630 questions for Final Flashcards by Kevin Domingue

Which substance waterproofs the skin?

A. Melanin
B. Carotene
C. Keratin
D. Cerumen

Keratin

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Which receptors are responsible for detecting light touch?

A. Golgi tendon organs
B. Meissner corpuscles
C. Pacinian corpuscles
D. Free nerve endings

Meissner corpuscles

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Which receptors are responsible for detecting deep pressure?

A. Pacinian corpuscles
B. Muscle spindles
C. Tendon organs
D. Meissner corpuscles

Pacinian corpuscles

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Which statement describes an employee?

A. Sets the fee for services
B. Is paid with taxes deducted
C. Has own equipment
D. Determines own hours

Is paid with taxes deducted

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Which describes an independent contractor and contract labor?

A. Receives payment with taxes deducted
B. Is told how long each massage session will be
C. Is given tools and materials to perform services
D. Provides services without supervision

Provides services without supervision

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Which muscle lies next to the carotid artery and should not be massaged?

A. Trapezius
B. Splenius capitis
C. Levator scapulae
D. Sternocleidomastoid

Sternocleidomastoid

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Which muscle is located directly inferior to the scapular spine?

A. Teres minor
B. Infraspinatus
C. Supraspinatus
D. Subscapularis

Infraspinatus

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If there is an injury to the acromioclavicular joint, which end of the clavicle is involved?

A. Medial
B. Superior
C. Lateral
D. Anterior

Lateral

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If a client is experiencing pain in the inguinal region, which joint is most likely affected?

A. Ankle
B. Hip
C. Knee
D. Elbow

Hip

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Which muscle group resists knee flexion?

A. Quadriceps
B. Rotators
C. Hamstrings
D. Adductors

Quadriceps

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The kidneys lie in a retroperitoneal position which means they are where in relation to the peritoneum?

A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Within
D. Inferior

Posterior

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What does the diaphragm do during inhalation?

A. Descends
B. Dilates
C. Compresses
D. Ascends

Descends

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What is an involuntary, predictable response to a stimulus?

A. Action potential
B. Motor unit
C. Tract
D. Reflex

Reflex

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Which leg muscle is responsible for dorsiflexion at the ankle joint?

A. Fibularis longus
B. Gastrocnemius
C. Tibialis anterior
D. Popliteus

Tibialis anterior

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For a skeletal muscle to contract, what must happen first?

A. The bone must move
B. The muscle must stimulate a nerve
C. A nerve must stimulate the muscle
D. An agonist must relax

A nerve must stimulate the muscle

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Which skin condition is contagious?

A. Seborrheic dermatitis
B. Decubitus ulcer
C. Impetigo
D. Psoriasis

Impetigo

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Who founded the Touch Research Institute?

A. Tiffany Field
B. Florence Nightingale
C. John Harvey Kellogg
D. Pehr Henrik Ling

Tiffany Field

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Which movements do a hinge joint allow?

A. Adduction and abduction
B. Flexion and extension
C. Inversion and eversion
D. Pronation and supination

Flexion and extension

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Which type of joint moves in one plane only?

A. Saddle
B. Ball and socket
C. Ellipsoid
D. Pivot

Pivot

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Which action shortens muscles of the anterior neck?

A. Extension
B. Rotation
C. Flexion
D. Supination

Flexion

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Muscles that can entrap the brachial plexus are:

A. pectoralis major and subscapularis.
B. pectoralis minor and serratus anterior.
C. scalenes and pectoralis major.
D. scalenes and pectoralis minor.

scalenes and pectoralis minor.

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Which receptors are activated by tension at musculotendinous junctions and inhibit muscle contraction during stretching?

A. Golgi tendon organs
B. Baroreceptors
C. Nociceptors
D. Muscle spindles

Golgi tendon organs

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Which muscle is in the hamstring group?

A. Rectus femoris
B. Biceps brachii
C. Sartorius
D. Biceps femoris

Biceps femoris

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Which muscle is the prime mover of elbow extension?

A. Coracobrachialis
B. Triceps brachii
C. Biceps brachii
D. Brachioradialis

Triceps brachii

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Which muscle is in the hamstring group and attaches to the fibula? A. Semitendinosus B. Biceps femoris C. Semimembranosus D. Rectus femoris

Biceps femoris

The pyloric sphincter regulates the movement of which substance? A. Chyme B. Lymph C. Bile D. Feces

Chyme

A client rotating the shoulder without help from the massage practitioner is an example of which motion? A. Passive B. Active assisted C. Active resisted D. Active

Active

Which muscles are most likely involved in temporomandibular dysfunction? A. Scalenes, temporalis, and pterygoids B. Masseter, pterygoids, and temporalis C. Temporalis, buccinator, and masseter D. Pterygoids, zygomaticus, and temporalis

Masseter, pterygoids, and temporalis

What are the signs of inflammation? A. Ischemia, heat, redness, and pain B. Cyanosis, pallor, pain, and swelling C. Pain, swelling, redness, and heat D. Pallor, swelling, heat, and pain

Pain, swelling, redness, and heat

Which heart chamber pumps blood to the lungs? A. Right atrium B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Left ventricle

Right ventricle

Trigger points produce sensations in areas of the body other than their sites of origin in a phenomenon called: A. referred pain. B. gate control theory. C. ischemic compression. D. local twitch response.

referred pain.

Which massage approach is generally the most effective for a client who is in hospice? A. Lighter pressure and fast speed B. Deeper pressure and fast speed C. Lighter pressure and slow speed D. Deeper pressure and slow speed

Lighter pressure and slow spee

What does the “M” stand for in the M-C-E protocol for acute inflammation? A. Manage B. Monitor C. Move D. Manipulate

Move

Which area of the body is a common location for a sprain? A. Ankle B. Back C. Neck D. Hip

Ankle

Which action is a sign of an obstructed airway? A. Hands over the throat B. Coughing C. Hands over the chest D. Staggered gait

Hands over the throat

Which muscle inserts on the olecranon process? A. Biceps brachii B. Triceps brachii C. Coracobrachialis D. Brachioradialis

Triceps brachii

What is an appropriate response if a client has an emotional release during treatment? A. Continue with the massage, using opened-ended questions to disclose and further release the emotional issue B. Stop massaging, leave the room to give the client privacy, and ask the client to open the door when dressed C. Stop massaging, remain in the room unless instructed to leave, and obtain permission before resuming massage D. Continue with the massage and tell the client emotional releases are out of massage scope of practice

Stop massaging, remain in the room unless instructed to leave, and obtain permission before resuming massag

Circular effleurage and vibration applied on the abdomen in clockwise direction is helpful for which condition? A. Ulcerative colitis B. Diarrhea C. Constipation D. Urinary incontinence

Constipation

Which is a saddle joint? A. Proximal radioulnar B. Carpometacarpal of the thumb C. Distal talocrural D. Metacarpophalangeal of the thumb

Carpometacarpal of the thumb

A client approaches a massage practitioner at a social function and asks about another clients’ progress. If the practitioner complies, which code of ethics principle is breeched? A. Autonomy B. Veracity C. Confidentiality D. Fidelity

Confidendentiality

A practitioner’s next client is also his paternal grandmother. During the session, she begins to make derogatory remarks about her daughter-in-law (the practitioner's mother). What is the best course of action? A. Agree with his grandmother's remarks B. Disagree with his grandmother's remarks C. State the remarks are inappropriate in this setting D. Refer his grandmother to a different practitioner for future sessions

Refer his grandmother to a different practitioner for future sessions

While using deep pressure massage, the client complains of pain. What is the best approach for the massage practitioner to take? A. Explain why this technique is needed and continue with deep pressure B. Reduce pressure, ask client to qualify the pain level, and work below the pain threshold C. Continue with massage, using deep pressure only during client exhalation D. Apply ice on a neighbouring area to distract the client from the pain

Reduce pressure, ask client to qualify the pain level, and work below the pain threshold

Scented massage lubricants should be avoided because they: A. may interfere with releasing tension. B. often stain linens. C. are cost-prohibitive. D. may trigger allergies in clients.

may trigger allergies in clients.

Which type of lubricant should a practitioner avoid using? A. Mineral oil B. Nut-based C. Hypoallergenic D. Vegetable-based

Mineral oil

If a client has pain in the acromial region, which joint is most likely involved? A. Elbow B. Hip C. Knee D. Shoulder

Shoulder

Which term means movement toward the midline of the body? A. Flexion B. Abduction C. Adduction D. Extension

Adduction

What effect does heat have on the body’s collagen? A. Causes shortening B. Increases extensibility C. Facilitates repair D. Increases conductivity

Increases extensibility

If a person comes across an unconscious individual, what should the person do first? A. Try to locate a pulse B. Check for responsiveness C. Clear the airway by tilting the head back D. Call emergency services immediately

Check for responsiveness

What percentage of income from bartered services is reportable to the IRS? A. 0% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%

Which term means a brief summary of an individual’s education, experiences, and accomplishments related to a particular skill set? A. Record B. Assessment C. Resume D. Documentation

Resume

Acronyms F-DAR and SOAP are examples of which part of practice? A. Massage organizations B. Accounting methods C. Client documentation D. Advanced certification

Client documentation

Which muscles are the rotator cuff group? A. Infraspinatus, subscapularis, teres major, and subclavius B. Teres minor, subscapularis, supraspinatus, and infraspinatus C. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, pectoralis minor, and subscapularis D. Subclavius, infraspinatus, teres major, and supraspinatus

Teres minor, subscapularis, supraspinatus, and infraspinatus

A practitioner lengthens a client’s hamstrings while the client flexes the knee is an example of which motion? A. Active resisted B. Active assisted C. Passive D. Active

Active resisted

A muscle being inhibited by contraction of its antagonist is an example of: A. Active assisted range of motion B. Reciprocal inhibition C. Hilton’s Law D. Law of facilitation

Reciprocal inhibition

Which muscle is an antagonist to the rhomboids? A. Serratus anterior B. Levator scapulae C. Infraspinatus D. Deltoid

Serratus anterior

Which muscle is synergistic to biceps femoris? A. Fibularis longus B. Rectus femoris C. Gastrocnemius D. Soleus

Gastrocnemius

Which information should be given to the emergency dispatcher when calling 9-1-1? A. Name and credentials of the caller B. Time and place of the emergency C. If police are needed with the emergency D. What the emergency is and the location

What the emergency is and the location

If a client refuses to fill out the intake form, what should the massage practitioner do? A. Ask the questions aloud and document the client’s answers B. Fill out the intake form after the session C. Conduct the intake using objective assessments D. Refuse to perform the session until the client is compliant

Ask the questions aloud and document the client’s answers

To reduce physical strain when performing massage, the practitioner should keep his or her knees slightly: A. flexed B. extended C. rotated D. inverted

flexed

Which entity was created to protect client rights including the storage, transmission and dissemination of personal information? A. Court ordered subpoena B. Medical release signed by client C. Treatment plan based on assessments D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

Crepitus can be detected by which means? A. Observation B. Palpation C. Smelling D. Listening

Listening

Vasodilators may be prescribed to treat which condition? A. Inflammation B. Cough C. Diabetes D. Hypertension

Hypertension

Which function does the nasal cavity perform? A. Gas exchange B. Conditions incoming air C. Voice production D. Regulates of blood pH

Conditions incoming air

Which structure lies between the stomach and small intestine? A. Ampulla of Vater B. Splenic flexure C. Ileocecal sphincter D. Pyloric sphincter

Pyloric sphincter

What muscle is synergistic to iliopsoas? A. Piriformis B. Gluteus maximus C. Rectus femoris D. Semitendinosus

Rectus femoris

Massage considerations for a client who wears a transdermal patch include: A. using a semireclining position while supine to reduce medication side effects. B. postponing massage for 24 hours after the patch is applied. C. avoiding techniques that cause rocking or shaking because excessive body motion may increase the absorption of the medicine. D. avoiding using lubricants around the edge of the patch because it may interfere with the patch adhesive.

avoiding using lubricants around the edge of the patch because it may interfere with the patch adhesive.

Which part of the brain regulates muscle tone, posture and balance, and coordinates complex movements? A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Cerebellum D. Diencephalon

Cerebellum

Which muscle crosses two joints? A. Gastrocnemius B. Brachialis C. Soleus D. Piriformis

Gastrocnemius

Contraction of which muscle initiates knee flexion? A. Biceps brachii B. Popliteus C. Rectus femoris D. Pectineus

Popliteus

A massage practitioner notes the client has pallor. Which skin characteristic does this term represent? A. Dryness B. Blue tint C. Roughness D. Paleness

Paleness

Which muscle spans only one joint? A. Coracobrachialis B. Biceps brachii C. Flexor carpi radialis D. Triceps brachii

Coracobrachialis

Which term is used to describe contraction in which muscle tension remains almost constant as muscle length changes? A. Tonic B. Isotonic C. Isometric D. Rhythmic

Isotonic

What are attachments of the sacrotuberous ligament? A. Sciatic notch to the lesser trochanter B. Sacrum to the ischial tuberosity C. Ischial spine to the sacrum D. Ischial spine to the greater trochanter

Sacrum to the ischial tuberosity

How long an individual can hold his or her breath is determined by rising levels of: A. carbon dioxide. B. oxygen. C. glucose. D. acid.

carbon dioxide.

During client assessment, which information would be considered objective data? A. Pain at end of passive range of motion B. Frequent headaches C. Elevated right shoulder D. Dizziness upon standing

Elevated right shoulder

Which condition is characterized by periodic episodes of vasospasms in fingers and toes? A. Multiple sclerosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Raynaud disease D. Varicose veins

Raynaud disease

Which condition is characterized by chest pain from a temporary reduction of blood flow to the heart? A. Arrhythmia B. Heartburn C. Angina pectoris D. Myocardial infarction

Angina pectoris

Which condition is the presence of plaque within arteries? A. Phlebitis B. Atherosclerosis C. Fibrosis D. Pyelonephritis

Atherosclerosis

What term means heart attack? A. Angina pectoris B. Hypertension C. Arteriosclerosis D. Myocardial infarction

Myocardial infarction

Which process is a protective response to tissue damage resulting from a variety of causes, including infection and trauma? A. Inflammation B. Metabolism C. Fibrosis D. Thixotropy

Inflammation

Which type of headache is recurring and often provoked by a trigger factor? A. Concussion B. Tension C. Migraine D. Sinus

Migraine

Which term means inflammation of the veins? A. Myocarditis B. Phlebitis C. Arthritis D. Cystitis

Phlebitis

Which condition is a fungal infection? A. Athlete’s foot B. Gout C. Seborrheic dermatitis D. Wart

Athlete’s foot

Plantar warts are caused by: A. bacteria B. fungi C. protozoa D. viruses

viruses

Which type of pain lasts less than 30 days and is usually related to specific injuries or disease processes? A. Acute B. Local C. Chronic D. Systemic

Acute

Which type of data is gained from a client's perception? A. Assessment B. Statistical C. Objective D. Subjective

Subjective

Which term means permission given by a client after he or she has been informed of all relevant facts regarding treatment? A. Transference B. Informed consent C. Medical clearance D. Assessment

Informed consent

Which term means data the practitioner notices, and is measurable and quantitative? A. Subjective B. Statistical C. Objective D. Intake

Objective

If the client’s skin leaves an elevation or a tent after it is pinched, what does this suggest? A. Edema B. Active trigger points C. Dehydration D. Low platelet count

Dehydration

What is the definition of trigger point? A. Area of numbness brought on by neuropathy B. Gap between two nerves where information is transmitted C. Junction between a muscle and a tendon that is hypermobile D. Localized palpable taut band within a skeletal muscle

Localized palpable taut band within a skeletal muscle

Which term refers to quality of resistance felt by the practitioner at the end of passive range of motion? A. End-feel B. Crepitus C. Tonus D. All-or-none

End-feel

Which type of drug is used to prevent or reduce the blood’s ability to form clots? A. Antitussive B. Antibiotic C. Anticoagulant D. Antiarrhythmic

Anticoagulant

Which term represents a condition in which massage can be administered safely while avoiding an area of the body? A. Absolute contraindication B. Absolute indication C. Local indication D. Local contraindication

Local contraindication

Areas of the body containing tissues, such as nerves, blood vessels, and glands that are vulnerable to harm from pressure are called: A. trigger points B. muscle spasms C. endangerment sites D. reflex arcs

endangerment

Which statement describes gait? A. Neurological theory about how massage decreases pain B. Manner in which a person walks or runs C. Muscle responsible for causing a specific or desired action D. Position of the body over a base of support

Manner in which a person walks or runs

Malpractice insurance is also known as: A. professional liability insurance B. workman compensation insurance C. term life insurance D. disability insurance

professional liability insurance

Massage helps to reduce pain in which type of headaches? A. Migraine B. Concussion C. Tension D. Hangover

Tension

What is the most effective measure to control disease transmission? A. Vitamin supplements B. Regular physical exercise C. Annual medical examinations D. Hand hygiene

Hand hygiene

According to the CDC, the lathering stage of effective hand washing should last how many seconds? A. 510 B. 20 C. 30 D. 60

Which term describes the therapist transfer of past feelings, conflicts, attitudes into professional relationships, situations, and circumstances? A. Psychotransference B. Transference C. Countertransference D. Metatransference

Countertransference

A massage practitioner should avoid dating clients because it: A. violates the practitioner’s scope of practice. B. leads to malpractice claims. C. blurs client-practitioner boundaries. D. is illegal in most states.

blurs client-practitioner boundaries

A client with which condition needs to be screened for a deep vein thrombosis? A. Recent surgery B. Ankle sprain C. Emphysema D. Anemia

Recent surgery

According to the National Hospice and Palliative Care Organization, which diagnosis is the most common of those in hospice care? A. Cancer B. Dementia C. Cardiac disease D. Respiratory disease

Cancer

Which theory states that pain is a response or output determined by how the brain interprets incoming information or input? A. Biopsychosocial B. Neuromatrix C. Sliding filament D. All or non

Neuromatrix

Which condition occurs when a muscle or its tendons become overstretched or torn? A. Strain B. Sprain C. Arthritis D. Herniation

Strain

In clients with type 2 diabetes mellitus, massage over recent injection sites was found to increase insulin absorption which could contribute to a complication such as: A. anemia. B. hypoglycemia. C. hyperglycemia. D. ischemia.

hypoglycemia.

The National Certification Board of Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork (NCBTMB), recommends client files be maintained for how many years after the last date of service? A. One B. Four C. Seven D. Ten

Four

Which type of insurance protects service-providing professionals from bearing the full cost of defending against a negligence claim made by a client? A. General liability B. Healthcare C. Professional liability D. Workman compensation

Profession

Which condition is a localized injury to the skin and underlying tissues, usually over a bony prominence from sustained pressure? A. Fever blister B. Furuncle C. Decubitus ulcer D. Eczema

Decubitubitus ulcer

Which condition is a fungal infection of the skin? A. Impetigo B. Ringworm C. Furuncle D. Psoriasis

Ringworm

Which condition appears as cold sores on the skin and mucous membranes? A. Impetigo B. Ringworm C. Herpes simplex D. Decubitus ulcer

Herpes simplex

Which term means the brain’s ability to change, remodel, and reorganize itself to improve adaptability? A. Neuroplasticity B. Meta-analysis C. Neurofeedback D. Metacognition

Neuroplasticity

Which condition is characterized by tender points, widespread pain, joint stiffness, fatigue, non-refreshing sleep, and mood problems? A. Multiple sclerosis B. Chronic fatigue syndrome C. Fibromyalgia D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Fibromyalgia

Which condition involves loss of articular cartilage and is often called wear and tear arthritis? A. Lyme disease B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Gout

Osteoarthritis

Which condition involves spasms of sternocleidomastoid? A. Tinnitus B. Tendonitis C. Tetanus D. Torticollis

Torticollis

Which condition is characterized by the protrusion of the nucleus pulposus through a tear in the annulus fibrosus? A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Herniated disc C. Kyphosis D. Subluxation

Herniated disc

Which condition is characterized by a decrease in bone density with increased susceptibility to fractures? A. Osteoarthritis B. Spondylitis C. Scoliosis D. Osteoporosis

Osteoporosis

Which condition is an accumulation of synovial fluid in the popliteal area? A. Bursitis B. Baker cyst C. Thrombophlebitis D. Peripheral neuropath

Baker cyst

Which condition is an autoimmune disorder in which myelin sheaths in the central nervous system are progressively destroyed? A. Alzheimer disease B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Bell palsy D. Multiple sclerosis

Multiple sclerosis

Which condition can develop after having had chickenpox? A. Impetigo B. Shingles C. Eczema D. Psoriasi

Shingles

Which term means understanding the basic purpose, process, and value of scientific studies? A. Documentation B. Assessment C. Treatment planning D. Research literacy

Research literacy

What factor can cause chronic bronchitis? A. Alcohol overconsumption B. Family history C. Cigarette smoking D. Mineral deficiency

Cigarette smok

Which structures are sites of gas exchange between air in the lungs and blood in pulmonary capillaries? A. Bronchi B. Lobes C. Alveoli D. Pleurae

Alveoli

What is the most common cause of death from infectious disease in the United States? A. Hepatitis B B. Pneumonia C. Herpes simplex D. Tuberculosis

Pneumonia

How does the coronal plane divide the body? A. Diagonal sections B. Left and right sections C. Anterior and posterior D. Superior and inferior

Anterior and posterior

Which vertebra is the atlas? A. C1 B. C2 C. C3 D. C7

Which is the attachment of biceps femoris? A. Tibial tuberosity B. Medial epicondyle of the femur C. Greater trochanter of the femur D. Ischial tuberosity

Ischial tuberosity

Which structure secretes the hormones insulin and glucagon? A. Thyroid B. Pancreas C. Pituitary D. Ovary

Pancreas

If a client has pain in the calf while standing on tip toes, which muscle is most likely involved? A. Semitendinosus B. Rectus femoris C. Quadratus lumborum D. Gastrocnemius

Gastrocnemius

The mastoid process is located on which skull bone? A. Temporal B. Frontal C. Sphenoid D. Parietal

Temporalis

The coracoid process is located on which bone? A. Radius B. Clavicle C. Scapula D. Ulna

Scapula

What is the largest organ of the body? A. Liver B. Skin C. Brain D. Heart

Skin

Which bone contains the deltoid tuberosity? A. Scapula B. Sternum C. Ulna D. Humerus

Humerus

Peripheral neuropathy is a frequent complication of: A. diabetes mellitus. B. irritable bowel syndrome. C. high risk pregnancy. D. sinus headaches.

diabetes mellitus.

Identifying conditions for which massage may have harmful effects is described as: A. being beyond a practitioner's scope of practice. B. requiring input from the client's primary healthcare provider. C. being an essential duty of the practitioner. D. requiring discussion during subsequent sessions.

being an essential duty of the practitioner.

Research has shown an effect of massage is: A. increased blood viscosity. B. decreased platelet count. C. increased heart rate. D. decreased blood pressure.

decreased blood pressure.

A statement describing bruises is that they are: A. locally contraindicated until they turn greenish yellow. B. locally contraindicated until they have completely resolved. C. an absolute contraindication. D. never contraindicated.

locally contraindicated until they turn greenish yellow.

The acromion process is located on which bone? A. Radius B. Ulna C. Sternum D. Scapula

Scapula

According to reflexology, how many zones are in the body? A. 2 B. 5 C. 7 D. 10

Which massage approach is appropriate for stretch marks? A. Hacking tapotement B. Myofascial release C. Light pressure D. Transverse friction

Light pressure

Clients with osteoporosis should receive lighter than normal pressure due to: A. reduced oxygen supply. B. increased neuropathy. C. loss of bone density. D. decreased immunity.

loss of bone density.

Which guideline should be followed when terminating a massage while in session due to client misconduct? A. Answering client questions while in the massage room B. Leaving the room without telling the client C. Withdrawing hands from the client and stepping toward the door D. Waiting in the massage room while the client gets dressed

Withdrawing hands from the client and stepping toward the door

Which term means relative constancy of the body’s internal environment? A. Immunity B. Susceptibility C. Polarization D. Homeostasis

Homeostasis

When fascial layers become restricted, the most effective approach is to: A. perform manual lymphatic drainage. B. perform superficial effleurage. C. perform myofascial release. D. perform percussion.

perform myofascial release.

Which organelle provides most of the cell’s adenosine triphosphate (ATP)? A. Mitochondrion B. Ribosome C. Golgi body D. Nucleus

Mitochondrion

Which approach promotes trust in the therapeutic relationship? A. Being professional only during the session B. Saying yes to all client requests C. Maintaining clear boundaries D. Becoming close, personal friends with all clients

Maintaining clear boundaries

Which term refers to the arm? A. Brachial B. Axillary C. Antebrachial D. Antecubital

Brachial

Which term refers to the posterior knee? A. Lumbar B. Popliteal C. Plantar D. Patellar

Popliteal

Revealing thoughts, feelings, and personal history to clients is called: A. transference. B. self-care. C. intimacy. D. self-disclosure.

self-disclosure.

Which technique is effective in reducing tenderness in myofascial trigger points? A. Effleurage B. Transverse friction C. Pétrissage D. Cupping tapotement

Transverse friction

Spasms in which muscle can lead to irritation of the sciatic nerve? A. Obturator internus B. Gluteus minimus C. Piriformis D. Pectineus

Piriformis

If a client has difficulty actively flexing the elbow and abducting the shoulder, which muscles are most likely involved? A. Supraspinatus and deltoid B. Pectoralis major and sternocleidomastoid C. Brachialis and deltoid D. Triceps brachii and serratus anterior

Brachialis and deltoid

Which movement demonstrates medial rotation? A. Tilting the head to the side B. Bending the knee C. Turning the hip outward D. Turning the shoulder inward

Turning the shoulder inward

In which abdominopelvic quadrant are the liver and gallbladder located? A. Upper left B. Lower right C. Lower left D. Upper right

Upper right

Which movement involves concentric contraction of triceps brachii? A. Elbow flexion B. Shoulder flexion C. Elbow extension D. Shoulder abduction

Elbow extension

Which muscle would be involved in a rotator cuff injury? A. Supraspinatus B. Brachioradialis C. Pectoralis minor D. Levator scapulae

Supraspinatus

Which statement describes the pes anserinus? A. Type of seizure disorder B. Common insertion of three muscles on the medial proximal tibia C. Nerve-involved conditions such as Bell palsy and multiple sclerosis D. Type of muscle contracture

Common insertion of three muscles on the medial proximal tibia

Which muscles make up the pes anserinus? A. Adductor longus, pectineus, and sartorius B. Gracilis, semitendinosus, and sartorius C. Brachialis, trapezius, and rhomboids D. Gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris

Gracilis, semitendinosus, and sartorius

Which bony landmark is involved in tennis elbow? A. Medial epicondyle of the humerus B. Coronoid process of the ulna C. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus D. Olecranon process of the ulna

Lateral epicondyle of the humerus

Which muscle would most likely be involved in adhesive capsulitis? A. Rhomboids B. Trapezius C. Pectoralis major D. Subscapularis

Subscapularis

Which muscle concentrically contracts in elbow flexion? A. Triceps brachii B. Biceps brachii C. Coracobrachialis D. Anconeus

Biceps brachii

Which aspect of business are self-employed massage practitioners required to pay? A. Professional liability insurance B. Accounting services C. Social Security and Medicare taxes D. Mileage between home and office

Social Security and Medicare taxes

If a client has lower back pain while supine, under which area should a bolster be placed to decrease discomfort? A. Knees B. Shoulders C. Sacrum D. Ankles

Knees

Which age group is most likely to be affected by Alzheimer disease? A. Infancy B. Childhood C. Adolescence D. Senescence

Senescence

Which muscle abducts and laterally rotates the hip? A. Piriformis B. Gracilis C. Pectineus D. Sartorius

Piriformis

A hypertonic iliopsoas muscle can create or exacerbate which condition? A. Kyphosis B. Osgood-Schlatter disease C. Lordosis D. Fibromyalgia syndrome

Lordosis

Core stability involves strength in which muscle? A. Pectoralis major B. Tibialis anterior C. Rectus abdominis D. Serratus anterior

Rectus abdominis

Which term means a broad flat tendon? A. Epithelium B. Aponeurosis C. Meninges D. Membrane

Aponeurosis

Which condition is one of the most common diseases of the elderly? A. Multiple sclerosis B. Osteoarthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Diabetes

Osteoarthritis

A factor increasing the risk of falling in the elderly is: A. decreased vision. B. diabetes mellitus. C. slower gait. D. angina pectoris.

decreased vision.

What is the primary structure injured during a sprain? A. Tendon B. Ligament C. Bone D. Muscle

Ligament

Use of vigorous percussion should be avoided over which area? A. Quadriceps B. Lower back C. Shoulders D. Soles of feet

Lower back

Which person is an example of a tactical athlete? A. Parent B. Healthcare provider C. Teacher D. Police officer

Police officer

Which response is activated during stress? A. Parasympathetic nervous system B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Visceral reflex D. Somatic inverse reflex

Sympathetic nervous system

What structure lies anterior to the esophagus? A. Aorta B. Thymus C. Trachea D. Thyroid

Trachea

Which organ stores blood cells and destroys old, worn out red blood cells and platelets? A. Spleen B. Kidneys C. Gallbladder D. Thyroid

Spleen

Which term means increased local blood flow? A. Ischemia B. Hematuria C. Hyperemia D. Polyuria

Hyperemia

Which muscles elevate the rib cage during inhalation? A. Subscapularis and sternocleidomastoid B. Diaphragm and pectoralis major C. Internal intercostals D. External intercostals

External intercostals

Which body system produces heat, creates movement, and maintains posture? A. Integumentary B. Nervous C. Circulatory D. Muscular

Muscular

Which joint connects the axial skeleton to the upper extremity? A. Sternoclavicular B. Scapulohumeral C. Acromioclavicular D. Glenohumeral

Sternoclavicular

Bursa are usually located between a: A. muscle and a tendon. B. bone and a tendon. C. joint capsule and articular cartilage. D. costal cartilage and a muscle.

bone and a tendon.

Which type of joint moves in only one plane? A. Hinge B. Ball and socket C. Saddle D. Ellipsoid

Hinge

What term describes a muscle whose length remains the same while generating force? A. Eccentric B. Isotonic C. Concentric D. Isometric

Isometric

Which term describes medial rotation of the forearm? A. Radial deviation B. Pronation C. Supination D. Ulnar deviation

Pronation

Which term means turning the foot inward, so the bottom of the foot faces the midline of the body? A. Eversion B. Supination C. Inversion D. Pronation

Inversion

Which joint is an ellipsoid joint? A. Tibiofemoral B. Acromioclavicular C. Radiocarpal D. Talocrural

Radiocarpal

Which joint is between the skull and the first cervical vertebra? A. Atlantoaxial B. Temporoparietal C. Intervertebral D. Atlantooccipital

Atlantooccipital

What structure emerges from an intervertebral foramen? A. Blood vessel B. Spinal cord C. Nerve root D. Intervertebral disc

Nerve root

What is another name for the zygomatic arch? A. Chin B. Cheekbone C. Forehead D. Jaw

Cheekbone

Which bones are located distal to the carpal bones? A. Metacarpals B. Ossicles C. Metatarsals D. Cuneiforms

Metacarpals

Which bone moves during supination and pronation? A. Humerus B. Radius C. Ulna D. Clavicle

Radius

From which bony landmark do the flexors of the wrist originate? A. Lateral epicondyle B. Radial tuberosity C. Deltoid tuberosity D. Medial epicondyle

Medial epicondyle

Which joint allows supination and pronation of the forearm? A. Ulnocarpal B. Humeroulnar C. Radioulnar D. Radiocarpal

Radioulnar

Which joint is the knee? A. Talocrural B. Acetabulofemoral C. Tibiofibular D. Tibiofemoral

Tibiofemoral

What is the scientific name for the hip socket? A. Glenoid B. Acetabulum C. Olecranon D. Foramen

Acetabulum

What is the name of the half-ringed fibrocartilage disk inside the knee joint? A. Meniscus B. Innominate C. Pes anserinus D. Os cox

Meniscus

The term costal refers to which area? A. Spine B. Ribs C. Hips D. Sternum

Ribs

What is the medial clavicular joint called? A. Sternocostal joint B. Costochondral joint C. Sternoclavicular joint D. Acromioclavicular joint

Sternoclavicular joint

Which of the following joints is classified as biaxial? A. Glenohumeral joint B. Acromioclavicular joint C. Sternocostal joint D. Radiocarpal joint

Radiocarpal joint

Which condition is a reduction in the quantity of either red blood cells or hemoglobin, which impairs the blood’s ability to carry oxygen to cells? A. Ischemia B. Anemia C. Hyperemia D. Hypoglycemia

Anemia

Lifting, compressing, and releasing soft tissues such as skin and muscle describes which massage technique? A. Effleurage B. Pétrissage C. Nerve stroke D. Wringing friction

Pétrissage

Which approach is appropriate for pregnancy massage? A. Place a cushion under the client’s breasts while prone B. Postpone massage until the second trimester C. Avoid performing techniques on the medial ankle D. Tilt the client’s torso to the left when supine

Tilt the client’s torso to the left when supine

Which statement describes the massage technique friction? A. Lifting soft tissues vertically and then compressing and releasing them B. Rubbing one body surface against another while maintaining constant pressure C. Application of gliding techniques that are repeated and follow the contours of the body D. Repetitive staccato striking movements of the hands, moving simultaneously or alternately

Rubbing one body surface against another while maintaining constant pressure

A client complains of fatigue and is running a fever. How should the massage practitioner proceed? A. Perform a lighter than normal massage, avoiding the head and neck B. Proceed with the massage without any modifications C. Proceed with the massage, using a semireclining position while supine D. Postpone the massage until the client is fever-free for at least 24 hours without the use of fever-reducing drugs

Postpone the massage until the client is fever-free for at least 24 hours without the use of fever-reducing drugs

Bell palsy involves which cranial nerve? A. I B. V C. VII D. X

What is the most common cause of a urinary tract infection? A. Viruses B. Bacteria C. Trauma D. Fungi

Bacteria

Which population group is more prone to osteoporosis? A. Caucasian males B. Adolescent males C. Postmenopausal females D. Asian females

Postmenopausal females

Which condition is indicated for massage? A. Fibromyalgia B. Fever C. Abnormal lumps D. Acute inflammation

Fibromyalgia

Which positioning demonstrates good body mechanics? A. Feet close together and flexed at the waist B. Majority of weight on the right foot C. Knees locked with back straight D. Knees flexed while shifting weight between the feet

Knees flexed while shifting weight between the feet

Which treatment plan is appropriate for a client who is diagnosed with an HIV infection? A. Obtain medical clearance, then use vibration over the thymus B. Proceed with the massage while wearing disposable gloves C. This condition is an absolute contraindication D. Adjust the massage to the client’s vitality, and avoid open sores

Adjust the massage to the client’s vitality, and avoid open sores

Which technique is repetitive rhythmic or arrhythmic striking movements of the hands moving either simultaneously or alternately? A. Effleurage B. Pétrissage C. Vibration D. Tapotement

Tapotement

Blood traveling through the femoral artery must first pass through which artery? A. External iliac B. Sciatic C. Basilic D. Saphenous

External iliac

A massage practitioner working in a hospital is more likely than a practitioner working in a spa to contract which disease? A. Hepatitis A B. Leukemia C. Psoriasis D. Hepatitis B

Hepatitis B

Which muscle flexes the hip and extends the knee? A. Rectus femoris B. Gluteus maximus C. Piriformis D. Semitendinosus

Rectus femoris

A massage practitioner notices a large mole on a client’s posterior arm, which has changed to a darker color over the past few visits. What is the most appropriate course of action? A. Add tea tree essential oil to the massage lubricant and proceed with the session B. Proceed with the session and say nothing since moles are non-contagious C. Ask if the client is aware of it and recommend medical evaluation D. Apply hot pack over the area for 20 minutes, then perform deep friction

Ask if the client is aware of it and recommend medical evaluation

If a client diagnosed with thrombophlebitis in the left calf comes in for a massage, which treatment plan is appropriate? A. Postpone the massage until the condition resolves B. Proceed with the massage and avoid the affected area C. Postpone the massage until all pain is gone D. Proceed with the massage, using deep pressure over the affected area

Postpone the massage until the condition resolves

Which condition is exaggeration of the normal anterior curvature of the lumbar spine? A. Scoliosis B. Spondylosis C. Kyphosis D. Lordosis

Lordosis

In which direction is deep pressure generally applied during effleurage? A. Centripetally B. Anteriorly C. Centrifugally D. Inferiorly

Centripetally

How is a code of ethics best described? A. Federal rules and regulations B. Set of guiding moral principles C. Common business practices D. State licensing laws

Set of guiding moral principles

An elderly female client with a stooped posture arrives for her massage. Which treatment plan is appropriate? A. Proceed with the massage, working vigorously to promote circulation B. Proceed with the massage, working deeply on the back to loosen tight muscles and promote correct posture C. Ask about medical conditions such as osteoporosis and position for comfort during the massage D. Postpone massage until the condition is resolved surgically

Ask about medical conditions such as osteoporosis and position for comfort during the massage

A client has a scheduled a massage to reduce pain in the lower back the day after a low- impact vehicular accident. Which approach is part of a safe treatment for the client? A. Reschedule the massage until after inflammation in the area is reduced, then conduct a thorough intake to formulate an appropriate treatment plan B. Proceed with the massage, using deep pressure on the area to promote pain relief C. Proceed with the massage, using deep pressure on the area followed by 20 minutes of ice application D. Refuse to massage until after given clearance by the healthcare provider

Reschedule the massage until after inflammation in the area is reduced, then conduct a thorough intake to formulate an appropriate treatment plan

Which receptors monitor changes in muscle length and respond by reflexive contraction during stretching? A. Golgi tendon organs B. Muscle spindles C. Pacinian corpuscles D. Ruffini corpuscles

Muscle spindles

If a client has a condition contraindicated it means the condition: A. is managed by medication. B. requires the massage to be modified or postponed. C. requires immediate medical attention. D. benefits from the massage being performed.

requires the massage to be modified or postponed.

Proper draping methods are essential in massage because they help: A. keep the client focused on breathing patterns. B. with lubricant absorption. C. keep the client warm and promote professionalism. D. the client remains on the massage table.

keep the client warm and p

A person who habitually smokes cigarettes is more likely than a non-smoker to develop which condition? A. Tuberculosis B. Influenza C. Pleurisy D. Emphysema

Emphysema

When a person rises up on the toes, the ankles are in what position? A. Dorsiflexion B. Eversion C. Plantar flexion D. Inversion

Plantar

Which activity violates the Standards of Practice published by the National Certification Board of Therapeutic Massage and Bodyworkers? A. Accepting tips B. Becoming politically active C. Leasing space from a chiropractor D. Dating a current client

Dating a current client

Which nerve is involved in carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Trigeminal B. Ulnar C. Median D. Phrenic

Media

Which term means high blood pressure? A. Hypertension B. Thrombosis C. Arthrosclerosis D. Phlebitis

Hypertension

Which term is a synonym for cystitis? A. Heart attack B. Stroke C. Bladder infection D. Whiplash

Bladde

Massage practitioners conduct a client intake with health histories to: A. obtain consent for treatment. B. polish interviewing skills. C. learn more about the client’s heritage. D. formulate appropriate treatment plans.

formulate appropriate treatment plans.

What are the stages of wound healing, scar formation, and scar maturation? A. Conditioning, endurance, and flexibility B. Inflammation, evaluation, and regeneration C. Inflammation, proliferation, and remodeling D. Conditioning, remodeling, and flexibility

Inflammation, proliferation, and remodelin

When assessing a client’s pain and discomfort, what is the initial question to ask? A. When did it start? B. What makes it better or worse? C. Does the pain radiate? D. How often does it hurt?

When did it start?

