Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RT 205 > 6. Ethical Issues > Flashcards

6. Ethical Issues Flashcards

1
Q

is the written assent of a patient to receive a proposed treatment.

A

Informed consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

It is the most common concert in all the

imaging modalities

A

Informed consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Health Care Providers, however, should
be able to provide patients with a process that renders them truly
knowledgeable about the procedures and
their alternatives

A

Informed consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

is the concept that patients are to be treated as individuals and informed about procedures to facilitate appropriate decisions.

A

Autonomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

means that one human person, precisely as a human person, dares not have the authority and should not have power over another human person. In a medical sense, a patient will not be treated without informed consent of his or her lawful surrogates, except in narrowly defined emergencies.

A

Autonomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

is important in considerations of autonomy

A

The patient’s right to information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Specific treatments such as surgery, invasive procedures, or experimental treatments may require specific consent, called _______, which confirms in writing what is planned and the patient is agreeing to as part of that plan.

A

informed consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

CRUCIAL ELEMENTS IN PATIENT AUTONOMY AND INFORMED CONSENT

A
  1. Maintenance of patients’ rights
  2. Provision of education to facilitate
    consent
  3. Promotion of human dignity
  4. Determination of incompetence
  5. Advocacy of surrogates
  6. Elimination of attitudes of paternalism
  7. Clarification of unclear communication
    involving therapeutic privilege
  8. Strategies for dealing with emergency
    situations
  9. Use of compatible parameters for
    consent in specific health care facilities
  10. Education regarding the ethical theories
    involved in patient autonomy and
    informed consent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q 
Established a patient care partnership
document, which is to be given to
hospitalized patients to help them
understand the expectations, rights, and
responsibilities regarding their health
care
A

American Hospital Association

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

EXPECTATION SHOULD INCLUDE:

A

-High Quality hospital care delivered
with skill
-Compassion, and Respect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

PCP

A

Patient Care Partnership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The following FIVE POTENTIALLY CONFLICTING RULES may guide the Physician or the health care provider in explaining information to patients (INFORMATION DELIVERY):

A
  1. Patient preference rule
  2. Professional custom rule
  3. Prudent person rule
  4. Subjective substantial disclosure rule
  5. Institutional Rules Regarding Informed Consent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

requires health care professionals to tell patients what they want to know.

A

Patient preference rule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

states that the health care professional should give the patient the information normally given to patients in similar situations

A

Professional custom rule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

measures the physician’s disclosure to the patient based on the patient’s need for information to make decisions regarding treatment.

A

Prudent person rule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Prudent person rule AKA

A

reasonable patient standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

encourages the physician to disseminate all information important to the individual patient.

A

Subjective substantial disclosure rule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

addresses many of
the important elements of informed
consent

A

Prudent person rule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q 
A combination of the \_\_\_\_\_\_
and the \_\_\_\_\_\_, which
requires the physician to communicate
meaningfully with the patient, provides the
information the patient needs to make an
informed decision.
A

prudent person rule,

subjective substantial disclosure rule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Imaging professionals must consider

institutional rules concerning a variety of

A

ethical issues, including informed consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Provides information

patients want to know

A

Patient preference rule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Provides the
information normally
given to patients

A

Professional custom rule

23
Q

Provides the
information patients
need to know to consent
to or refuse treatment

A

Prudent person rule

24
Q

Provides patients with

all information

A

Subjective substantial disclosure rule

25
Q

Provides information
without overburdening
the patient

A

Combination of rules

26
Q

Helps ensure patient autonomy

A

The Patients Self Determination Act of 1991

27
Q

Means that imaging professionals
should respect a patient’s choice to
refuse treatments

A

The Patients Self Determination Act of 1991

28
Q

The Patients Self Determination Act of 1991 Became effective

A

December 1, 1991

29
Q

requires all health care institutions receiving Medicare or Medicaid funds to inform patients that they have the right to refuse medical and surgical care and the right to initiate a written advance directive

A

The Patients Self Determination Act of 1991

30
Q

Formally legislated the basic human

rights of all patients to refuse treatment

A

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990

31
Q

is the ability to make choices.

A

Competence

32
Q

may be a parent, an individual named by the patient while competent, or a person or persons appointed by the courts.

A

Surrogate

33
Q

Undue influences that may restrict the patient’s choices are a hindrance to autonomy:

A
  • A lack of time can influence the completeness of the informed consent process.
  • Lack of communication on the part of the patient or professional may interfere with the informed consent process.
34
Q

provide seven points to enable the health care professional to maintain respect for autonomy.

A

Jonsen, Siegler, and Winslade

35
Q

a narrowly construed prerogative invoked when health care providers withhold information from patients because they believe the information would have adverse effects on the patients’ conditions or health.

A

Therapeutic privilege

36
Q

Can influence the completeness of the

informed consent process

A

Lack of time

37
Q

the informed consent process may have to be abandoned to save the patient’s life.

A

Emergency Situations

38
Q

According to the laws of many states, three conditions must be present for the omission of informed consent to be justified:

A
  1. The patient is incapable of giving consent, and no lawful surrogate is available.
  2. Danger to life or risk of a serious impairment to health is apparent.
  3. Immediate treatment is necessary to avert these dangers
39
Q

are not always possible in emergency situations.

A

Informed consent and autonomy

40
Q

Jonsen, Siegler, and Winslade provide seven points to enable the health care professional to maintain respect for autonomy. They have been modified below for imaging professionals:

A
  1. Is the patient mentally capable and legally competent? Is there any evidence of incapacity that would affect the imaging procedure?
  2. If competent, has the imaging patient expressed any preferences for the imaging procedure?
  3. Does the imaging patient understand the benefits and the risks, and has he or she given consent?
  4. If the patient is in need of a surrogate, is the surrogate using the appropriate standards for decision making?
  5. Has the imaging patient expressed prior preferences (e.g., advance directives)?
  6. If the imaging patient is unable or unwilling to cooperate with the imaging procedure, is there a specific reason?
  7. After a consideration of the first six points, is the patient’s right to choose being respected to the extent possible both ethically and legally?
41
Q

is a predetermined (usually written) choice made to inform others of the ways in which the patient wishes to be treated while incompetent

A

Advance Directive

42
Q

requires the greatest good to be done for the greatest number.

A

Theory of consequentialism (utilitarianism)

43
Q

holds that the motives for an action are the most important considerations.

A

Deontology

44
Q

invokes practical wisdom and right reason

A

Virtue ethics

45
Q

is not very relevant in considerations of autonomy and consent because it is generally applied to large numbers of persons.

A

Utilitarianism

46
Q

with its emphasis on motives instead of consequences, is difficult to apply in considerations of the maintenance of a patient’s autonomy because in this situation the consequences are crucial.

A

deontologic viewpoint

47
Q

relies on virtues, practical wisdom, and an appreciation of the consequences of actions.

A

Virtue ethics

48
Q

This theory is the most adaptable for dealing with the difficulties of patient autonomy because it promotes the dignity of patients and their freedom of choice

A

Virtue ethics

49
Q

means that imaging professionals should respect a

patient’s choice to refuse treatments

A

principle of autonomy

50
Q

a written or oral statement by which a competent person makes known his or her treatment
preferences and/or designates a surrogate decision maker in the event he or she should become
unable to make medical decisions on his or her own behalf

A

advance directive

51
Q

is a necessary element in informed consent

A

Competence

52
Q

entails the ability to make appropriate choices and consider their consequences.

A

Competence

53
Q

is essential for the patient to give truly informed consent.

A

adequate information

RT 205 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions