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1 PID Unit > 5 > Flashcards

5 Flashcards

1
Q

How many people will never get TSST-1 antibodies?

A

20%

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2
Q

What bacteria does yellow pus/discharge suggest?

A

staph aureus

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3
Q

What drug would you give in anticipation of either staph aureus TSS or Group A strep TSS?

A

vancomycin, clindamycin, and rifampin.[rifampin= mucous membrane penetration. clindamycin= stops toxin production. Vanco=strong Ab.]

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4
Q

What is a left shift in WBC

A

immature WBC meaning an infection

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5
Q

What are the 5 criteria for staph TSS?

A
  1. Body temp >102
  2. Systolic BP<90
  3. Diffuse rash/erythroderma
  4. Desquamation upon recovery
  5. Involvement of 3 or more organs
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6
Q

What is clindamycin used for?

A

protein synthesis inhibitor that has the capacity to inhibit exotoxin production at concentrations below its antimicrobial concentration

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7
Q

What does staph aureus need for TSST-1 production?

A

oxygen [tampons]

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8
Q

Does strep TSS need oxygen for production of TSST-1?

A

No they aerotolerant anaerobes but never use oxygen

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9
Q

What phase of bacterial growth is defined as enzymes being induced to allow bacterial growth?

A

Lag phase

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10
Q

What phase of bacterial growth is defined by doubling times?

A

log phase

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11
Q

What happens in post-exponential phase of bacterial growth?

A

toxin–small molecules signal a quorum and induces exotoxin production

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12
Q

What bacterial phase is defined as nutrients used up an growth stops?

A

stationary phase

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13
Q

What type of bacteria die quickly in death phase?

A

obligate fermenters [acid, superoxide, H2O2 build up]

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14
Q

What enzymes must obligate aerobes have?

A

superoxide dismutase SODcatalase

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15
Q

What enzymes must a facultative anaerobe (aerobe) have?

A

SODcatalase

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16
Q

What enzymes do aerotolerant anaerobes have?

A

SOD, but no catalase

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17
Q

What types of bacteria neither have SOD nor catalase?

A

obligate anaerobes

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18
Q

What type of bacteria are Bacillus and Mycobacterium?

A

obligate aerobes

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19
Q

What type of bacteria is Staph and Escherichia?

A

Facultative anaerobe

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20
Q

What type of bacteria are streptococcus?

A

aerotolerant anaerobes

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21
Q

What is a microaerophiles?

A

prefer reduced amounts of oxygen [Neisseria and Borrelia]

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22
Q

What is Gram+, Catalase+, coagulase+?

A

S. aureus

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23
Q

What groups of bacteria are catalase negative, cocci and gram positive?

A

streptococci and enterococci

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24
Q

What is gram positive, cocci, catalase negative, B hemolysis and bacitacin sensitive?

A

Group A strep

25
Q

What is Gram positive, cocci, catalase negative, a hemolysis, and optochin sensitive?

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

26
Q

What type of bacteria is a peptostreptococcus?

A

obligate anaerobe

27
Q

anaerobe or aerobe Gram +Rod–listeria?

A

aerobe

28
Q

anaerobe or aerobe Gram +Rod–lactobacillus?

A

aerotolerant anaerobe

29
Q

anaerobe or aerobe Gram +Rod–bifidobacterium?

A

anaerobe

30
Q

What are the 2 spore formers?

A

Bacillus [aerobe]Clostridium [anaerobes]

31
Q

What bacteria category do neisseria and acinetobacter fall under?

A

Gram negative cocci

32
Q

What bacteria category does enterobacteriaceae, pseudomonadaceae, fusobacterium, haemophilus, bordetella, legionella?

A

Gram neg. Rods

33
Q

What are the 2 main lactose negative bacteria?

A

salmonella and shigella

34
Q

What agar do we use primarily for lactose tests?

A

MacConkey- pink = lactose positivewhite=lactose negative

35
Q

How is the MacConkey agar selective?

A

inhibits gram positive growth

36
Q

What is a mesophile?

A

survive at body temperature

37
Q

Why do we have fevers?

A

most bacteria require more iron at higher temperatures–this is why too much Iron is bad

38
Q

How do bacteria scavenge iron?

A

siderophores

39
Q

What antibiotics target DNA gyrase?

A

quinolones

40
Q

Where does bacterial transcription terminate? What might it require?

A

hairpin turn, may require rho factor

41
Q

What antibiotic is used to inhibit the initiation of transcription? What is its strong quality?

A

Rifampin [ also rifamycin]High mucosal surface penetrator [red urine and red contacts]

42
Q

What does bacterial translation require?

A

Shine Dalgarnoinitiation factors30S and 50S subunits for 70Sribosomes

43
Q

What are the 3 protein synthesis inhibitors of 50S ribosome?

A

chloramphenicol
erythromycin
clindamycin

44
Q

What 50S inhibitor penetrates the CNS well?

A

chloramphenicol

45
Q

What 50S inhibitor is used in penicillin allergic patients?

A

erythromycin

46
Q

What 50 S inhibitor may allow the growth of Clostridium difficult and lead to pseudomembranous enterocolitis?

A

clindamycin

47
Q

What are the major areas of toxicity for 30S inhibitors?

A

oto and nephro

48
Q

How do amino glycoside protein synthesis inhibitors work?

A

cause the wrong amino acyl tRNA to bind and at higher concentration binds ribosomes and causes them to fall off[perfect for gram-]

49
Q

The 30S inhibitor tetracycline may cause what side effects?

A

upset stomachimpairment of bone development under 12stains teeth dark of infants whose mothers took it during preg. [BINDS CALCIUM!]

50
Q

What is mupirocin used for? how does it work?

A

topically in treating impetigo due to strep/staphinhibits isoleucine tRNA

51
Q

What is polymyxin B used for?

A

membrane activity–used in affinity columns to remove LPS from cloned proteins[binds tightly with Lipid A]

52
Q

What does daptomycin cause?

A

membrane disruption

53
Q

How do sulfonamides and trimethoprim work? which one is specific to bacteria over human cells?

A

-blocks sequential steps in folic acid metabolism-sulfonamide is specific for only bacteria, but trimethoprim is 50k-100k more active on bacteria that human cells

54
Q

What types of bacteria are resistant to sulfonamides and trimethoprim?

A

anaerobes are resistants[kills aerobes, facultative bacteria and pneumocystis carinii (fungi!!!!)]

55
Q

What is the difference between minimum inhibitory concentration and minimum bactericidal concentration?

A

inhibitory is the amount of agent needed to impede visible growthbactericidal is the amount needed to kill the organism by 3log

56
Q

Is tetracycline bactericidal?

A

no, bacteriostatic

57
Q

anaerobe or aerobe Gram +Rod–corynebacterium?

A

aerobe

58
Q

anaerobe or aerobe Gram +Rod– propionibacterium?

A

anaerobe

1 PID Unit (12 decks)

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