What is the best way to proceed when a client does not wish to disrobe? A. Offer to perform the massage through clothing B. Refuse to perform the massage C. Ask the client to disrobe down to undergarments D. Explain to the client the importance of skin-to-skin contact

Offer to perform the massage through clothing

Where would a client report discomfort if diagnosed with diverticulitis? A. Shoulder B. Abdomen C. Hip D. Neck

Abdomen

What type of business entity puts the owner at the greatest risk? A. Corporation B. General partnership C. Sole proprietorship D. Cooperative

Sole proprietorship

Which part of the brain connects to the spinal cord? A. Cerebellum B. Brainstem C. Cerebrum D. Diencephalon

Brainstem

Which muscles are shortened when wearing high-heeled shoes? A. Gastrocnemius and soleus B. Tibialis anterior and posterior C. Gastrocnemius and pectineus D. Plantaris and supinator

Gastrocnemius and soleus

When flexing the knee, what two muscle groups move closer together? A. Calf and quadriceps B. Adductors and hamstrings C. Quadriceps and adductors D. Hamstrings and calf

Hamstrings and calf

The three types of joints of the pelvis are: A. Pubic symphysis, acetabulofemoral, sacrotuberal B. Acetabulofemoral, patellofemoral, tibiofemoral C. Sacroiliac, pubic symphysis, acetabulofemoral D. Sacroiliac, costochondral, tibiofibular

Sacroiliac, pubic symphysis, acetabulofemoral

Where is the thyroid located? A. Within the brain B. Posterior to the sternum C. Superior to the kidneys D. In the throat region

In the throat region

Which method is considered to be the most effective non-surgical method to decrease lymphedema-related swelling? A. Craniosacral homeostatic therapy B. Instrument assisted soft tissue mobilization C. Myofascial lymphatic release D. Manual lymphatic drainage

Manual lymphatic drainage

What type of end-feel is experienced when the articulating bones contact? A. Soft B. Active C. Hard D. Passive

Hard

What are the three fused bones of the pelvis? A. Pubis, ileum, sacrum B. Ischium, pubis, temporal C. Ilium, ischium, sacrum D. Ilium, ischium, pubis

Ilium, ischium, pubis

Which type of cell produces all the protein fibers found in connective tissues? A. Erythrocytes B. Chondrocytes C. Osteoblasts D. Fibroblasts

Fibroblasts

Which term means an increase in blood vessel diameter? A. Vasoconstriction B. Ischemia C. Vasodilation D. Hyperemia

Vasodilalation

A client with an elevated right shoulder would most likely have chronic shortening in which muscles? A. Upper trapezius and levator scapulae B. Latissimus dorsi and serratus anterior C. Middle trapezius and rhomboids D. Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor

Upper trapezius and levator scapulae

Which exercise would strengthen rectus abdominis? A. Squats B. Lunges C. Push ups D. Crunches

Crunches

What is the most common cause of tendonitis? A. Overuse B. Vitamin deficiency C. Trauma D. Bacterial infection

Overuse

What does maximum medical improvement mean? A. The client’s treatment has just started working B. The client’s condition is unlikely to improve C. The standard the client wishes to reach D. The standard the physician wishes the client would reach

The client’s condition is unlikely to improve

Which condition has symptoms similar to sciatica? A. Fibromyalgia B. Torticollis C. Piriformis syndrome D. Thoracic outlet syndrome

Piriformis

Palpation of levator scapulae attachments includes the: A. coracoid process. B. superior angle of the scapula. C. acromion process. D. lateral border of the scapula.

superior angle of the scapula.

Two actions of biceps femoris are: A. hip flexion and knee extension. B. shoulder extension and elbow flexion. C. shoulder flexion and elbow extension. D. hip extension and knee flexion.

hip extension and knee flexion.

Where is the sphenoid bone located? A. Foot B. Skull C. Hand D. Wrist

Skull

Which term means the client is lying on his or her side? A. Prone B. Supine C. Lateral recumbent D. Semi-recumbent

Lateral recumbent

Slow healing of ligament and cartilage injuries is due to: A. hypertrophy of tissues. B. limited vascularity. C. active nerve conduction. D. hemoglobin deficiency.

limited vascularity.

Ice is recommended for: A. pain reduction. B. Raynaud disease. C. wound healing. D. peripheral artery disease.

pain reduction.

According to basic first aid training, what should a choking victim be encouraged to do first? A. Walk B. Relax C. Cough D. Breathe

Cough

The massage practitioner needs to wear disposable gloves if: A. Antibacterial soap is unavailable B. Practitioner’s fingernails are too long C. Client has a systemic viral infection D. Practitioner has fresh wound one or both hands

Practitioner has fresh wound one or both hands

Therapeutic use of cold is called: A. Cryotherapy B. Thalassotherapy C. Thermotherapy D. Myotherapy

Cryotherapy

Cross fiber friction is applied in which direction to the muscle fibers? A. Superficially over B. Parallel to C. Perpendicular to D. Longitudinally over

Perpendicul

Which term is given to persistent pain, which outlasts typical healing time of involved tissues? A. Acute B. Chronic C. Perceptual D. Centralized

Chronic

Where is the anconeus muscle located? A. Hip B. Shoulder C. Knee D. Elbow

Elbow

Which area should remain covered when undraping to perform abdominal massage? A. Medial clavicles B. Lower ribs C. Chest D. Umbilicus

Chest

The gate control theory is used to explain which massage effect? A. Reducing edema B. Decreasing pain C. Increasing blood flow D. Decreasing stress

Decreasing pain

Which area should be massaged first if a client has mild edema in the left knee? A. Left foot B. Left thigh C. Left knee D. Left ankle

Left thigh

Which term means conscious or unconscious movements used to correct imbalances to increase comfort? A. Postural analysis B. Gait C. Dermatomes D. Compensatory patterns

Compensatory patterns

Ischemia can be described as: A. pitting edema. B. low blood sugar. C. reduced sensation to an area. D. decreased local blood flow.

decreased local blood flow.

Blood pressure generally decreases during massage because: A. the heart pumps less blood. B. vasoconstriction occurs in vessels. C. venous flow is impeded. D. the parasympathetic system is activated.

the parasympathetic system is activated.

The manual method based on the zone therapy is: A. chiropractic. B. reflexology. C. Rolfing. D. shiatsu.

reflexology.

Which term describes the modality of Rolfing? A. Zone therapy B. Lymphatic massage C. Structural integration D. Water massage

Structural integration

Cupping tapotement is most effective for which condition? A. Bronchial congestion B. Emphysema C. Congestive heart failure D. Angina pectoris

Bronchial congestion

Swedish massage routines begin and end with which technique? A. Effleurage B. Friction C. Pétrissage D. Vibration

Effleurage

Which treatment plan is appropriate for a frail geriatric client? A. Increase both treatment time and applied pressure. B. Special modifications are unnecessary. C. Perform full range of motion on all joints. D. Use slow and rhythmic techniques.

Use slow and rhythmic techniques.

Which bone is part of the pelvis? A. Sphenoid B. Sacrum C. Femur D. Ileum

Sacrum

Which organ helps regulate body temperature? A. Kidney B. Liver C. Skin D. Lung

Skin

A problem-solving approach to massage that integrates scientific knowledge, clinical expertise, and client preferences describe: A. research literacy. B. health literacy. C. assessment and documentation. D. evidence informed practice.

evidence informed practice.

The shaft of a long bone is known as the: A. diaphysis. B. epiphysis. C. metaphysis. D. periosteum.

diaphysis.

Which muscle should be addressed during massage if a client has lordosis? A. Latissimus dorsi B. Quadratus lumborum C. Gluteus maximus D. Transverse abdominis

Quadratus lumborum

Which condition is an example of a repetitive stress injury? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Chronic fatigue syndrome C. Torticollis D. Whiplash

Carpal tunnel syndrome

Which muscle supinates the forearm? A. Coracobrachialis B. Biceps brachii C. Triceps brachii D. Teres major

Biceps brachii

Which cells break down bone to maintain blood calcium levels? A. Osteocytes B. Osteoclasts C. Osteoprogenitors D. Osteoblasts

Osteoclasts

Relaxing massage activates which division of the nervous system? A. Sympathetic B. Parasympathetic C. Somatic D. Efferent

Parasympathetic

Which nerve bundle passes between the anterior and middle scalene muscles as it moves toward the axilla? A. Cervical plexus B. Solar plexus C. Lumbosacral plexus D. Brachial plexus

Brachial plexus

The bony landmarks located at the distal end of the tibia and fibula are the: A. malleoli. B. foramina. C. epicondyles. D. tuberosities.

malleoli.

Which muscle is located on the posterior leg, crosses two joints, and plantarflexes the ankle and flexes the knee? A. Soleus B. Popliteus C. Gastrocnemius D. Iliopsoas

Gastrocnemius

If a client with diabetes is experiencing hypoglycemia, first aid measures include eating food or beverages containing: A. sodium such as pickles. B. sugar such as regular soda or orange juice. C. fats such as peanuts or nut butters. D. potassium such as bananas.

sugar such as regular soda or orange juice.

During the intake of a new client, he discloses he has severe psoriasis on his back. Which approach is appropriate? A. Explain the condition is contagious and massage will be postponed until it resolves B. Ask him to cleanse the area thoroughly with antibacterial soap then massage the area C. Don disposable gloves and proceed with the massage D. Proceed with the massage and avoid areas of broken skin

Proceed with the massage and avoid areas of broken skin

A client comes in for massage with whiplash. He was in an accident yesterday. His neck is very stiff and sore, and he thinks massage will help. Which treatment plan is appropriate? A. Use lighter pressure on the neck B. Perform deep cross fiber friction and tractioning on the neck C. Treat the neck as a local contraindication D. Perform joint mobilizations on the neck and myofascial techniques on the shoulders

Treat the neck as a local contraindication

Treatment records cannot be released to a third party without the client’s written consent. Exceptions include: A. a subpoena by a court of law. B. request by the client’s physician. C. request by the client’s spouse. D. request by the client’s employer.

a subpoena by a court of law.

The more fixed attachment site of a muscle is called its: A. insertion. B. origin. C. synergist. D. agonist.

origin.

What is the distal attachment site of quadriceps femoris? A. Ischial tuberosity B. Anterior superior iliac spine C. Tibial tuberosity D. Anterior inferior iliac spine

Tibial tuberosity

What is the most medial muscle of the erector spinae group? A. Iliocostalis B. Multifidus C. Longissimus D. Spinalis

Spinalis

Which is the Chinese term for energy or life force? A. Chi B. Ether C. Dosha D. Jitsu

Chi

Which rotator cuff muscle is positioned on the anterior aspect of the scapula? A. Teres major B. Subscapularis C. Infraspinatus D. Supraspinatus

Subscapularis

Which condition is an autoimmune disease of the body’s connective tissues? A. Herpes simplex B. Fibromyalgia C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Chronic fatigue syndrome

Systemic lup

What behavior is the most unethical? A. Playing music the massage practitioner likes during a session B. Mistaking a cyst for a trigger point and applying pressure C. Ignoring a frail client’s request for deeper pressure D. Talking about a client’s problems with another client

Talking about a client’s problems with another client

Which condition is considered an absolute contraindication for massage? A. Influenza B. Cancer C. Multiple sclerosis D. Osteoarthritis

Influenza

Which organ produces bile? A. Gallbladder B. Liver C. Spleen D. Pancreas

Liver

Which muscle needs to be strengthened to reduce an exaggerated anterior pelvic tilt? A. Adductor longus B. Rectus abdominis C. Rectus femoris D. Quadratus lumborum

Rectus abdominis

Which symptom is common with temporomandibular disorders? A. Numbness of the tongue B. Clicking of the jaw C. Nausea D. Sinusitis

Clicking of the jaw

Which consequence is a long-term effect of stress? A. Increased vitality B. Decreased immunity C. Decreased blood pressure D. Increased hemoglobin

Decreased immunity

Movement is absent or extremely limited in which type of joint? A. Synarthrosis B. Biarticular C. Diarthrosis D. Condylar

Synarthrosis

Which type of joint is diarthrosis? A. Fibrous B. Cartilaginous C. Synovial D. Synarthrotic

Synovial

Which practice is India’s traditional healing modality? A. Gua sha B. Reflexology C. Shiatsu D. Ayurveda

Ayurveda

Which term means Ayurvedic energy centers in the body located long the central channel? A. Tsubos B. Zones C. Chakras D. Prakriti

Chakras

Which shoulder actions would stretch pectoral major? A. Adduction and medial rotation B. Abduction and medial rotation C. Adduction and lateral rotation D. Abduction and lateral rotation

Abduction and lateral rotation

If a client seems depressed and discusses thoughts of suicide, what is an appropriate course of action for the massage practitioner to take? A. Provide counselling during the massage then refuse to give the client further sessions B. Express concern and refer the client to a mental health professional after the session C. Stop the massage immediately and ask the client to leave D. Ignore the client’s comments and continue with the massage

Express concern and refer the client to a mental health professional after the session

Practitioners of traditional Chinese medicine rely on feeling the pulses of their clients to gain a better understanding of their condition. Where on the body are these pulses taken? A. Throat B. Feet C. Wrists D. Temples

Wrists

According to foot reflexology, where is the point corresponding to the head and neck? A. Great toe B. Medial arch C. Ankle D. Heel

Great toe

What is the term for the external use of water for therapeutic, palliative, recreational, or hygienic purposes? A. Cryotherapy B. Hydrotherapy C. Thalassotherapy D. Thermotherapy

Hydrotherapy

In what country did shiatsu originate? A. China B. Japan C. India D. Mongolia

Japan

The Heimlich maneuver should be used if the client is in which condition? A. Choking and is unable to cough or speak B. Diabetic and experiencing hypoglycemia C. Having a seizure lasting longer than 5 minutes D. Unable to speak coherently or raise both arms

Choking and is unable to cough or speak

Which type of cell is responsible for blood clotting? A. Thrombocyte B. Lymphocyte C. Erythrocyte D. Leukocyte

Thrombocyte

Which substance darkens skin? A. Keratin B. Melanin C. Carotene D. Melatonin

Melanin

Which bone is in the wrist? A. Navicular B. Sphenoid C. Cuneiform D. Scaphoid

Scaphoid

After the application of skin rolling on a client’s back, the massage practitioner notices the area is now red. This may be the result of: A. ischemia. B. hypertrophy. C. hyperemia. D. recruitment.

hyperemia.

In shiatsu, what is a synonym for tsubo? A. Chakra B. Acupoint C. Trigger point D. Extraordinary vessel

Acupoint

Which term refers to the lower chambers of the heart? A. Ventricles B. Sinuses C. Trunks D. Atria

Ventricles

What is the safest way to massage the neck area of a client with osteoarthritis? A. Manual traction B. Joint mobilization and stretching C. Deep pressure along cervical vertebra D. Light pressure along the cervical vertebrae

Light pressure along the cervical vertebrae

Which condition is an autoimmune disease affecting small joints of fingers, then progressing to additional joints? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Systemic lupus erythematous C. Osteoarthritis D. Osteoporosis

Rheumatoid arthritis

A muscle stabilizing a joint so the prime mover can exert its action is called a(n): A. antagonist B. agonist C. synergist D. fixator

fixator

The majority of seizures are which type? A. Generalized B. Partial C. Tonic-clonic D. Absence

Partial

When applying chest compression during cardiopulmonary resuscitation, the American Heart Association recommends how many compressions per minute? A. 50 B. 75 C. 100 D. 125

Signs of varicose veins include: A. overly hot or cold to the touch with without change in color. B. indentation left in skin after pressure is applied and released. C. thin, paperlike skin with reddish or silvery lines present. D. affected structures appear bluish and may bulge outward.

affected structures appear bluish and may bulge outward.

