the APU electric starter engage during an APU start?

A

When the inlet door is open.

75
Q

When will ignition and fuel be provided during an APU start?

A

After the APU reaches the proper speed.

76
Q

What happens when rotating the APU selector to START?

A

It begins the automatic start sequence.
- The APU fuel valve opens
- The APU inlet door begins to open.
- A fuel pump begins to operate.

77
Q

The APU may be used to supply electrical power and bleed air when?

A

When the APU RUN light illuminates.

78
Q

Regarding electrical power the APU start requires:

A

Both the APU battery and the aircraft main battery.

79
Q

Placing the Battery Switch OFF also results in an APU shutdown. Why is it not recommended?

A

Because while the APU will go
through a cooldown cycle, APU fire detection may not be available.

80
Q

APU FAULT means?

A

The APU has automatically shut
down.

81
Q

APU FUEL VAL means?

A

The APU fuel valve position disagrees with the commanded
position.

82
Q

L or R ENG SHUTDOWN means?

A

Engine was shutdown by the fuel control switch or fire switch.

83
Q

L or R ENG FUEL FILT means?

A

An impending fuel filter bypass condition exists on the affected engine.

84
Q

L or R ENG FUEL VAL means?

A

The engine fuel valve position disagrees with commanded position.

85
Q

L or R FUEL SPAR VAL means?

A

The fuel spar valve position disagrees with commanded position.

86
Q

L or R ENG OIL PRESS means?

A

Engine oil pressure is low.

87
Q

L or R OIL FILTER means?

A

Affected engine oil filter contamination has been detected.

88
Q

L or R ENG STARTER means?

A

Engine starter valve is not in the commanded position.

89
Q

L or R STARTER CUTOUT means?

A

Engine starter valve is not in the commanded position.

90
Q

L or R STARTER CUTOUT means?

A

The engine start valve is open when commanded closed.

91
Q

L or R REV ISLN VAL means?

A

Fault is detected in the affected engine reverser system.

Suppe (18 decks)

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