Which is the lateral forearm bone in anatomic position? A. Ulna B. Humerus C. Radius D. Pisiform

Radius

Which list represents the five elements in traditional Chinese medicine? A. Wood, earth, water, fire, and metal B. Wood, earth, water, fire, and sky C. Metal, sand, wood, earth, and water D. Metal, earth, water, stone, and fire

Wood, earth, water, fire, and metal

In the acronym F-A-S-T to learn stroke signs and symptoms, what does “S” stand for? A. Speed B. Supine C. Speech D. Seizure

Speech

How would two massage practitioners maintain individual business entities? A. Obtain separate business phone numbers and websites B. Maintain two separate appointment calendars C. Obtain separate accountants and bookkeepers D. Maintain separate banking accounts and avoid co-mingling funds

Maintain separate banking accounts and avoid co-mingling funds

Which muscle of the quadriceps group is biarticular? A. Biceps femoris B. Vastus lateralis C. Rectus femoris D. Vastus medialis

Rectus femoris

Which muscle attaches to the coronoid process? A. Coracobrachialis B. Temporalis C. Pectoralis minor D. Biceps femoris

Temporalis

Which joint is the ankle? A. Talocrural B. Acetabulofemoral C. Tibiofibular D. Tibiofemoral

Talocrural

Which muscle is the strongest hip flexor? A. Rectus femoris B. Adductor longus C. Sartorius D. Iliopsoas

Iliopsoas

Which type of muscle opposes the prime mover? A. Synergist B. Antagonist C. Agonist D. Fixator

Antagonist

Which term would describe end-feel caused by edema restricting motion? A. Soft B. Active C. Hard D. Abnormal

Abnormal

Which signs and symptoms indicated client anxiety? A. Shallow breathing and rapid heart rate B. Incoherent speech and staggered gait C. Full deep breathing and rapid heart rate D. Muscle twitching and pupil dilation

Shallow breathing and rapid heart rate

What is the most important skill during a client intake? A. Writing B. Listening C. Palpation D. Speech

Listening

Which muscle is considered phasic rather than postural? A. Gastrocnemius B. Rectus femoris C. Supraspinatus D. Quadratus lumborum

Supraspinatus

Which organ is not part of the digestive system? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Gallbladder D. Pancreas

Spleen

When pressure is applied to a sore spot, the client indicates feeling pain in a different area of the body. This is characteristic of a: A. trigger point. B. reflex arc. C. muscle spasm. D. tender point.

trigger point.

The term idiopathic means: A. bladder infection. B. cause unknown. C. low platelets. D. multiple causes.

cause unknown.

A male client comes to a massage clinic and insists on having a female practitioner. What is an appropriate course of action? A. Ask his reasons and then make a decision B. Tell him gender requests are unallowed C. Comply with his request D. Be sure he is given a male practitioner

Comply with his request

Which is a symptom of fibromyalgia? A. Anxiety B. Inflammation C. Heart palpitations D. Widespread pain

Widespread pain

After the practitioner gives a client a massage, the client wants to give the practitioner a hug. If the practitioner feels uncomfortable, it is because this is an example of: A. boundaries violation. B. scope of practice. C. dual relationships. D. self-disclosure.

boundaries violation.

Which outcome should not be claimed to be a result of massage? A. Reduces edema B. Reduces pain C. General relaxation D. Weight reduction

Weight reduction

A client begins to moan and caress the practitioner’s leg during the massage. What is the most appropriate action(s) for the massage practitioner to take? A. Ignore the gestures and continue the massage B. Tell him or her this behaviour is inappropriate, and you will leave the room the action continues or is repeated C. Reduce the temperature of the room and use essential oils that promote sedation D. D. Pick up his or her hand and slap its dorsal surface

Tell him or her this behaviour is inappropriate, and you will leave the room the action continues or is repeated

Why is pre-event sports massage performed without lubricant? A. Blocks sweat glands and may cause body to overheat during activity B. Creates a build-up of lactic acid in the muscle tissues C. Blocks calcium channels in sarcomeres causing hypertonicity D. Causes an overproduction of adenosine triphosphate in cells

Blocks sweat glands and may cause body to overheat during activity

A client is on the table and states the session must now end. She is obviously upset. What course of action is appropriate for the massage practitioner to take? A. Ask what is wrong and try to counsel B. Continue with the massage until the time is up C. Tell the client this behavior is unacceptable D. Comply with the request and ask if anything is needed

Comply with the request and ask if anything is needed

What vertebral structure can be palpated at the midline of the back and neck? A. Spinous process B. Lamina C. Transverse process D. Body

Spinous process

Which condition is an indication for thermotherapy? A. Thrombophlebitis B. Compromised circulation C. Muscle spasms D. Acute injury

Muscle spasms

Which bone is in the axial skeleton? A. Clavicle B. Ilium C. Humerus D. Sacrum

Sacrum

During the intake, the massage practitioner signals full attention by sitting and: A. crossing the arms and the legs. B. maintaining eye contact. C. ruffling through papers. D. taking notes electronically.

maintaining eye contact.

Which statement describes passive motion? A. Asking the client to perform a specific movement B. Asking the client to perform a movement with practitioner assistance C. Having the client relax while the practitioner performs a movement on the client D. Having the client perform a movement with resistance by the practitioner

Having the client relax while the practitioner performs a movement on the client

Which hormone mimics sympathetic arousal and accounts for the sudden energy required for the stress response? A. Melatonin B. Calcitonin C. Insulin D. Epinephrine

Epinephrine

Leaving the previous client’s treatment records visible to the next client best describes a breach of: A. communication. B. confidentially. C. disclosure. D. discrimination.

confidentially.

If a client with a seizure disorder appears to have a seizure during a massage, what is the most appropriate course of action? A. Call 911; while waiting for help to arrive, begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation if qualified to do so B. Roll the client on his or her side and put something in the oral cavity to prevent swallowing of the tongue C. Time the length of the shaking phase; call 911 if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes or immediately repeats D. Grasp the client’s shoulders and shake vigorously to bring him back to normal awareness; if this does not work, call 911

Time the length of the shaking phase; call 911 if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes or immediately repeats

Before receiving massage between or after sports events, the athlete should: A. perform weight training exercises. B. stretch and mobilize joints. C. warm up thoroughly. D. cool down thoroughly.

cool down thoroughly.

Which practice is a principle of physical wellness for massage practitioners? A. Eating one meal a day B. Getting adequate sleep C. Avoiding exercise because it is fatiguing D. Seeing many clients a day to avoid wasting time

Getting adequate sleep

Which bone is in the appendicular skeleton? A. Coccyx B. Scapula C. Sternum D. Occiput

Scapula

Which condition is an example of an absolute contraindication for massage? A. Ankle sprain which occurred 2 days ago B. Abnormal lump on the right posterior wrist C. Fever of 101° F D. Gout on the left great toe

Fever of 101° F

Which approach is appropriate for a client with eczema? A. Treat this condition as an absolute contraindication B. Adjust pressure for comfort and avoid broken skin areas C. Be sure and treat linens as contaminated D. Avoid nut oils to reduce an adverse reaction

Adjust pressure for comfort and avoid broken skin areas

An appropriate treatment plan for a client with chronic bursitis includes: A. Gilding over the area within the client’s pain tolerance B. Ice application followed by heat application C. Treating it as a local contraindication D. Treating it as an absolute contraindication

Gilding over the area within the client’s pain tolerance

A treatment plan for a client with rheumatoid arthritis includes the massage: A. needs to be gentle during exacerbations. B. is an absolute contraindication in all phases. C. may reduce inflammation during exacerbations. D. is indicated over affected joints.

needs to be gentle during exacerbations.

Which approach is part of a treatment plan for a client with multiple sclerosis? A. Schedule appointments during the initial phase of exacerbations B. Use neuromuscular techniques to increase nerve transmission C. Assess the appropriateness of massage each visit as symptoms change D. It is an absolute contraindication in all phases

Assess the appropriateness of massage each visit as symptom

Which condition is thought to be an autoimmune disease? A. Cancer B. Shingles C. Lyme disease D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Rheumatoid arthritis

Which hormone is deficient in diabetes mellitus type 1? A. Glucagon B. Insulin C. Melatonin D. Epinephrine

Insulin

A client with a history of angina pectoris will most likely have which medication? A. Lithium B. Aspirin C. Diuretic D. Nitroglycerin

Nitroglycerin

Which treatment plan is appropriate for a client who had a myocardial infarction and has regained full strength? A. Obtain medical clearance and use lighter than normal pressure B. Assess as with any other client and perform massage accordingly C. Massage and treat the client’s chest area as a local contraindication D. Tell the client the condition is an absolute contraindication for massage

Assess as with any other client and perform massage accordingly

Which treatment modification is appropriate for a client with varicose veins? A. Use deep pressure on the affected area to stimulate blood flow B. Stretch the affected limb to stimulate blood flow C. Massage proximal to the affected area first to encourage venous return D. Alternate hot and cold packs on the affected area for two repetitions

Massage proximal to the affected area first to encourage venous return

Which term means a sudden drop in blood pressure when moving from a lying down or sitting to an upright or standing position, causing a loss of balance? A. Orthostatic hypotension B. Supine hypotensive syndrome C. Ischemia D. Infarction

Orthostatic hypotension

Which process is defined as evaluations used to identify the client’s health status, treatment goals, and how these goals will be addressed by the massage practitioner? A. Objective measurement B. Research literacy C. Assessment D. Documentation

Assessment

Which technique is the most effective for reducing edema? A. Chucking friction B. Light effleurage C. Deep effleurage D. Pétrissage

Light effleurage

How are enlarged lymph nodes regarded in massage? A. Indications for thermotherapy B. Effectively treated with friction C. A local contraindication D. An absolute contraindication

A local contraindication

Which treatment plan is appropriate for a client with chronic fatigue syndrome? A. Client’s response to the previous session is irrelevant in determining the current session. B. The treatment plan should be consistent from session to session to ensure favorable client results. C. Use lighter than normal pressure and avoid vigorous movements if the client is feeling overly tired. D. Vigorous massage will energize the client and increase efficient metabolic functioning.

Use lighter than normal pressure and avoid vigorous movements if the client is feeling overly tired.

Which statement describes massage for clients with HIV infection? A. It is an absolute contraindication B. Special considerations are unnecessary C. Avoid skin lesions, enlarged lymph nodes, and sites of recent blood work D. Sessions are postponed until after a month after the start of pharmacotherapy

Avoid skin lesions, enlarged lymph nodes, and sites of recent blood work

The full can/empty can tests may identify dysfunction in which muscle? A. Infraspinatus B. Deltoid C. Supraspinatus D. Coracobrachialis

Supraspinatus

Massage considerations for a client with chronic sinusitis include: A. being contraindicated for the first 48 hours. B. avoiding moist heat application over the frontal bone. C. avoiding prone position if pressure from the face rest causes pain. D. consulting the client’s healthcare provider for prior approval.

avoiding prone position if pressure from the face rest

Which statement describes emphysema and air flow? A. Obstruction from excess mucus production B. Obstruction from changes in lung tissue C. Increase of vital capacity D. Development of kyphosis

Obstruction from changes in lung tissue

If a client has an acute ankle sprain, which treatment plan is appropriate? A. Elevate the affected area and apply ice while massaging noninjured areas. B. Use deep pressure to restore any lost mobility. C. Use static stretching to increase collagen activity. D. Elevate the affected area and apply percussion to stimulate muscle spindles.

Elevate the affected area and apply ice while massaging noninjured areas.

Which joint is the shoulder? A. Radiocarpal B. Humeroulnar C. Glenohumeral D. Sternoclavicular

Glenohumeral

Which layers are associated with the skin from superficial to deep? A. Dermis – Epidermis – Subcutaneous B. Subcutaneous – Dermis – Epidermis C. Dermis – Subcutaneous – Epidermis D. Epidermis – Dermis – Subcutaneous

Epidermis – Dermis – Subcutaneous

Which term refers to the superior heart chambers? A. Veins B. Atria C. Ventricles D. Aorta

Atria

The right lung contains how many lobes? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

The connective tissue surrounding the bone is the: A. metaphysis. B. diaphysis. C. periosteum. D. epiphysis.

periosteum

Which nerve innervates almost all of the flexors of the wrist? A. Median B. Musculocutaneous C. Radial D. Ulnar

Median

Which function does myelin perform? A. Cushions the spinal cord B. Reduces spinal reflexes C. Increases speed of nerve impulses D. Aids in muscle tissue regeneration

Increases speed of nerve impulses

The parasympathetic nervous system causes: A. increased respiration rate. B. decreased excretory processes. C. increased heart rate. D. decreased heart rate.

decreased heart rate.

The peripheral nervous system contains how many pairs of spinal nerves? A. 34 B. 12 C. 31 D. 24

The peripheral nervous system contains how many pairs of cranial nerves? A. 34 B. 12 C. 31 D. 24

The main effect of parathyroid hormones is to: A. stimulate T cell maturation. B. regulate blood volume. C. stimulate the stress response. D. increase blood calcium levels.

increase blood calcium levels.

Which gland is found in the brain? A. Adrenal B. Pineal C. Parathyroid D. Thymus

Pineal

Edema may be caused by: A. advanced pregnancy. B. prolonged sleeping. C. weight training exercises. D. low blood pressure.

advanced pregnancy.

What do thyroid hormones regulate? A. Metabolism B. Vasoconstriction C. Water levels D. Glucose levels

Metabolism

Which type of nutrient is most commonly used for energy? A. Vitamin B. Protein C. Lipids D. Carbohydrate

Carbohydrate

Which gland is exocrine? A. Sudoriferous gland B. Pituitary gland C. Pineal gland D. Parathyroid gland

Sudoriferous gland

Which muscle type is voluntary? A. Visceral B. Smooth C. Skeletal D. D. Cardiac

Skelet

The space between two neurons, a neuron and a muscle cell, or a neuron and a gland is called the: A. synaptic cleft. B. node of Ranvier. C. C. action potential. D. neurotransmitter junction.

synaptic cleft.

Massage for a client with irritable bowel syndrome involves: A. considering it an absolute contraindication. B. requiring deep pressure over the abdomen. C. focusing on relaxation while possibly avoiding the abdomen. D. considering it an indication during periods of remission.

focusing on relaxation while possibly avoiding the abdomen

In which organ does the majority of nutrient digestion and absorption occur? A. Liver B. Stomach C. Small intestine D. Large intestine

Small intestine

Which term means a brisk contraction elicited by snapping palpation of a trigger point? A. All-or-none response B. Referred pain phenomenon C. Delayed-onset muscle soreness D. Local twitch response

Local twitch response

Which massage consideration is appropriate for a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease? A. Scheduling a session right after the client has eaten a meal B. Spend extra time massaging the client’s abdomen C. Place a bolster under the client’s abdomen when prone D. Prop the client in a semireclining position

Prop the client in a semireclining position

Which condition do the majority of pregnant women experience? A. Supine hypotensive syndrome B. Preeclampsia C. Gestational diabetes D. Morning sickness

Morning sickness

Which massage approach should be avoided for a client who is experiencing painful menstruation? A. Heat application on the lower abdomen B. Heat application on the lower back C. Deep effleurage and friction on the abdominals D. Deep effleurage and friction on quadratus lumborum

Deep effleurage and friction on the abdominals

Which statement describes endometriosis? A. Fluid-filled sacs within the ovaries B. Uterine tissue outside the uterus C. Bacterial infection of the kidney D. Viral infection of the external genitalia

Uterine tissue outside the uterus

Which is appropriate for a client with genital herpes or genital warts? A. Use lighter than normal pressure and avoid the abdomen B. Avoid placing hot packs over the lower back C. Treat linens as contaminated unless the client wears undergarments D. Avoid pressure and techniques that rocks the client

Treat linens as contaminated unless the client wears undergarments

Which physical orthopedic test measures shoulder mobility? A. Spurling B. Thompson C. Apley scratch D. FABER test

Apley scratch

Which is a research-based massage effect? A. Increased passive agressiveness B. Reduced nonREM sleep C. Reduced stress and anxiety D. Increased cortisol levels

Reduced stress and anxiety

If a client has a panic attack during treatment, the most appropriate action for the massage practitioner to take is: A. reduce pressure, use rhythmic techniques, and avoid talking to the client because it may worsen symptoms. B. drape and assist the client into a seated position, and encourage the client to breathe deeply. C. ask the client to take deep breaths while continuing with the session. D. quickly leave the room and call the client’s emergency contact.

drape and assist the client into a seated position, and encourage the client to breathe deeply.

Which syndrome is defined as compression at two or more locations along a peripheral nerve? A. Thoracic outlet B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Double crush D. Carpal tunnel

Double crush

Which term means an exaggeration of the normal posterior curvature in the thoracic spine? A. Scoliosis B. Spondylosis C. Kyphosis D. Lordosis

Kyphosis

Which method uses the concept of “position of ease?” A. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation B. Muscle energy techniques C. Manual lymphatic drainage D. Strain-counterstrain

Strain-counterstrain

Which term describes lateral deviation of the spine, usually in the thoracic region? A. Scoliosis B. Spondylosis C. Lordosis D. Kyphosis

Scoliosis

What muscle is usually massaged for whiplash? A. Trapezius B. Subscapularis C. Pectoralis minor D. Deltoid

Trapezius

What is a blood clot attached to a vascular wall? A. Embolus B. Varicosity C. Thrombus D. Platelet

Thrombus

What is a blood clot transported by the bloodstream? A. Thromboembolus B. Polyp C. Tubercle D. Diverticulum

Thromboembolus

Which process does sternocleidomastoid attach to? A. Condylar B. Styloid C. Sternoid D. Mastoid

Mastoid

What muscle is antagonist to sternocleidomastoid? A. Scalenus posterior B. Splenius capitis C. Soleus D. Temporalis

Splenius capitis

Which rotator cuff muscle does not originate within a fossa? A. Supraspinatus B. Teres minor C. Infraspinatus D. Subscapularis

Teres minor

What muscle does not attach at the coracoid process? A. Pectoralis major B. Coracobrachialis C. Pectoralis minor D. Biceps brachii

Pectoralis major

What muscle lies deep to biceps brachii? A. Anconeus B. Coracobrachialis C. Brachialis D. Pronator teres

Brachialis

What is the insertion of biceps brachii? A. Olecranon process B. Ulnar tuberosity C. Styloid process D. Radial tuberosity

Radial tuberosity

Which muscle is responsible for medial rotation of the humerus? A. Supraspinatus B. Teres minor C. Infraspinatus D. Subscapularis

Subscapularis

Which muscle attaches at the medial border of the scapula? A. Latissimus dorsi B. Trapezius C. Coracobrachialis D. Serratus anterior

Serratus anterior

Which landmark does quadratus lumborum attach to? A. Iliac crest B. Sciatic notch C. Lesser trochanter D. Ischial tuberosity

Iliac crest

Which attachment site do deltoid and trapezius share? A. Nuchal ligament B. Acromion process C. Medial border of the scapula D. Coracoid process

Acromion process

Which muscle is responsible for retraction of the scapula? A. Pectoralis minor B. Rhomboid major C. Teres major D. Serratus anterior

Rhomboid major

Which muscle should a client with kyphosis be encouraged to stretch? A. Deltoid B. Rectus femoris C. Pectoralis major D. Infraspinatus

Pectoralis maj

Which muscle is synergistic to piriformis? A. Gluteus maximus B. Quadratus lumborum C. Semitendinosus D. Rectus femoris

Gluteus maximus

Which term is used to describe a muscle crossing two joints? A. Bilateral B. Synergistic C. Biarticular D. Concentric

Biarticular

Which structure is an attachment of iliopsoas? A. Anterior sacrum B. Pubic tubercle C. Greater trochanter D. Lesser trochanter

Lesser trochanter

What is the name of the tendon of gastrocnemius and soleus? A. Central B. Calcaneal C. Patellar D. Bicipital

Calcaneal

Which structure is an attachment of piriformis? A. Posterior superior iliac spine B. Ischial ramus C. Anterior superior iliac spine D. Greater trochanter

Greater trochanter

If a client complains of pain over the medial epicondyle of the humerus, it may be related to: A. Golfer’s elbow. B. Carpal tunnel syndrome. C. Tennis elbow. D. Thoracic outlet syndrome.

Golfer’s elbow.

Shiatsu is an Asian bodywork technique using: A. needle application. B. finger pressure. C. hot stones. D. essential oils.

finger pressure.

Who brought seated massage into public awareness? A. Judith Aston B. David Palmer C. Randolf Stone D. Ida Rolf

David Palmer

Which aspect of business protects the public by enforcing standards which restrict practice to qualified individuals who have met specific qualifications? A. Occupational license B. Sales tax permit C. Professional liability insurance D. Professional license

Professional license

During elbow flexion, triceps brachii is the antagonist while biceps brachii is the: A. Agonist B. Origin C. Synergist D. Fixator

Agonist

If a male client lying supine has an erection and seems unaware of it, what is the massage practitioner’s most appropriate course of action? A. Acknowledge the erection and ask to continue with the massage B. Tell the client the erection is unacceptable and terminate the massage C. Acknowledge the erection and tell the client to turn to prone position D. Ignore the erection and continue with the massage

Ignore the erection and continue with the massage

What does “P” represent in the acronym SOAP? A. Procedure B. Plan C. Pallor D. Pain

Plan

During knee flexion, which muscle group is the antagonist? A. Hamstrings B. Rotators C. Adductors D. Quadriceps

Quadriceps

Which muscle is weak or paralyzed in winged scapula? A. Coracobrachialis B. Teres major C. Serratus anterior D. Trapezius

Serratus anterior

Where is the patella in reference to the hip? A. Lateral B. Proximal C. Distal D. Medial

Distal

What does the medical prefix “endo-“ mean? A. Outside B. Around C. Within D. Near

Within

The majority of tactical athletes have some form of: A. chronic fatigue syndrome. B. post-traumatic stress. C. Osgood-Schlatter disease. D. dementia

post-traumatic stress.

Which term means dividing geographic areas into regions so a city can restrict the number and types of buildings within the region as well as how these buildings are used? A. Licensure B. Distribution C. Liability D. Zoning

Zoning

Approximately how many muscles attach to the scapula? A. 9-10 B. 16-17 C. 24-25 D. 22-30

16-17

Which structure attaches a muscle to bone? A. Suture B. Synapse C. Tendon D. Ligament

Tendon

What is a carbuncle? A. Type of ganglion cyst B. Large boil formed by smaller boils C. Infection caused by dermatophytes D. Stage four skin ulcer

Large boil formed by smaller boils

Which term means a state of emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and diminished sense of personal accomplishment? A. Burnout B. Fatigue C. Stress D. Deprivation

Burnout

The massage technique of skin rolling is used to address: A. myofascial trigger points. B. restrictions in superficial fascia. C. enlarged lymph nodes and edema. D. blood flow patterns in dermal tissue

restrictions in superficial fascia.

Nosocomial infections are ones acquired in which location? A. Governmental facilities B. Healthcare facilities C. Home D. School

Healthcare facilities

Which process is voluntary and involves specialists in a particular field examining and endorsing the qualifications of a professional? A. State licensure B. Board certification C. State registration D. Board licensure

Board certification

According to principles of Asian bodywork techniques, meridian or channels are: A. terms for life force. B. the five elements. C. pathways of energy. D. reflex points on the feet.

pathways of energy

Which type of heat transfer occurs between two objects or substances which are in direct contact? A. Radiation B. Evaporation C. Conduction D. Conversion

Conduction

What is the initial response of blood vessels during ice application? A. Vasoconstriction B. Vasodilation C. Vasoactive D. Vasogenic

Vasoconstriction

If a client and two of the client’s friends approach the client’s massage practitioner in a local mall, the appropriate response of the massage practitioner is to: A. Ask the client if there is a reduction of symptoms since the last session B. Say hello while passing out business cards to all of them C. Avoid looking at them and quickly walk the other away D. Say hello while avoiding conversation regarding the therapeutic relationship

Say hello while avoiding conversation regarding the therapeutic relationship

If a client states he has recently been diagnosed with CAD, he has damage to his: A. bones and joints. B. cerebral arteries. C. coronary arteries. D. lungs and alveoli

coronary arteries.

Pulmonary disorders refer to conditions affecting the: A. heart. B. kidneys. C. brain. D. lungs

lungs

Which term refers to nerve impulse transmission along myelinated axons? A. Saltatory conduction B. Continuous conduction C. Neurotransmitter release D. Neurotransmitter reuptake

Saltatory conduction

Which term is used to describe motor neurons? A. Sensory B. Efferent C. Receptor D. Afferent

Efferent

Which example is a mechanoreceptor? A. Nociceptor B. Olfactory nerve C. Free nerve ending D. Muscle spindle

Muscle spindle

An effect of massage on the musculoskeletal system is massage: A. tones weak muscles B. decreases delayed onset muscle soreness C. decreases range of motion D. causes tension when trigger points are addressed

decreases delayed onset muscle soreness

Which type of receptor detects actual or potential tissue damage? A. Nociceptor B. Osmoreceptors C. Proprioceptor D. Photoreceptor

Nociceptor

Which vitamin do bacteria in the large intestine produce? A. A B. E C. K D. D

Hemoglobin contains which mineral? A. Calcium B. Sodium C. Iron D. Potassium

Iron

Which structure connects bone to bone? A. Tendon B. Ligament C. Aponeurosis D. Synapse

Ligament

Which term means the membranous layer around the heart? A. Peritoneum B. Perineum C. Pericardium D. Periosteum

Pericardium

Which type of membrane is the pleural membrane? A. Mucous B. Serous C. Meningeal D. Synovial

Serous

Which structure separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities? A. Septum B. Mediastinum C. Peritoneum D. Diaphragm

Diaphragm

Blood cells form in which structure? A. Spleen B. Liver C. Bone marrow D. Adipose tissue

Bone

During which technique should deep pressure be accompanied by slow movement and broad contact? A. Effleurage B. Pétrissage C. Vibration D. Tapotement

Effleurage

Which gland produces epinephrine? A. Adrenal B. Pituitary C. Pancreas D. Thyroid

Adrenal

Which term means an area of skin supplied by a single sensory spinal nerve? A. Myotome B. Plexus C. Dermatome D. Ganglion

Dermat

Which statement describes circumduction? A. Circular movement toward the median plane B. One end of a bone is fixed and other end moves in a circle C. Side-to-side movement in the transverse plane D. A bone moves around its own central axis

One end of a bone is fixed and other end moves in a circle

During gait assessment, the client's left foot drags the floor during the swing phase. The muscle most likely involved is: A. rectus femoris. B. biceps femoris. C. gastrocnemius. D. tibialis anterior

tibialis anterior

Which statement describes tonus? A. Continued partial contraction of skeletal muscles B. Most proximal muscle attachment C. Manner in which a person moves on foot D. Distribution of body with over a base of support

Continued partial contraction of skeletal muscles

Which is a saclike structure usually found between ligaments and joint capsules? A. Gyri B. Menisci C. Bursa D. Retinaculum

Bursa

Which muscle laterally rotates the humerus? A. Infraspinatus B. Supraspinatus C. Pectoralis major D. Coracobrachialis

Infraspinatus

Which term means pressure exerted by fluid on an immersed object? A. Isometric B. Hydrostatic C. Barometric D. Hydrophilic

Hydrostatic

Which two muscles elevate the mandible? A. Platysma and lateral pterygoids B. Masseter and lateral pterygoids C. Orbicularis oris and buccinator D. Temporalis and masseter

Temporalis and masseter

Fascia’s proprioceptive function is due to its interfacing with which system? A. Endocrine B. Integumentary C. Nervous D. Cardiovascular

Nervous

Where is the nuchal ligament located? A. Posterior knee B. Anterior elbow C. Dorsum of foot D. Posterior neck

Posterior neck

The superior vena cava delivers blood to which heart chamber? A. Right atrium B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Left ventricle

Right atrium

Pain originating in the lower back or hip and travels down to one side of the posterior thigh and leg is the hallmark symptom of which condition? A. Gallstones B. Appendicitis C. Sciatica D. Gout

Sciatica

Which approach is defined as combining heat and cold in the same treatment? A. Bioenergetic method B. Contrast method C. Cryotherapy D. Thermotherapy

Contrast method

Which population is affected by gestational diabetes mellitus? A. Infants B. Adolescents C. Pregnant women D. Elderly women

Pregnant women

Which condition is a contraindication for cryotherapy? A. Muscle spasm B. Hypertension C. Local edema D. Local pain

Hypertension

Which shoulder action would stretch rhomboids on a supine client? A. Horizontal adduction B. Lateral flexion C. Horizontal abduction D. Medial rotation

Horizontal adduction

Touching the chin to the chest is an example of which action? A. Adduction B. Extension C. Abduction D. Flexion

Flexion

Which effect does massage have on the lymphatic system? A. Decreased lymph flow B. Increased edema C. Increased levels of lymphocytes D. Decreased overall immune function

Increased level

Which structure is affected in Osgood-Schlatter disease? A. Greater trochanter B. Calcaneal tuberosity C. Tibial tuberosity D. Lateral epicondyle

Tibial tuberosity

What is the path digested food takes while in the large intestine? A. Transverse colon, ascending colon, and descending colon B. Ascending colon, transverse colon, and descending colon C. Transverse colon, descending colon, and ascending colon D. Descending colon, transverse colon, and ascending colon

Ascending colon, transverse colon, and descending colon

What is the muscle's contractile unit called? A. Sarcolemma B. T-tubule C. Acetylcholine D. Sarcomere

Sarcomere

Which property of water reduces peripheral edema, and has compressive effects similar to bandages and garments? A. Hydrostatic pressure B. Thermal conductivity C. Solvency D. Radiation

Hydrostatic pressure

The Father of Swedish massage is: A. Toru Namkoshi. B. William Harvey. C. Pehr Henrick Ling. D. John Harvey Kellogg.

Pehr Henrick Ling

Which treatment plan is appropriate for a client with a herniated disc? A. Address surrounding trigger points and apply spinal mobilizations B. Use light pressure over the area of involvement C. Use myofascial release techniques to decompress the spine D. Apply deep pressure and spinal stretching techniques

Use light pressure over the area of involvement

Which vitamin is activated by UV rays in sunlight? A. A B. C C. D D. E

Which example is a potential business tax deduction? A. Home rent B. Life insurance C. Office rent D. Annual vacation

Office rent

Sole proprietors or self-employed individuals report profit and losses annually using which tax form? A. Plan document 5500 B. Schedule C C. W-2 form D. SSA-1099

Schedule C

A massage practitioner having lunch with a client is an example of a: A. Dual relationship B. Transference C. Disclosure D. Therapeutic relationship

Dual relationship

Which term means an abnormal sensation? A. Paresthesia B. Remission C. Pallor D. Turgor

Paresthesia

Which muscle is the widest in the body? A. Sartorius B. Gluteus maximus C. Latissimus dorsi D. Trapezius

Latissimus dorsi

Which muscle is an example of a convergent muscle fiber arrangement? A. Rectus abdominis B. Pectoralis major C. Orbicularis oris D. Rectus femoris

Pectoralis major

Which muscle is an example of a bipennate muscle fiber arrangement? A. Rectus abdominis B. Pectoralis major C. Orbicularis oris D. Rectus femoris

Rectus femoris

Compared to veins, the walls of lymphatic vessels: A. have more valves. B. have thicker walls. C. are smaller in diameter. D. are less permeable.

have more valves.

If a client has chest pain, shortness of breath, and cold sweats, which approach should the massage practitioner take? A. Grasp the client’s shoulders and shake vigorously to bring the client back to normal awareness, then call 911 B. Give sweet food or beverage; repeat this step if the clients states feeling worse C. Stand behind the client and use abdominal thrusts D. Call 911 and begin CPR (if qualified to do so) if the client becomes unresponsive before help arrives

Call 911 and begin CPR (if qualified to do so) if the client becomes unresponsive before help arrives

Which condition is a contraindication for heat application? A. Sore muscles B. Blood clots C. Joint stiffness D. Scar tissue

Blood clots

Which is a contagious bacterial infection? A. Impetigo B. Eczema C. Psoriasis D. Shingles

Impetigo

The main method for gathering objective information uses: A. client intake and direct inquiry. B. observation and palpation. C. a medical release form. D. a pain questionnaire

observation and palpation.

Which muscle elevates the scapula? A. Serratus anterior B. Pectoralis minor C. Upper trapezius D. Rhomboid major

Upper trapezius

Unilateral contraction of which muscle causes lateral flexion and rotation of the head to the opposite side? A. Sternocleidomastoid B. Pectoralis minor C. Rectus capitis posterior D. Multifidus

Sternocleidomastoid

Transverse process of C1-C4 describes the superior attachments of which muscle? A. Sternocleidomastoid B. Scalenus posterior C. Platysma D. Levator scapulae

Levator scapulae

Which draping method is appropriate for turning the client over? A. Slightly elevate the sheet along the opposite edge, anchor the sheet against the closest side of the table, and instruct the client to turn over B. Firmly hold the sheet against the table on the opposite side, anchor the sheet with thighs against closest side of the table, and instruct the client to turn over C. Before leaving the room, instruct the client to turn over and drape self with the sheet then re-enter the room when the client has completed the task D. Rotate the sheet 90°, lift the sheet until it clears the client, and give instruction to turn over, then settle the sheet over the client

Slightly elevate the sheet along the opposite edge, anchor the sheet against the closest side of the table, and instruct the client to turn over

Which muscle has attachment sites on the distal anterior humeral shaft and the ulnar tuberosity? A. Biceps brachii B. Anconeus C. Brachialis D. Triceps brachii

Brachialis

Which muscle is in the anterior forearm? A. Extensor carpi ulnaris B. Flexor digitorum superficialis C. Extensor digitorum D. Abductor pollicis longus

Flexor digitorum superficialis

In the acronym PRICE, what does “C” stand for? A. Cyanosis B. Crepitus C. Contraindication D. Compression

Compression

Urine leaves the renal pelvis through which structure? A. Bladder B. Urethra C. Glomerulus D. Ureter

Ureter

Which body system is involved in regulating the blood volume and its chemical composition? A. Urinary B. Lymphatic C. Reproductive D. Skeletal

Urinary

Clients with which condition have the highest correlation to contact burns from clinical uses of thermotherapy? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Human immunodeficiency viral infection

Diabetes mellitus

Which protocol is appropriate for a sprained ankle? A. Limit ice application to 10 minutes B. Avoid moving the affected area C. Limit heat application to 10 minutes D. Keep the affected area lowered

Limit ice application to 10 minutes

A client states she has shingles and the lesions have scabbed over. Which treatment approach is appropriate? A. Postpone the massage until the lesions have disappeared B. Proceed with the massage and use skin rolling to gently loosen and remove the scabs C. Proceed with the massage and treat the affected area as a local contraindication D. Postpone massage until medical clearance is given

Proceed with the massage and treat the affected area as a local contraindication

Cervical acceleration and deceleration injury is also known as: A. tetanus. B. migraine. C. whiplash. D. sciatica

whiplash.

Which term means debts or obligations owed by a business entity to a creditor? A. Depreciation B. Liabilities C. Equity D. Assets

Liabilities

A person with which condition might experience facial pain from the face rest while lying prone? A. Spina bifida B. Parkinson disease C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Trigeminal neuralgia

Trigeminal neuralgia

Which muscle is the most superficial in the upper back? A. Rhomboids B. Serratus anterior C. Latissimus dorsi D. Trapezius

Trapezius

What is the scientific name for the hip joint? A. Acetabulofemoral joint B. Tibiofemoral joint C. Talocrural joint D. Sacroiliac joint

Acetabulofemoral joint

Which muscle is responsible for protraction of the scapula? A. Trapezius B. Rhomboid major C. Supraspinatus D. Serratus anterior

Serratus anterior

Which muscle is an antagonist to gastrocnemius? A. Soleus B. Plantaris C. Tibialis anterior D. Biceps femoris

Tibialis

Which treatment approach is effective for plantar fasciitis? A. Deep pressure on calf muscles and client self-stretching B. Light pressure around the ankle C. Percussion on calf muscles and client self-stretching D. Jostling and vibration around the ankle

Deep pressure on calf muscles and client self-stretching

Which term is used to describe decubitus ulcers? A. Athlete's foot B. Bedsores C. Plantar warts D. Psoriasis

Bedsores

Which treatment modification is appropriate for a client recently diagnosed with uterine fibroids? A. Apply deep pressure over the affected area B. Use a side lying position only C. Avoid the abdomen if pressure causes pain D. Treat as an absolute contraindication

Avoid the abdomen if pressure

If a client arrives complaining of severe abdominal pain, abdominal swelling, and blood in the stool, what are appropriate treatment modifications? A. Postpone the massage until the client has had surgery to correct the condition. B. Proceed with the massage and avoid placing the client in the prone position. C. Postpone the massage and refer the client to a healthcare provider. D. Proceed with the massage, treating the client’s abdomen as a local contraindication

Postpone the massage and refer the client to a healthcare provider.

Which joint connects the axial skeleton to the lower extremity? A. Patellofemoral B. Sacroiliac C. Acetabulofemoral D. Talocrural

Sacroiliac

Which condition does Phalen’s test identify? A. Parkinson disease B. Tennis elbow C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Myasthenia gravis

Carpal tunnel syndrome

How many carpal bones are in each wrist? A. 5 B. 7 C. 8 D. 12

Which layers represent the meninges from superficial to deep? A. Dura mater – arachnoid – pia mater B. Pia mater – arachnoid – dura mater C. Dura mater – pia mater – arachnoid D. Pia mater – dura mater – arachnoid

Dura mater – arachnoid – pia mater

Which approach is used in muscle energy techniques? A. Digital pressure on tsubos located along energy pathways B. Alternating rhythmic pressures applied parallel to the body C. Applied pressure on reflex points in the foot D. Contraction against a counterforce

Contraction against a counterforce

Which approach is a variation of muscle energy techniques? A. Reciprocal inhibition B. Trigger point therapy C. Positional release therapy D. Strain-counterstrain

Reciprocal inhibition

Which approach is an appropriate treatment plan for a person with a decubitus ulcer? A. Percussion followed by heat application B. Cross fiber friction followed by ice application C. Skin rolling over the affected area to reduce fibrosis D. Local massage is contraindicated

Local massage is contraindicated

Which knee ligament is most often torn during knee injuries? A. Posterior cruciate B. Tibial collateral C. Anterior cruciate D. Fibular collateral

Anterior cruciate

If a client has an unfamiliar medical condition, what is the practitioner’s best course of action? A. Postpone the massage until the client has medical clearance B. Look up the client’s condition in a pathology book or reputable source C. Ask the client to determine goals by formulating the treatment plan D. Refer the client to his or her primary healthcare provider for diagnosis and treatment

Look up the client’s condition in a pathology book or reputable source

If an elderly client has thinning skin, avoid: A. using friction. B. using vibration. C. massage on the face. D. massage on the back.

using friction.

If the client becomes dizzy when getting up from the massage table, what should the massage practitioner do? A. Offer the client a glass of water with electrolytes in it to reduce possible dehydration B. Suggest the client lie back down, wait a moment, and try again moving more slowly and carefully C. Use passive movements to push the feet toward the chest to increase blood pressure D. Quickly place pillows around the table to reduce injury in case the client falls to the floor

Suggest the client lie back down, wait a moment, and try again moving more slowly and carefully

The massage practitioner's strategy to help the client achieve his or her goals is called: A. documentation. B. treatment planning. C. assessment. D. informed consent

treatment planning.

Which approach is a Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act guideline? A. Disclose client information only to practitioners in the same unit or clinic B. Client authorization is optional when sending client information to other providers C. Confidentiality notices are superfluous on facsimiles and emails D. Safeguard client information behind two locks and restrict access

Safeguard client information behind two locks and restrict access

Which example is an open-ended question? A. Would you like more pressure? B. How are you feeling today? C. Do you want more time spent on your calves? D. Where in your back are you feeling pain?

How are you feeling today?

What signed document gives the practitioner permission to share client information? A. Release form B. Consent form C. Intake form D. Confidentiality form

Release form

The effect relaxin has on the pregnant client's body is to: A. decrease the likelihood of heartburn. B. increase flexibility of joints. C. stimulate milk production. D. cause nasal congestion.

increase flexibility of joints.

Which condition requires referral of a pregnant client to her healthcare provider? A. Varicose veins B. Widespread edema C. Leg cramps D. Frequent urination

Widespread edema

The term for a trigger point unnoticed by a client until pressure is applied is: A. latent. B. chronic. C. acute. D. active.

latent.

What is the term for the imbalance of authority in the professional relationship with clients in the vulnerable position? A. Power resurgence B. Cultural competency C. Power differential D. Boundary distribution

Power differential

Which term describes the unconscious transfer of past feelings, conflicts, and attitudes into present relationships, situations, and circumstances onto someone else such as the practitioner? A. Empathy B. Transference C. Countertransference D. Fidelity

Transference

A Taxpayer Identification Number is a nine-digit identification number issued by the: A. Department of Commerce B. Social Security Administration C. Internal Revenue Service D. International Trade Commission

Internal Revenue Service

Which business entity is granted a charter by the state and has its own privileges and liabilities distinct from those of its board of directors or its shareholders? A. Corporation B. Sole proprietorship C. General partnership D. Limited partnership

Corporation

Which type of corporation has a limited number of members and corporate taxes are waived and reported by the owners on their individual federal income tax returns? A. C-corporations B. S-corporations C. T-corporations D. M-corporations

S-corporations

If a client has an irritated patella, an appropriate approach is to: A. stretch the quadriceps femoris muscle group. B. use transverse friction on the patellar ligament. C. apply heat until the area is hyperemic. D. apply ice until the area is numb.

apply ice until the area is numb.

The os coxa is also known as the: A. shoulder girdle. B. pes anserius. C. pelvic girdle. D. thenar eminence.

pelvic girdle

What bony process does the scapular spine become? A. Coracoid process B. Acromion process C. Styloid process D. Mastoid process

Acromion process

What muscle extends the humerus? A. Latissimus dorsi B. Pectoralis minor C. Subscapularis D. Coracobrachialis

Latissimus dorsi

Headaches may originate from which group of muscles? A. Rotator cuff B. Rhomboids C. Suboccipitals D. Iliopsoas

Suboccipitals

A client with adhesive capsulitis will have difficulty making which shoulder movement? A. Abduction B. Medial rotation C. Adduction D. Lateral rotation

Medial rotation

Amylase is involved in digesting which of the following nutrients? A. Vitamins B. Fats C. Proteins D. Carbohydrates

Carbohydrates

Which condition is caused by compression of nerves in the brachial plexus? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Bell palsy C. Thoracic outlet syndrome D. Trigeminal neuralgia

Thoracic outlet syndrome

Which muscle is called a neurovascular entrapper because it can entrap the brachial plexus and axillary artery? A. Trapezius B. Rhomboids C. Serratus anterior D. Pectoralis minor

Pectoralis minor

Which best describes the flow of lymph? A. Lymph flows through vessels toward the subclavian veins and enters the cardiovascular system B. Lymph flows from the left ventricle and then back to the right atrium and is propelled by the heartbeat C. Lymph flows from the abdominal organs through the hepatic vein until it reaches the inferior vena cava D. Lymph flows from the fourth ventricle into the subarachnoid space surrounding the brain and spinal cord

Lymph flows through vessels toward the subclavian veins and enters the cardiovascular system

Which of the following goals merit inclusion of reciprocal inhibition into the treatment plan? A. Decreased inflammation and swelling B. Reduced pain and increased flexibility C. Reduced blood pressure and heart rate D. Decreased depression and anxiety

Reduced pain and increased flexibility

Washing your hands with soap and water ensures they are: A. Sterilized B. Germ-free C. Sanitized D. Neutralized

Sanitized

Hyperemia is related to which of the following body system? A. Integumentary B. Endocrine C. Respiratory D. Skeletal

Integumentary

What is the most appropriate response if a massage client presents with bruises you suspect are related to domestic abuse? A. Postpone the massage because it may trigger a flashback of past domestic violence B. Proceed with the massage while avoiding them, and file a report with a protection agency C. C. Proceed with massage while avoiding them, and ask the client to talk about the abuse incident D. Proceed with the massage while avoiding them, and note the bruises in the client record

Proceed with the massage while avoiding them, and note the bruises in the client record

A client with rheumatoid arthritis arrives to a massage appointment and reports they are having a flare-up and presents with red, swollen, warm hands. What is an appropriate treatment plan for this session? A. Proceed with the massage and focus most of the time on the hands using deep pressure B. Proceed with the massage while using light even pressure and avoiding the hands C. C. Proceed with the massage, apply liniment to the hands, glove both hands, and massage them through the gloves using deep pressure to promote product D. Postpone the massage and ask the client to return when the hands are not inflamed

Proceed with the massage while using light even pressure and avoiding the hands

Which of the following is the innermost abdominal muscle? A. Rectus abdominis B. External oblique C. Internal oblique D. Transverse abdominis

Transverse abdominis

Most abdominal muscles are wrapped in a facial layer called the: A. Rectus sheath. B. Fascia latae. C. Galea aponeurotica. D. Palatine aponeurosis

Rectus sheath.

If a massage practitioner applies effleurage on a client’s back using 20 pounds of pressure, which would feel the most intense to the client? A. Using the middle of the forearm B. Using the palms of two hands C. Using the heel of one hand D. Using the tip of the elbow

Using the tip of the elbow

What is an appropriate action if a small elevated growth is noted on a client’s right heel during foot massage? A. Apply deep massage to break up the tissue B. Massage over the areas using light pressure C. Treat the area as a local contraindication D. Discontinue the massage and reschedule when the situation has resolved

Treat the area as a local contraindication

A client informs the massage practitioner s/he feels dizzy and lightheaded when sitting up after from the massage. This condition is likely: A. Orthostatic hypotension B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Sensory tinnitus D. Motor dysplasia

Orthostatic hypotension

Which of the following acronyms refer to services provided to clients from healthcare professionals? A. CPT B. HCP C. ICD D. PRN

CPT

What format must you send your social security number in if it is subpoenaed? A. XXX-45-6789 B. 123-XX-6789 C. 123-45-XXXX D. 123-45-6789

123-45-6789

Which muscle medially rotates the humerus? A. Infraspinatus B. Supraspinatus C. Teres minor D. Subscapularis

Subscapularis

Antipyretic medications are primarily used in which of the following conditions? A. Fever B. Pain C. Infection D. Inflammation

Fever

An agent used to reduce pain is also called a/n: A. Antiemetics B. Analgesic C. Antipyretic D. Antiseptic

Analgesic

Which nerve is located in the popliteal region? A. Femoral nerve B. Sciatica nerve C. Tibial nerve D. Median nerve

Tibial nerve

Which gland is responsible for sweat? A. Eccrine B. Sebaceous C. Ceruminous D. Lacrimal

Eccrine

A client diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is currently taking medications to for high blood pressure. How do you proceed with massage? A. Get medical clearance prior to the massage B. Avoid the area as not to cause a cerebrovascular accident C. Massage the affected area to reduce DVT signs and symptoms D. Avoid the area as to not cause pulmonary embolism

Avoid the area as to not cause pulmonary embolism

Which muscle would be affected by carrying a heavy picnic basket for a long periods of time A. Trapezius B. Supraspinatus C. Infraspinatus D. Sartorius

Supraspinatus

Client comes in complaining of a sore knee from a few weeks ago. States she has intermittent pain and swelling. During palpation of the area, the therapist finds adhesive tissue. What’s the best course of action? A. Apply analgesic balm B. Apply a heat pack C. Apply deep friction D. Apply an ice pack

Apply deep friction

When hamstrings are tight, it can cause which of the following conditions? A. Anterior tilt B. Posterior tilt C. Right tilt D. Left tilt

Posterior tilt

What gland is located superficial to the masseter muscle? A. Sublingual gland B. Submandibular gland C. Pineal gland D. Paratoid gland

Paratoid gland

What kind of end feel occurs when a therapist passively flexes a client’s elbow, but does not reach full range of motion because the client purposefully prevents it because of anticipated pain? A. Soft B. Hard C. Empty D. Ligamentous

Empty

Which muscles are tight when the shoulder blades are protracted A. Rhomboids B. Supraspinatus C. Pectoralis minor D. Levator scapulae

Pectoralis minor

Where does lymph collected from the right lower quadrant return to the systemic circulation? A. Hepatic portal vein B. Left subclavian vein C. Right subclavian vein D. Great saphenous vein

Left subclavian vein

If a client has had a colostomy, how much time should pass after a large meal before receiving massage? A. Thirty minutes B. Two to three hours C. Four to five hours D. A client can receive a massage immediately after consuming a large meal

Two to three hours

Which bones make up the pectoral girdle? A. Scapula and clavicle B. Scapula and ribcage C. Scapula and humerus D. Scapula and sternum

Scapula and clavicle

Which part of the ear is involved with spatial orientation and balance? A. Cochlea B. Eustachian tubes C. Semicircular canals D. Tympanic membrane

Semicircular canals

Which part of the brain controls heart and respiration rates? A. Thalamus B. Cerebullum C. Hippocampus D. Medulla oblongata

Medulla oblongata

Which region of the body is affected if a client has pyelonephritis? A. Upper back B. Lower back C. Groin area D. Facial area

Lower back

Which region of the body is affected if a client has trigeminal neuralgia? A. Upper back B. Lower back C. Groin area D. Facial area

Facial area

What format must you send your tax identification number if it is requested by subpoena? A. XX-3456789 B. 12-XXX6789 C. 12-345XXXX D. 12-3456789

12-3456789

Concentric contraction of iliopsoas and rectus femoris occurs during which part of the gait cycle? A. Heel contact phase B. Stance phase C. Swing phase D. Toe off phase

Swing phase

Which of the following glands secrete oily substance into hair follicles? A. Sebaceous glands B. Eccrine glands C. Apocrine glands D. Sudoriferous glands

Sebaceous glands

Which of the following is the most common areas of contact burns from hot pack in clinical settings? A. Lower back B. Shoulders C. Legs D. Hips

Legs

Which method utilizes techniques of passive stretching, isometric contraction against resistance? A. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation B. Manual lymphatic drainage C. Myofascial release D. Therapeutic touch

Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation

What part of a research study contains the most important information? A. Discussion B. Introduction C. Abstract D. Methods

Abstract

Which of the following protects a brand’s name from unauthorized use? A. Trademark B. Warrant C. Affidavit D. Incorporation

Trademark

Which of the following conditions is an absolute contraindication for massage? A. Orthostatic hypotension B. Bell palsy C. Emphysema D. Preeclampsia

Preeclampsia

Which of the following conditions had the highest correlation to contact burns from clinical applications of thermotherapy? A. Congestive heart failure B. Diabetes mellitus C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

Diabetes mellitus

Which of the following populations are at higher-than-normal risk for developing deep vein thrombosis and necessitate screening for this condition prior to massage? A. Athletes B. People who take beta-blockers C. People diagnosed with cancer D. Veterans

People diagnosed with cancer

Which of the following conditions is a local contraindication for cryotherapy? A. Cushing syndrome B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Marfan syndrome D. Raynaud syndrome

Raynaud syndrome

Which of the following endangerment sites is associated with serious adverse events resulting from massage? A. Posterior knee B. Anterior neck C. Lateral trunk D. Medial thigh

Anterior neck

Massage practitioners should sanitize contaminated or high-touch surfaces using disinfectants registered by the: A. Environmental Protection Agency. B. World Health Organization. C. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

Environmental Protection Agency.

At which point(s) in the session does a massage practitioner assess and record the client’s pain or stress levels? A. When the client books the appointment B. When the client reschedules the appointment C. When obtaining consent for treatment D. Before the massage and after the massage

Before the massage and after the massage

Which of the following best describes a client with two or more diseases or medical conditions? A. Compensatory B. Confabulation C. Comorbidity D. Congenital

Comorbidity

A client has a medical diagnosis of adhesive capsulitis. Which joint is involved? A. Wrist B. Hip C. Knee D. Shoulder

Shoulder

When screening for deep vein thrombosis in a high-risk client, practitioner assessment involves looking for the presence of: A. sudden pain upon passive flexion of the knee. B. unilateral leg swelling, heat, redness, and pain. C. non-blanching skin over and near the affected area. D. local rebound tenderness upon application and removal of digital pressure

unilateral leg swelling, heat, redness, and pain.

What should be on every treatment plan or session note? A. Age and gender B. Height and weight C. Name and date D. Diagnosis and prognosis

Name and date

Which of the following planes would a practitioner observe an elevated right iliac crest? A. Transverse B. Coronal C. Midsagittal D. Frontal

Transverse

Another term to describe a prime mover in muscle contraction is: A. Isometric B. Agonist C. Fixator D. Antagonist

Agonist

The femoral head articulates with the os coxa at the: A. Glenoid cavity B. Acetabulum C. Olecranon D. Foramen magnum

Acetabulum

When working on a client diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome, the practitioner should focus treatment of the: A. Finger extensors B. Finger flexors C. Dorsal ligaments D. Plantar aponeurosis

Finger flexors

Which is an often-overlooked condition in whiplash cases? A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Temporomandibular disorders D. Greater occipital nerve compression

Temporomandibular disorders

Which of the following regions contains an interosseous membrane? A. Antebrachial B. Femoral C. Abdominal D. Popliteal

Antebrachial

Which of the following glands are responsible for regulating body temperature? A. Pineal B. Ceruminous C. Sebaceous D. Sudoriferous

Sudoriferous

Which of the following techniques involve contracting the antagonist against resistance to facilitate increased lengthen of the targeted muscle? A. Reciprocal inhibition B. Trigger point therapy C. Positional release therapy D. Strain-counterstrain

Reciprocal inhibition

A synarthrotic joint: A. Connects the cranial bones B. Has a joint capsule C. Is freely movable D. Contains hyaline cartilage

Connects the cranial bones

When descending during a push up, the triceps are in: A. Isometric contraction B. Eccentric contraction C. Concentric contraction D. Tonic contraction

Eccentric contraction

What stance is best described by one foot positioned in front of the other with one knee flexed? A. Archer B. Horse C. Symmetric D. Anatomic

Archer

Placing a client who is in advanced pregnancy on her side or combining a semi-reclining position with a left lateral tilt while supine facilitates reducing pressure on which of the following structures? A. Liver and gallbladder B. Aorta and vena cava C. Duodenum and ileum D. Carotid and jugular

Aorta and vena cava

Bronchitis is a disease of which body system? A. Lymphatic B. Cardiovascular C. Respiratory D. Urinary

Respiratory

Which process destroys all microorganisms, pathogenic and nonpathogenic? A. Cleaning B. Disinfection C. Sterilization D. Sanitation

Sterilization

Cystitis is a disease of which body system? A. Lymphatic B. Cardiovascular C. Respiratory D. Urinary

Urinary

What theory might explain why people scratch when itching? A. Neuromatrix theory B. Pattern theory C. Gate theory D. Specificity theory

Gate theory